Answers
A higher ratio, such as 1:4, would indicate a more concentrated solution than a lower ratio like 1:10. A 45:100 liquid ratio implies that the liquid contains 45 parts of the active ingredient in 100 parts of the solution.
The term 'parts' could refer to grams (g) or milliliters (mL), depending on the context of the solution. For example, if the solution is water-based, the parts would refer to mL, whereas if it is oil-based, the parts would refer to g. Therefore, to calculate the amount of active ingredient in the solution, we need to know the total volume or weight of the solution.
If the solution is 100 g in weight, then it would contain 45 g of the active ingredient. Alternatively, if the solution is 100 mL in volume, then it would contain 45 mL of the active ingredient.
It is important to note that the concentration of the active ingredient in the solution is determined by the ratio of the parts specified.
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A 45:100 liquid solution contains 0.45 g of active ingredient in 100 mL of solution.
The question is asking about the concentration of a liquid solution, specifically how much active ingredient is present in the solution. The notation "45:100" refers to the ratio of the amount of active ingredient to the total amount of solution. In this case, it means that for every 100 units of the liquid solution, 45 units are the active ingredient.
To determine the actual amounts of liquid and active ingredient, we need to know what units are being used for the ratio. The options given are grams (g) and milliliters (mL). Grams are a measure of mass, while milliliters are a measure of volume. Therefore, the answer will depend on the density of the liquid.
If we assume that the liquid has a density of 1 g/mL (which is close to the density of water), then we can convert the ratio to either grams or milliliters. For example, if we want to know how much active ingredient is in 100 mL of the solution, we can use the ratio to calculate:
45 mL active ingredient / 100 mL solution = 0.45 (or 45%) active ingredient
Then, we can use the density assumption to convert the volume of active ingredient to mass:
0.45 x 1 g/mL = 0.45 g active ingredient
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Related Questions
Which statement best describes morphology
Answers
Hello everyone can someone answer this question please
Answers
The correct answer is C. Hippocampus.
Explanation
The hippocampus is a brain structure that is located in the temporal lobe of each cerebral cortex. It is an important part of the limbic system. In this area of the brain stimuli, emotions, learning, and memory are regulated. Likewise, in this region, adult neurogenesis takes place, a process in which new neurons are produced. According to the above, the complete paragraph of the question would be:
Thought I was once believing that we were born with all of the neurons we would ever have, recent research suggests that neurogenesis continues in the hippocampus, an area of the brain that is important for learning and creating new memories.
According to the above, the correct answer is C. Hippocampus.
In addition to its main business, Amazon owns Whole Foods (a grocery), PillPack (an online pharmacy) and One Medical (a health care company). Amazon will run each business as a separate entity. Discus
Answers
Amazon is one of the largest e-commerce companies in the world.
In addition to its main business, Amazon owns other businesses such as Whole Foods, PillPack, and One Medical.
What is Whole Foods?
Whole Foods is a grocery chain that sells natural and organic foods.
It has more than 500 stores worldwide.
Amazon acquired Whole Foods in 2017 for $13.7 billion.
What is PillPack?
PillPack is an online pharmacy that delivers medications to patients.
Amazon bought PillPack in 2018 for just under $1 billion.
What is One Medical?
One Medical is a primary care network that provides health care services to patients.
Amazon invested in One Medical in 2019.
In conclusion, Amazon owns Whole Foods, PillPack, and One Medical.
Amazon has decided to run each business as a separate entity.
This means that each business will operate independently.
Each business will have its own management team, employees, and brand.
However, Amazon may provide support to these businesses in terms of technology, logistics, and other resources.
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retrospective studies show that HIV was present in humans as early as
a.) 1981
b.)1970's
c.)1959
d.)1937
Answers
Describe the different structures of the oral cavity that the dental laboratory technician requires from a final impression for a removable prosthodontic appliance, and compare these with the requirements for a fixed- prosthesis case.
Answers
Answer:
Both the methods used in making conventional impressions and digital impressions are shown in this presentation. The various impression materials are described and their suitability for fixed prosthodontic impressions is discussed. Materials described include irreversible hydrocolloid, reversible hydrocolloid, polysulfide, condensation reaction silicone, addition reaction silicone, polyether, and alginate substitutes. The design principles and methods for making custom impression trays are described. Impression methods are demonstrated in detail and are supplemented with a video demonstration.
