A battery having an emf (voltage) of 9.00 V delivers 117 mA when connected to a 72 Ω load. What is the internal resistance of the battery?

Answer:

3 meters

Explanation:

\(W=Fd \\\\450J=150N \cdot d \\\\d=3m\)

Hope this helps!

Answer:

3 meters

Explanation:

Formula I know is

work= force x distance.

Answer: B. Gravity Energy

Explanation: To summarize, potential energy is the energy that is stored in an object due to its position relative to some zero position. An object possesses gravitational potential energy if it is positioned at a height above (or below) the zero height.

Answer:

The speed is 15.5 m/s

The kinetic energy can be written as:K =

(1/2)*m*v^2

where m is the mass and v is the speed.

Then we have that:

18 j = (1/2)*0.15kg*v^2

Now we solve this for v.

✓(18*2/0.15) = v

15.5 m/s = v

Explanation:

I hope it will help you.....

Answer:

The scattering angle is 0.80

Explanation:

As we know  

Wave length = h/mc (1-cos α) --1

W = mc^2

m = E/c^2

Substituting this in equation 1 we get  

Wavelength = hc/E (1-cos α)

Substituting the given values, we get -  

0.95*10^-9 = [(6.626 *10^-34 * 2.998 *10^8)/5.111*1000*1.6*10^-19} (1-cos α)

(1-cos α) = 1.14 *10^-10

cos α = 1- 1.14 *10^-10

α = 0.80

Temperature is the degree of hotness or coldness of an object or substance. The SI unit of temperature is Kelvin."97%": The question suggests that a reaction must be run at a specific temperature to achieve 97% yield or completion. Yield refers to the amount of product obtained from a reaction.

To achieve 97% yield or completion, the reaction must be run at a specific temperature. Temperature plays an essential role in chemical reactions since it affects the rate of reaction, activation energy, and equilibrium. The temperature at which a reaction runs optimally, producing the most product, is known as the reaction's optimum temperature. As a result, the temperature must be controlled during a chemical reaction.To achieve 97%, the reaction must be run at a specific temperature.

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Answer:

the bike will probly  go flying and the truck will go to a stop and the truck will  not flyover the bike bc the truck is heavier

Explanation:

The impact force and the change in acceleration of cycle will be greater.

We have a situation of head on collision between a bicycle and a massive truck.

We have to -

A head-on collision is a traffic collision where the front ends of two vehicles such as cars, trains, ships or planes hit each other when travelling in opposite directions.

According to the question -

Suppose that both the cycle and truck are moving with the same velocity v m/s.

PART - A

The difference between the mass of the cycle and truck is very large.

This means that the momentum of both cycle (c) and truck (t) will be -

p(t) >> p(c)

Hence, the impact force on the cycle is very very high.

PART - B

Since, the impact force on cycle is very high therefore the change in acceleration of cycle will be greater.

Hence, the impact force and the change in acceleration of cycle will be greater.

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Answer:

Explanation:

false

The image given, is explained in terms of Newton's 1st law of motion.

Based on Newton's First Law of Motion (Inertia).  An object at rest remains at rest, and an object in motion continues in motion at a steady speed and in a straight path until operated on by an unbalanced force.

Newton's first rule of motion states that if a pan of water were being moved along a track, the water would tend to keep moving ahead. However, the water will appear to splash to the right while it goes to the left. Space is nearly a perfect vacuum, devoid of both gravity and matter. Think about a satellite travelling 17,500 mph around the Earth. If a rock were to be launched from the satellite, it would orbit the earth adjacent to the satellite at a speed of 17,500 mph.

Here, in the given image, it is shown that the sofa is remain in the place unless a person forcefully move it from one place to another.

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Answer:

22425 J

Explanation:

From the question,

Applying

Q = cm(t₂-t₁).................. Equation 1

Where Q = Thermal Energy, c = specific heat capacity of aluminium, m = mass of aluminium, t₂ = Final Temperature, t₁ = Initial Temperature.

Given: c = 897 J/kg.K, m = 1.0 kg, t₁ = 50 °C, t₂ = 25 °C (The final temperature is reduced by half)

Substitute these values into equation 1

Q = 897×1×(25-50)

Q = 897×(-25)

Q = -22425 J

Hence the thermal energy lost by the aluminium is 22425 J

Answer:

\(45~ \text{Hz}.\)

Explanation:

\(\text{Frequency,}~ f = \dfrac{v}{\lambda}\\\\\\~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~=\dfrac{360~ \text{ms}^{-1}}{8~ \text m}\\\\\\~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~=45~ \text s^{-1}\\\\\\~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~=45~ \text{Hz}\)

Answer:

37

Explanation:

because the gravitational acceleration is10N/kg so 370/10=37 answer 37kg

Answer:

2 m/s

Explanation:

Just divide the distance and time. 4/2= 2 m/s

The magnitude of current flowing through the conductance is:
(a) 0.2 A.

