A 5kg rock is lifted 2m. Find the amount of work done. ​

(a). For the 10 yd distance, the value of time in each trial is,

1.89 s, 1.83 s, and 1.72 s

The average value of time for 10 yd distance is,

Thus, the average time for 10 yd is 1.81 seconds.

For 20 yd distance, the value of time in each trial is,

3.12 s, 3.28 s, and 3.47 s

The average value of time for 20 yd is,

Thus, the average time for 20 yd is 3.29 seconds.

For 30 yd distance, the value of time in each trial is,

5.55 s, 5.14 s, and 4.44 s

The average value of time for 30 yd is,

Thus, the average time for 30 yd is 5.04 seconds.

For 40 yd distance, the value of time for each trial is,

7.16 s, 7.24 s, and 6.78 s

The average value of time for 40 yd is,

Thus, the average value of time for 40 yd is 7.06 seconds.

When using a dial test indicator (DTI), it is essential to ensure that the gauge is positioned at a right angle to the contact surface for accurate readings.

However, in certain situations, it may be challenging to achieve a perfect right angle alignment. In such cases, adjustments can be made to compensate for the misalignment and obtain accurate measurements.To adjust the DTI reading when the gauge is not positioned at a right angle to the contact surface, the following steps can be taken:Determine the misalignment angle: Measure the angle at which the DTI is misaligned from the right angle position. This can be done using a protractor or by estimating the deviation visually.Calculate the correction factor: Based on the misalignment angle, calculate the correction factor using trigonometric functions such as sine or cosine. The correction factor accounts for the difference between the actual displacement and the displacement measured by the DTI.Apply the correction factor: Multiply the correction factor by the DTI reading to adjust the measurement. This compensates for the misalignment and provides a more accurate reading.It's important to note that adjusting the DTI reading can introduce some degree of error, especially if the misalignment is significant. Therefore, it is always preferable to position the gauge at a right angle to the contact surface whenever possible to obtain the most precise measurements.

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The reflection law allows us to find that the correct statement for  where a ray is located in a concave mirror is:

Geometric optics studies the geometric properties of light rays by surfaces. It has two laws that describe it:

                     \(\theta_i = \theta_r\)

Now we can analyze the expressions.

a) False. This only happens if the object is at infinity

b) True. This is the law of reflection that the angles are equal and it always complies

c) False the optical axis is a perpedicular line to the mirror, therefore the ray must be parallel to the mirror and is not reflected.

In conclusion using the reflection law we can find which statement is correct

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If the mass bigger and the acceleration faster, the force is bigger(F = ma). The rate of change of momentum of an object is directly proportional to the resultant force applied and is in the direction of the resultant force(p=mc) The gravity can affect the resultant force as weight when the object launch.

sorry if there's any grammar mistake

This question is incomplete

Complete Question

Three equal point charges are held in place as shown in the figure below

If F1 is the force on q due to Q1 and F2 is the force on q due to Q2, how do F1 and F2 compare? Assume that n=2.

A) F1=2F2

B) F1=3F2

C) F1=4F2

D) F1=9F2

Answer:

D) F1=9F2

Explanation:

We are told in the question that there are three equal point charges.

q, Q1, Q2 ,

q = Q1 = Q2

From the diagram we see the distance between the points d

q to Q1 = d

Q1 to Q2 = nd

Assuming n = 2

= 2 × d = 2d

Sum of the two distances = d + 2d = 3d

F1 is the force on q due to Q1 and

F2 is the force on q due to Q2,

Since we have 3 equal point charges and a total sum of distance which is 3d

Hence,

F1 = 9F2

Answer:

Speed of moving clock is

 \(V2\) =πr/(86400) m/s

Here,

m and s are SI units of distance and time respectively.

Explanation:

If

radius of circular clock= r

than,

total distance covered on clock=S=2πr m

here, m=SI unit of distance

and required time for covering the total distance=t= 86400s

speed of normal clock=\(V1\)=S/t

                                       \(V1\)=2πr/86400 m/s

As, moving moving clock is ticking half as fast as normal clock so,

speed of moving clock=\(V2\)=\(V1\)/2

                                           \(V2\)=2πr/(86400)*2 m/s

                                            \(V2\) =πr/(86400) m/s

Answer:

i think its true

Answer:

12.5

Explanation:

first, v=d/t

      v=25/2

      v=12.5

The final velocity of the ball is 44.6 m/s.

The given parameters;

The velocity of the ball increases as the ball moves downward and it will become maximum before the ball hits the ground.

This velocity is known as the final velocity of the ball.

The final velocity of the ball is calculated as follows;

v = u + gt

where;

v = 25 + 9.8(2)

v = 44.6 m/s

Thus, the final velocity of the ball is 44.6 m/s.

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Machine 1 has the greatest mechanical advantage among the given machines. To determine the machine with the greatest mechanical advantage, we need to calculate the mechanical advantage for each machine.