Explanation:
The oral cavity is the initial phase of the digestive tract. Its major purpose is to act as the entry to the alimentary canal, allowing salivation and the propelling of the food substance into the pharynx to begin the digestion process. The oral cavity is enclosed by:
the lips and two flexible muscle folds that stretch from the edge of the mouthThe different structures of the oral cavity include:
Upper Jaw,Lower Jaw,Gums, and;Tooth.A dental laboratory technician is an experienced individual with a dental team who manufactures customized therapeutic and restorative dental appliances on prescription from a dental practitioner.
Removable prosthodontics focuses on the teeth replacement, in conjunction with soft tissues with a removable non-permanent prosthesis.
Removable prosthodontics appliances can be used for standard removable partial dentures for replacing missing teeth and this can help to avoid further surgery.
On the other hand, Fixed prosthodontics is the practice of repairing teeth with restorations that are permanently affixed to the patient's mouth. They're usually created in a laboratory by a dental laboratory technician who takes impressions to work with.
The difference between a removable prosthodontic appliance and a fixed prosthesis case is as follows:
removable prosthodontic fixed prosthesis case
It can be easily removed by It requires a dental practitioner to
from the mouth when required remove it.
Can lead to further jaw bone It makes the jaw bone firm and intact
deterioration
Its cost is usually affordable but, The cost is higher and it is a longtime
it has limited longetivity value.
From the above, explanation, we can conclude that we've understood what the different structures of the oral cavity are and how to make a comparison between the removable prosthodontic appliance and the fixed prosthesis case.
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Explain one way you would determine which Tricare plan to bill for different patients ?
Answers
Answer:
Explanation: TRICARE is the Department of Defense's health insurance plan for military personnel and their families. TRICARE, which includes managed care options, replaced the program known as the Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Uniformed Services (CHAMPUS). TRICARE is a regionally managed health care program that brings the resources of military hospitals together with a network of civilian facilities and providers to offer increased access to health care services. All military treatment facilities, including hospitals and clinics, are part of the TRICARE system. TRICARE also contracts with civilian facilities and physicians to provide more extensive services to beneficiaries.
Members of the following uniformed services and their families are eligible for TRICARE: The Army, Navy, Air Force, Marine Corps, Coast Guard, Public Health Service (PHS), and National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA). Reserve and National Guard personnel become eligible when on active duty for more than thirty consecutive days or when they retire from reserve status at age sixty. The uniformed services member is referred to as a sponsor, since the member's status makes other family members eligible for TRICARE coverage.
Tricare plan is a type of health maintenance organization which is made to serve the service people. It comprises of military hospitals and clinics for the healthcare service.
What is Tricare plan?
TRICARE health plans are similar to a health maintenance organization program. Tricare plans generally features the use of military hospitals and clinics for healthcare and substantially the reduction of out-of-pocket costs for the authorized care provided outside the military hospitals and clinics by the TRICARE network providers.
The active duty service members and their families, retired service men and their families, national guard/ reserve members and their families. The plan availability of Tricare depends upon the person being served and where does he/ she lives.
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Which employees should be aware of how to turn off power to a shop in an emergency?
Answers
Answer: probably all of them
Explanation:
what's the history of medicine
Answers
Answer:
shows how societies have changed in their approach to illness and disease from ancient times to the present
what are the 2 layers of testes
Answers
Answer:
There are two layers of the tunica vaginalis: the visceral and the parietal. The visceral layer overlies the tunica albuginea (middle layer of the tunica) while the parietal layer lines the scrotal cavity.26
which is a false statement of the usp/nf chapter <797> regulations?
Answers
A false statement about the usp/nf chapter <797> regulations could be that they do not apply to all compounding personnel, environments, and equipment.
The USP/NF chapter <797> regulations are guidelines established by the United States Pharmacopeia and the National Formulary to ensure the safe preparation and handling of compounded sterile preparations (CSPs). These regulations cover various aspects such as facility design, personnel training, environmental monitoring, and documentation. It is crucial for healthcare providers to comply with these regulations to prevent contamination and adverse patient outcomes. It is recommended that you consult with a healthcare professional or regulatory agency for further information on USP/NF chapter <797> regulations and to ensure compliance.
The USP/NF Chapter <797> regulations outline standards for compounding sterile preparations to ensure patient safety and minimize the risk of contamination. A false statement about these regulations could be that they do not apply to all compounding personnel, environments, and equipment. In reality, the USP <797> regulations apply to all healthcare personnel involved in the compounding of sterile preparations, as well as the facilities, equipment, and supplies used in the process. This ensures a consistent level of quality and safety across all compounding activities.