(b) 100 A.

(c) 10 e^(-2t) A.

(d) 0.5 sin(5t) A.

(e) 0 A.

To determine the magnitude of the current flowing through a conductance, we need to use Ohm's Law, which states that the current (I) flowing through a conductor is equal to the voltage (V) across it divided by its conductance (G).

Ohm's Law equation: I = V / G

Given the voltage across the conductance in each case, we can calculate the current magnitude using the given conductance values.

(a) Voltage = 2 mV, Conductance = 10 mS (10 ms)

I = (2 mV) / (10 mS)

I = 0.2 A

The magnitude of the current flowing through the conductance is 0.2 A.

(b) Voltage = -1 V, Conductance = 10 mS (10 ms)

I = (-1 V) / (10 mS)

I = -100 A

The magnitude of the current flowing through the conductance is 100 A.

(c) Voltage = 100 e^(-2t) V, Conductance = 10 mS (10 ms)

I = (100 e^(-2t)) / (10 mS)

I = 10 e^(-2t) A

The magnitude of the current flowing through the conductance is 10 e^(-2t) A.

(d) Voltage = 5 sin(5t) V, Conductance = 10 mS (10 ms)

I = (5 sin(5t)) / (10 mS)

I = 0.5 sin(5t) A

The magnitude of the current flowing through the conductance is 0.5 sin(5t) A.

(e) Voltage = 0 V, Conductance = 10 mS (10 ms)

I = (0 V) / (10 mS)

I = 0 A

The magnitude of the current flowing through the conductance is 0 A.

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The angular magnification of the astronomical telescope is 46. The angular magnification of a telescope can be calculated using the formula: Angular Magnification = - (Focal Length of Objective) / (Focal Length of Ocular)

In this case, the focal length of the ocular is given as 5.0 cm (or 0.05 m). We need to determine the focal length of the objective lens. Since the telescope is focused on a star at infinity, the distance from the objective lens to the star is also infinity. This implies that the objective lens forms a real image at its focal point.

Using the lens formula (1/f = 1/v - 1/u), where v is the image distance and u is the object distance, and assuming v = f (since the image is formed at the focal point), we can rearrange the formula to solve for f:

1/f = 1/v - 1/u

1/f = 1/f - 1/u

1/f + 1/f = 1/u

2/f = 1/u

f = u/2

In this case, the distance between the objective and ocular lenses is given as 2.3 m. So the focal length of the objective lens is:

f = (2.3 m) / 2

f = 1.15 m

Now we can calculate the angular magnification:

Angular Magnification = - (1.15 m) / (0.05 m)

Angular Magnification ≈ -46

The negative sign indicates that the image is inverted, which is typical for astronomical telescopes. Therefore, the angular magnification of the telescope is 46.

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(a) The direction of the minimum magnetic field needed to lift the wire vertically upward is upward, or in the opposite direction to the gravitational force.

(b) The magnitude of the minimum magnetic field needed to lift the wire vertically upward is 1.39 x 10^-3 T (tesla).

To lift the wire vertically upward, the magnetic force on the wire needs to be equal to the weight of the wire. The magnetic force on the wire can be calculated using the formula,

F = BILsinθ

where,

B = magnetic field strength

I = current in the wire

L = length of the wire

θ = angle between the magnetic field and the direction of the current flow

Since the wire is carrying current horizontally to the south, the magnetic field must be directed vertically upward. This is because the magnetic field must be perpendicular to the direction of the current flow in order to produce a force on the wire. Therefore, the direction of the minimum magnetic field needed to lift the wire vertically upward is upward, or in the opposite direction to the gravitational force.

To calculate the magnitude of the minimum magnetic field needed to lift the wire vertically upward, we can set the magnetic force equal to the weight of the wire,

F = mg, where, m = mass per unit length of the wire, g = acceleration due to gravity.

Rearranging the equation for F and substituting in the expression for the magnetic force,

BILsinθ = mg

Solving for B,

B = mg / ILsinθ

B = (0.400 g/cm) * (9.8 m/s^2) / (2.80 A * 1 cm) * sin(90°)

B = 1.39 x 10^-3 T

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Answer:

false

Explanation:

most prototypes are and perfect and they are build to find our mistakes

48 m/s in terms of km/h is 720.8 km/h. In terms of m/min is 2880 m/min, in terms of km/s is 0.048 km/s and in terms of km/min is 2.88 km/min.

To solve this question, we need to understand some terms. The unit of velocity is measured in m/s. It can be expressed in different units of velocity.