Machine 1: Mechanical Advantage = Output Force / Input Force = 50 N / 5 N = 10

Machine 2: Mechanical Advantage = Output Force / Input Force = 50 N / 10 N = 5

Machine 3: Mechanical Advantage = Output Force / Input Force = 50 N / 25 N = 2

Machine 4: Mechanical Advantage = Output Force / Input Force = 50 N / 50 N = 1

Comparing the mechanical advantages, we can see that Machine 1 has the highest mechanical advantage of 10. This means that Machine 1 can multiply the input force by 10 to produce the output force. It provides the greatest amplification of force among the four machines.

Machine 2 has a mechanical advantage of 5, Machine 3 has a mechanical advantage of 2, and Machine 4 has a mechanical advantage of 1. Therefore, Machine 1 has the greatest mechanical advantage among the given machines.

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Answer:

cos 0 = 1.

Fs = 7×8 = 56 J

Explanation:

Answer:

it is my first time to login on brainly thats why i didnt answer your question

If the system is closed, Nina will experience only a force equal to F exerted by Jon.

According to Newton's third law of motion, action and reaction is equal and opposite. That is the force applied to a stationary object is equal to the reaction exerted by the stationary object.

Applying this law, the force Jon applied on Nina is equal to the reaction Nina exerts on Jon.

Thus, assuming the system is closed, Nina will experience only a force equal to F exerted by Jon.

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Answer:

by using a magnetic field

Use a magnet to attract the iron fillings from the sand!

Hope this helps!

Among the options provided, the most plausible answer is B. 6,000 BCE, where use of rivers for irrigation began.

The use of rivers for irrigation in agriculture has a long history that dates back to ancient times. However, the specific period when this practice began is a matter of debate and uncertainty.

It corresponds to the early civilizations in Mesopotamia, Egypt, and the Indus Valley.

These societies developed complex systems of canals, dams, and levees to manage and distribute water from rivers such as the Tigris, Euphrates, Nile, and Indus. The use of irrigation allowed them to cultivate crops in arid or semi-arid regions and to support larger populations. However, it is worth noting that other regions, such as China, the Americas, and Africa, also developed irrigation practices independently and at different times.

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One of the main uses of this device is to examine a beam of charged particles

The cathode ray tube is a device used to determine the charge flowing in a gas. When an electric field is set up with the help of metal electrodes, the cathode ray tends to bend towards the positive electrode.

Since the cathode ray bends towards the electrodes, it implies that it has a charge and the electrodes present help us determine the charge of the beam of charged particles and thus examine the beam of charged particles.

So, one of the main uses of this device is to examine a beam of charged particles.

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Answer:

B

Explanation:

Answer:

The magnetic field is 24.2 mT.

Explanation:

The magnetic field can be calculated with the following equation:

\( B = \frac{\mu_{0}iN}{L} \)

Where:

i: is the current = 5.57 A

N: is the number of turns = 5*850 turns (it is five close-packed)

L: is the length = 1.23 m

\(\mu_{0}\): is the permeability = 4π*10⁻⁷ T*m/A          

Hence, the magnetic field is:

\( B = \frac{4\pi \cdot 10^{-7} T*m/A*5.57 A*5*850}{1.23 m} = 0.0242 T = 24.2 mT \)

Therefore, the magnetic field is 24.2 mT.

I hope it helps you!                                  

Two objects are held close together. When they are released, they move toward one another. The conclusion is supported by this evidence is  the objects have opposite charges.

An electric charge is a physical property that causes matter to experience a force when in close proximity to other electrically charged matter. There are two types of electric charges: positive and negative. Protons, which are positively charged, and electrons, which are negatively charged, are subatomic particles that make up matter.

In general, the protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an atom have a net positive charge, while electrons, which orbit the nucleus, have a net negative charge. The charges of these subatomic particles are indicated by the symbols "p" for proton, "n" for neutron, and "e" for electron.

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Answer:

Holes are formed when electrons in atoms move out of the valence band (the outermost shell of the atom that is completely filled with electrons) into the conduction band. (the area in an atom where electrons can escape easily) which happens everywhere in a semiconductor. When an electron and a hole interact and recombine the energy is not transferred into heat energy or thermal vibrations. instead the energy is transferred into an electron within the conduction band which is then promoted to an energy higher in condition band.

Explanation:

So considering that information, electrons and holes make a semiconductor when moving.

Let the circumference of the circle be 10L.

A moves at 10L/2 = 5L per hour

B moves at 10L/5 = 2L per hour

Therefore it takes 10L/(5L+2L) = 10/7 hours

The temperature gradient in the flow of direction is 294525 W.

A temperature gradient is the gradual variance in temperature with distance. The slope of the gradient is consistent within a material. A gradient is established anytime two materials at different temperatures are in physical contact with each other.

Q= T/( L/ KA)

Q= ( 1500 − 450) / 0.15 / 9.35v * 4.35)

   = 294525 W

Units of measure of temperature gradients are degrees per unit distance, such as °F per inch or °C per meter.

Many temperature gradients exist naturally, while others are created. The largest temperature gradient on Earth is the Earth itself. Q= T/Ka.

Therefore, The temperature gradient in the flow of direction is 294525 W.

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Answer:

Explanation:

Option C is the correct answer

Some thermometers contain alcohol. Alcohol is used in thermometers because expands and contracts easily. The correct option is C.