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A person receives Ty21a vaccine because he is traveling to a country in which typhoid fever is endemic. If he plans to continue this type of travel in the future, when is it recommended that he be revaccinated against typhoid fever
Answers
Answer:
in five (5) years
Explanation:
Typhoid fever is a disease caused by eating or drinking food or water contaminated with a bacteria called Salmonella typhi. Some symptoms of typhoid fever include high fever, abdominal pain, weakness, constipation and mild vomiting. The S. typhi Ty21a (Ty21a) vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine created by reducing the virulence of the pathogen, which is orally administrated. Revaccination with Ty21a is recommended after 5 years in the USA and 7 years in Canada after first vaccination, regardless of the risk of infection. However, the period of protection after Ty21a immunization still has not been well defined.
the charge nurse observes a staff nurse caring for a new mother with oral herpes simplex type i. which action by the nurse indicates that further instruction on transmission of this disease is needed
Answers
If the nurse fails to wear gloves or practice proper hand hygiene when caring for a new mother with oral herpes simplex type I, it indicates a need for further instruction on disease transmission.
If the charge nurse observes a staff nurse caring for a new mother with oral herpes simplex type I, an action that indicates the need for further instruction on the transmission of this disease would be if the nurse does not wear gloves or practice proper hand hygiene when providing care to the mother. Herpes simplex type I is highly contagious and can be transmitted through direct contact with the oral lesions or the fluid they contain.
Therefore, it is essential for healthcare providers to take appropriate precautions, such as wearing gloves and practicing hand hygiene, to prevent the spread of the virus to the mother or other individuals in the care setting.
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Final Exam
OSHA requires that employers make medical and training records available upon request for
examination and copying to the subject employee, their representatives, and to government
regulators under OSHA.
A. True
B. False
Answers
. The standard also requires employers to make those records accessible and available to employees or their legal representatives, and to OSHA.
The statement is True. Employers are required by OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration) to keep and make available to employees, their representatives, and government regulators specific medical and training records. This is consistent with OSHA's dedication to protecting employee health and safety at work.
Employers are required to maintain records of employee training as well as records of illnesses, injuries, and exposure to hazardous substances that occur on the job. To check for compliance with safety requirements and to address issues relating to occupational health and safety, employees, their authorized representatives, and government regulators have the right to seek access to these records for examination and copying.
Although OSHA requires access to these documents, it's crucial to remember that employers must respect employees' privacy and confidentiality when granting access to medical records. Private health information of individuals should be protected while also enabling the required supervision and accountability with the access.
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in aortic rupture
Why is it happening in it hypotension lower extrimmtes ?
Why is it happening in it hypertension in Upper extremities ?
Answers
Answer:
Es una afección grave en la cual hay una ruptura en la pared de la arteria principal que transporta la sangre fuera del corazón (la aorta). A medida que la ruptura se extiende a lo largo de la pared de la aorta, la sangre puede correr por entre las capas de la pared del vaso sanguíneo (disección).
Explanation:
Discuss the effects of hallucinogenic drugs on the brain
Answers
Answer:
Hallucinogens distort the perception of reality, causing people to see and believe things that aren't real. Hallucinogens can also have long-term effects on the brain that can cause memory problems, paranoia, and impaired judgment.
medical prescription: aminophylline 50 mg orally 8/8 hours. available: 5% aminophylline solution - 50ml bottles. how many ml should be given?
Answers
Answer:
To calculate how many mL of the 5% aminophylline solution should be given, we need to use the formula:
(amount of medication needed / concentration of medication available) x volume of medication available = volume of medication to be administered
Using this formula, we can calculate the volume of the aminophylline solution to be given as follows:
(amount of medication needed) = 50 mg (concentration of medication available) = 5% (volume of medication available) = 50 mL
First, we need to convert 50 mg to grams by dividing by 1000:
50 mg / 1000 = 0.05 g
Next, we need to calculate the amount of aminophylline solution required. We can do this by rearranging the formula as follows:
(volume of medication to be administered) = (amount of medication needed / concentration of medication available) x volume of medication available
(volume of medication to be administered) = (0.05 g / 0.05 g/mL) x 1 mL
(volume of medication to be administered) = 1 mL
Therefore, to administer 50 mg of aminophylline orally every 8 hours, 1 mL of the 5% aminophylline solution should be given.
Explanation:
How do the most common allergens in hay fever come in contact with the individual?
O A. contracted through touching surfaces
O B. through body fluids
O C. passed in the mucus
O D. they are airborne
Answers
Answer:
D it is airborne it floats in the air and causes the allergy
D
Stress releases __________ in your body.
Dopamine
Adrenaline
Serotonin
Insulin
Answers
Answer:
Adrenaline
Explanation:
Stress releases Adrenaline in your body.
Stress releases adrenaline in your body. Therefore, option (B) is correct.
What is Adrenaline?When you experience stress, your body releases adrenaline, which is a hormone that triggers the "fight or flight" response. Adrenaline increases your heart rate, elevates your blood pressure, and boosts your energy levels to help you respond to the perceived threat or challenge.
While adrenaline can be helpful in short-term stressful situations, chronic stress can lead to excessive release of adrenaline and other stress hormones, which can have negative impacts on your health over time.
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Which of the following considerations is relevant to a person whose elderly parents are sick but refuse to make an appointment at the doctor? Which days of the week are appointments available? Who has treated their illnesses in the past? Is it her place to make decisions for her parents? Does she have medical expertise?
Answers
A good question to ask in such as case is; ""who has treated their illnesses in the past?"
Medical care for the elderly is very sensitive. Most elderly people are very choosy when it pertains to who or where they receive medical care. Many times, this is as a result of past experiences.
Hence, a good question to ask when a person whose elderly parents are sick but refuse to make an appointment at the doctor is "who has treated their illnesses in the past".
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With your field diagnosis in mind, you develop a treatment plan for your patient. This part of the critical decision-making process is called:
A) evaluating the results.
B) applying principles.
C) forming a concept.
D) interpreting the data.
Answers
The development of a treatment plan after diagnosing a patient is the application of principles. This process is critical to managing the patient's condition effectively and ensuring their recovery. The answer is B) Applying principles.
With your field diagnosis in mind, you develop a treatment plan for your patient. This part of the critical decision-making process is called applying principles. Applying principles is an important aspect of critical decision-making that is fundamental to developing an appropriate treatment plan for a patient.
The term "applying principles" refers to the process of creating a set of guidelines based on professional experience and knowledge to assess the signs and symptoms of a medical condition accurately.
Professionals, such as physicians, use their experience and knowledge to create a set of principles that they can use to evaluate patients and create the most suitable treatment plans possible.
Diagnosis is the process of determining the cause and nature of a medical condition that affects an individual. It is a necessary and fundamental aspect of medical treatment.
Accurate diagnosis helps to establish an appropriate treatment plan, which is critical to managing the patient's condition effectively.
Treatment refers to the medical interventions and procedures employed to manage or cure a medical condition. Treatment is typically based on the diagnosis made by a physician, and the objective of treatment is to mitigate the symptoms of a medical condition and restore the patient's health and well-being.
In conclusion, the development of a treatment plan after diagnosing a patient is the application of principles. This process is critical to managing the patient's condition effectively and ensuring their recovery. The answer is B) Applying principles.
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Which of the following is an appropriate guideline for maintaining safety when using sharps
Answers
Answer:
Keep the object pointed away from yourself and other people at all times
How do the trillions of cells in the human body get what they need to function, and what do the cells do with the things they absorb
Answers
Cell is commonly described as the functional and structural unit of life which contains proteins and biomolecules required to ensure normal bodily functions.
Cells require energy and macronutrients which are obtained from the nutrients supplied majorly from the food we eat which when broken down contains these macronutrients required to ensure cell functionality.
The transport of blood and water requires energy which is supplied cell functions, similarly, repair to worn out tissues are effected by the macronutrients in proteins found in the cell.
Hence, the food we eat plays major role in activating normal cell functions.
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Cells get energy to function from the foods humans consume. After absorption things are used as energy.
Before our cells can utilize the proteins, lipids, and polysaccharides that make up the majority of the food humans consume—either as a source of energy or as building blocks for other molecules—they must first be broken down into smaller molecules. Food consumed from the outside must be broken down, but not the macromolecules found inside our own cells.
Energy and macronutrients are needed by cells, and these nutrients are found mostly in the food we eat, which, when broken down, includes the macronutrients needed to maintain cell activity.
Similar to how cell processes are powered by macronutrients present in proteins, the transfer of blood and water and the mending of worn-out tissues are both impacted by these nutrients.