Thermometer is the temperature measuring device which consists of a liquid in the bulb which expands as the temperature is increased.

The liquid metal used in the thermometer must have the property to respond on the hotness and coldness rapidly.

In place of mercury, some thermometers use alcohol because an alcohol has a very low freezing point as compared to the Mercury.

Thus, the correct option is C.

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Some thermometers contain alcohol. Alcohol is used in thermometers because expands and contracts easily.

Answer:

hope this helps and if you have any questions please feel free to ask me any time

Statement :- We assume the orthagonal sequence \({{\{\phi\}}_{1}^{\infty}}\) in Hilbert space, now \({\forall \sf \:v\in \mathbb{V}}\), the Fourier coefficients are given by:

\({\quad \qquad \longrightarrow \sf a_{i}=(v,{\phi}_{i})}\)

Then Bessel's inequality give us:

\({\boxed{\displaystyle \bf \sum_{1}^{\infty}\vert a_{i}\vert^{2}\leqslant \Vert v\Vert^{2}}}\)

Proof :- We assume the following equation is true

\({\quad \qquad \longrightarrow \displaystyle \sf v_{n}=\sum_{i=1}^{n}a_{i}{\phi}_{i}}\)

So that, \({\bf v_n}\) is projection of \({\bf v}\) onto the surface by the first \({\bf n}\) of the \({\bf \phi_{i}}\) . For any event, \({\sf (v-v_{n})\perp v_{n}}\)

Now, by Pythagoras theorem:

\({:\implies \quad \sf \Vert v\Vert^{2}=\Vert v-v_{n}\Vert^{2}+\Vert v_{n}\Vert^{2}}\)

\({:\implies \quad \displaystyle \sf ||v||^{2}=\Vert v-v_{n}\Vert^{2}+\sum_{i=1}^{n}\vert a_{i}\vert^{2}}\)

Now, we can deduce that from the above equation that;

\({:\implies \quad \displaystyle \sf \sum_{i=1}^{n}\vert a_{i} \vert^{2}\leqslant \Vert v\Vert^{2}}\)

For \({\sf n\to \infty}\), we have

\({:\implies \quad \boxed{\displaystyle \bf \sum_{1}^{\infty}\vert a_{i}\vert^{2}\leqslant \Vert v\Vert^{2}}}\)

Hence, Proved

Answer:

Separation of the Earth into layers (crust, mantle, inner core, and outer core) was largely caused by gravitational differentiation (separating different constituents at temperature where materials are liquid or plastic, owing to differences in density) early in Earth's history.

Explanation:

hoped it helped!!

Explanation:

Given

The true weight of books is \(165\ N\)

Weight measured in the elevator is also \(165\ N\)

True weight=measured weight

Therefore, we can say that elevator is not accelerating

Had the lift is accelerating upwards, the measured weight would be more than the true weight.

Thus, it cannot be said with certainity that the lift is moving upward, downward, or at rest.

Answer: $43400 per year

Explanation:

The Data set of hypothetical salaries is given as:

$46,000 per year,

$20,000 per year,

$33,000 per year,

$27,000 per year,

$91,000 per year.

The average salary per year will be the addition of the salaries per year above which will then be divided by 5. This will be:

= ($46,000 + $20,000 + $33,000 + $27,000 + $91,000) / 5

= $217000/5

= $43400 per year

The average salary per year will be $43400

Answer:no

Explanation:

The methods to determine the specific charge of an electron are The J. J. Thomson Method and The Millikan Oil Drop Method.

The J. J. Thomson Method

In this method, an electric field is created between two parallel metal plates. Electrons are accelerated by this field from the negative plate to the positive plate. After that, they strike a fluorescent screen. When the electrons are shot through the electric field perpendicular to the magnetic field, they experience the Lorentz force, which is given by the formula: $F= evB$ $F= evB$

When a magnetic field is applied at right angles to an electron beam, it bends the path of the beam into a circular path. The radius of the path of an electron beam in a magnetic field is determined by the relationship:r = mv/eB. As a result, the specific charge of an electron may be calculated from the expression: $e/m = 2V / B^2r^2$

The Millikan Oil Drop Method

This is another technique for determining the specific charge of an electron. The oil drop experiment was first done by Robert A. Millikan in 1909. He did this experiment by suspending charged droplets of oil in a uniform electric field between two parallel plates.

The fall of the oil droplets in the absence of an electric field was also noted. The fall velocity of the oil droplet was determined by measuring the time taken by the oil droplet to pass through a fixed distance between the plates in the absence of an electric field. By measuring the electric field strength, the voltage applied to the plates, and the fall velocity of the oil droplet, the specific charge of the electron was determined.

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The methods to determine the specific charge of an electron are :

In the J. J. Thomson Method, an  electric field is created between two parallel metal plates. Electrons are accelerated by this field from the negative plate to the positive plate. After that, they strike a fluorescent screen.

When the electrons are shot through the electric field perpendicular to the magnetic field, they experience the Lorentz force.

The Millikan Oil Drop Method is an experiment by which is created by suspending charged droplets of oil in a uniform electric field between two parallel plates.

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