Thus, food is the major source of energy for the cells.
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1. What role does estrogen play in bone remodeling? (Be specific; discuss RANK, RANKL and OPG.)
2. What role(s) do glucocorticoids play in bone remodeling? (Be specific; discuss RANK, RANKL, and OPG.)
Answers
Both estrogen and glucocorticoids play an important part in remodeling.
The main impact of estrogen is to inhibit bone transforming, possible via the bone cell. steroid hormone additionally inhibits bone organic process, primarily by directs effects on osteoclasts, though effects of steroid hormone on osteoblast/osteocyte and T-cell regulation of osteoclasts possible additionally play a job.
Glucocorticoids cause profound effects on somatic cell replication, differentiation, and performance. Glucocorticoids increase bone organic process by stimulating osteoclastogenesis by increasing the expression of RANK matter and decreasing the expression of its decoy receptor, osteoprotegerin.
Bone remodeling is a long method wherever mature bone tissue is far from the skeleton (a method known as bone resorption) and new bone tissue is created.
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Congenital Galactosemia typically appears only in infants because with maturation, most children develop another enzyme capable of metabolizing galactose. Its incidence is about 1 per 18,000 births. If the infant does not receive treatment then there is a 75% chance of death. Thus, in the United States infants are screened for galactosemia. Galactosemia can be confused with lactose intolerance but galactosemia is a considerably more serious condition because consumption of galactose can cause permanent damage to their bodies. What dietary changes should be made
Answers
Answer: The dietary changes that should be made is that milk and milk containing products should be avoided in diets.
Explanation:
Congenital Galactosemia is an autosomal recessive disorder due to galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase(Gal-1-PUT).
Galactose is necessary for the formation of cerebrosides, of some glycoproteins and , during lactation, of milk. Excess is rapidly converted into glucose by Gal-1-PUT. The symptoms of galactosemia only become apparent if the infant is taking milk or milk containing products. This will lead to a rise in plasma galactose concentration.
Its incidence is about 1 per 18,000 births. Since it's a condition that occurs at or before birth, infants are screened by identification of galactose with thin layer chromatography and by demonstrating a deficiency of Gal-1-PUT activity in erythrocytes.
If the infant does not receive treatment then there is a 75% chance of death. Therefore, dietary changes should be made which is that milk and milk containing products should be avoided in diets.
2.
Ben visits his doctor because his wife notices that sometimes at night he stops breathing. It only lasts a
few seconds and then he seems to startle himself back into breathing again What medical terms would
you use to describe what Ben is experiencing? Break down the meaning of the terms. Then explain what is
happening in Ben's body to produce these symptoms.
Answers
Apnea:
The “a” in apnea refers to “the absence of” and “pnea” relating to the pulmonary and respiratory system. The whole term “apnea” means the temporary absence or delay of breathing!
There are two types of sleep apnea, obstructive and central. With obstructive sleep apnea the muscles that keep the airway open relax and your airway narrows causing you to breath more shallowly or to stop breathing. In central sleep apnea your brain feels to transmit signals to your “breathing muscles” and the muscles do not contract or function causing you to stop breathing
In this case Ben is suffering from sleep Apnea and the symptoms are snoring loudly and feeling tired. These are the symptoms of sleep apnea.
What is sleep apnea?
Sleep apnea has a serious health issue and in that case potential serious disorder of sleep has been breathing repeatedly that stops and starts at time. There are several risk factors that include the age as well as obesity and it has been the most common in the men.
The main problem of parents are that they are comparing their child with other children living nearby them but they have to understand that every child is unique and every child is special. God has given different talent as well as different personality to every child and comparing them with others is not at all a good symbol for their bright future.
Try to teach the children about their good and bright future, try to make them learn about living a good and valuable life. Teach them to learn not to memorize the things only given in books and give them some practical knowledge.
Therefore, In this case Ben is suffering from sleep Apnea and the symptoms are snoring loudly and feeling tired. These are the symptoms of sleep apnea.
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ccording to the text, PTSD has been associated with poor health behaviors that play a role in the relationship between PTSD and chronic illness. This statement is an example of the:
Answers
The statement, "According to the text, PTSD has been associated with poor health behaviors that play a role in the relationship between PTSD and chronic illness" is an example of a correlation statement.
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a psychological condition that can develop after experiencing or witnessing a traumatic event. It affects the mental, physical, and emotional well-being of individuals. The symptoms of PTSD include nightmares, flashbacks, depression, anxiety, and insomnia, among others. This condition has been associated with a wide range of health problems and poor health behaviors that may lead to chronic illness. The relationship between PTSD and chronic illness has been widely studied.
According to research, individuals with PTSD are more likely to engage in poor health behaviors, such as alcohol and substance abuse, smoking, poor diet, and lack of physical activity. These behaviors can lead to the development of chronic illnesses, such as cardiovascular disease, diabetes, and cancer, among others. In conclusion, the statement, "According to the text, PTSD has been associated with poor health behaviors that play a role in the relationship between PTSD and chronic illness" is an example of a correlation statement.
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A nurse is caring for a child who has sickle cell disease: what nursing interventions should the nurse provide?
Answers
Sickle cell disease is an inherited blood disorder where the patient's red blood cells are shaped like sickles or crescent moons. These sickle-shaped cells can stick together, causing blockages in small blood vessels, leading to organ damage and extreme pain.
Here are some nursing interventions that a nurse should provide to a child with sickle cell disease:
1. Pain management: Pain is the most common symptom of sickle cell disease, and the pain can be severe. A nurse should assess the child's pain and provide appropriate pain relief measures, such as administering analgesics, positioning the child comfortably, and providing heat or cold therapy.
2. Fluid therapy: Patients with sickle cell disease are at risk for dehydration, which can trigger a crisis. A nurse should encourage the child to drink fluids frequently and administer intravenous fluids if necessary.
3. Oxygen therapy: In severe cases of sickle cell disease, the patient may require oxygen therapy to help relieve symptoms and prevent organ damage. A nurse should monitor the child's oxygen saturation levels and administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
4. Infection prevention: Patients with sickle cell disease are at risk for infections due to a weakened immune system. A nurse should ensure that the child's immunizations are up to date, and follow proper infection prevention protocols, such as hand hygiene and isolation precautions.
5. Education: Education is a vital component of caring for a child with sickle cell disease. A nurse should educate the child and their family about the disease, its symptoms, and triggers, as well as proper self-care measures, such as drinking fluids and avoiding activities that can trigger a crisis.
In conclusion, sickle cell disease is a lifelong condition that requires comprehensive nursing care. Nurses should provide pain management, fluid therapy, oxygen therapy, infection prevention, and education to ensure the best possible outcomes for children with sickle cell disease.
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An Alzheimer's patient strikes a nurse in the face and several facial injuries result from this action. The nurse strikes back, the patient falls and fractures his left hip. (Answer the following questions) 1. What are the ethical and legal implications of this situation?
Answers
The ethical implications of this situation are that the nurse may have acted in self-defense, but they have a duty to prioritize the safety and well-being of the patient.
The nurse may have violated the principle of non-maleficence by striking back and causing harm to the patient.
The legal implications of this situation may involve charges of assault or battery against the patient for striking the nurse, and potential charges of negligence or malpractice against the nurse for causing the patient's hip fracture. The nurse may also face disciplinary action from their employer or licensing board for their actions.
Overall, this situation highlights the complex ethical and legal considerations that arise when dealing with violent behavior from patients with Alzheimer's or other cognitive impairments. It is important for healthcare professionals to receive training on how to appropriately respond to these situations and to prioritize patient safety while upholding ethical principles.
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The RDAs for nutrients are set based on the dietary intakes of people who appear to be maintaining nutritional health. based on a person's height and weight. to cover the needs of 97% of the population. by the FDA for food labeling purposes.
Answers
Answer:
The correct answer is '' to cover the needs of 97% of the population.''
Explanation:
The Recommended Daily Allowances or RDA, by definition, correspond to the average amount of a nutrient that a healthy person must ingest daily, through diet, to maintain a correct state of health. These established values are an approximate guide to meet the needs (intake level of a sufficient nutrient) of almost all (97 to 98%) individuals in the healthy population, but may vary due to factors such as age, sex or level of activity. It must be taken into account that each nutrient has a series of functions in the body, hence the importance of knowing the approximate amount that we should consume each day and, therefore, of knowing the RDA.
What device measures oxygen saturation of arterial blood.
Answers
Explanation: is a device that is usually placed on a fingertip. It uses light beams to estimate the oxygen saturation of the blood and the pulse rate. Oxygen saturation gives information about the amount of oxygen carried in the blood.
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