1 km (kilometer) = 1000 meter

1 h (hour) = 3600 seconds

1 minutes = 60 seconds

To convert m/s into km/h,

48 m/s * 3600/1000 =  172.8 km/h

To convert m/s into m/min,

48 m/s * 60 = 2880 m/min

To convert m/s into km/s,

48 m/s ÷ 1000 = 0.048 km/s

To convert m/s into km/minutes,

48 m/s * 60 / 1000 = 2.88 km/min

Therefore, the 48 m/s expressed is 172.8 km/h, 2880 m/min, 0.048 km/s and 2.88 km/min.

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48 m/s is equivalent to  172.8 km/h, 2880 m/min, 0.048 km/s, and 2.88 km/minute.

To express 48 m/s in different units of velocity:

km/h (kilometers per hour):

To convert m/s to km/h, we can use the conversion factor of 3.6 since 1 m/s is equal to 3.6 km/h.

48 m/s * (3.6 km/h / 1 m/s) = 172.8 km/h

Therefore, 48 m/s is equivalent to 172.8 km/h.

m/min (meters per minute):

To convert m/s to m/min, we can use the conversion factor of 60 since there are 60 seconds in a minute.

48 m/s * (60 m/min / 1 s) = 2880 m/min

Therefore, 48 m/s is equivalent to 2880 m/min.

km/s (kilometers per second):

Since 1 kilometer is equal to 1000 meters, to convert m/s to km/s, we divide the value by 1000.

48 m/s / 1000 = 0.048 km/s

Therefore, 48 m/s is equivalent to 0.048 km/s.

km/minute (kilometers per minute):

To convert m/s to km/minute, we first need to convert m/s to km/s (as calculated in the previous step) and then multiply by 60 to convert seconds to minutes.

0.048 km/s * 60 = 2.88 km/minute

So, 48 m/s is equivalent to 2.88 km/minute.

Hence, 48 m/s is equivalent to approximately 172.8 km/h, 2880 m/min, 0.048 km/s, and 2.88 km/minute.

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If the object is speeding up, the point labeled "c" could correspond to the location at t/2.

When an object is speeding up, its velocity is increasing over time. At point "c," the object has traveled further compared to point "a," indicating that it has been moving for a longer duration.

Point "b" represents the midpoint between points 1 and 2, so it would not necessarily correspond to t/2 unless the motion of the object is uniformly accelerated.

Since the object is speeding up, it means that its velocity is increasing, and therefore, it has traveled a greater distance at t/2 compared to the distance at the starting point (t=0).

Thus, point "c" is the most likely location at t/2 for the object when it is speeding up.

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Each point along the track of one solar mass star represents the star's surface temperature and luminosity at one time.

A star having a mass equal to the mass of the Sun is called a one-solar mass star.

Its life track shows the luminous intensity as well as the surface temperature.

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The absolute value of the voltage across the biological membrane is approximately 64 mV.

To calculate the absolute value of the voltage across a biological membrane with [Na+] outside = 140 mM and [Na+] inside = 12 mM, under standard conditions, you can use the Nernst equation. The Nernst equation is given by:

E = (RT/zF) * ln([Na+]outside / [Na+]inside)

Where:
- E represents the voltage (or membrane potential) across the membrane
- R is the universal gas constant (8.314 J/mol K)
- T is the temperature in Kelvin (standard condition is 25°C, which is 298.15 K)
- z is the charge of the ion (for Na+, z = 1)
- F is the Faraday's constant (96,485 C/mol)
- [Na+]outside and [Na+]inside represent the concentrations of sodium ions outside and inside the membrane, respectively

Now, we can plug in the given values and constants to solve for E:

E = ((8.314 J/mol K) * (298.15 K)) / (1 * 96,485 C/mol) * ln(140 mM / 12 mM)

E ≈ (0.026 V) * ln(11.67)

E ≈ (0.026 V) * 2.457

E ≈ 0.064 V or 64 mV

Thus, the absolute value of the voltage across the biological membrane is approximately 64 mV.

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The force is an additive quantity allows to find the result for the total force exerted by the two people is:

               \(F_{total}\) = 54 N

Newton's second law gives a relationship between the net force, the mass and the acceleration of the body, when the acceleration is zero, this expression is called the equilibrium condition.

        ∑ F = 0

Where F is the force that is a vector quantity and therefore additive.

They indicate that the two people pull with a force of 23 N and 31 N in the same direction.

       \(F_{total} = F_1 +F_2\)

Let's calculate.

       \(F_{total}\)  = 23 +31

       \(F_{total}\) = 54 N

In conclusion, using that force is an additive quantity, we can find the total force exerted by the two people is:

       \(F_{total}\) = 54 N

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Answer:

gas

Explanation:

mark me pls and follow me

A.The incline angle needs to be around 78.52° for the sphere to accelerate linearly at 0.70g.

B. The right answer is c. More than 0.70g of acceleration would be experienced.

(a) To find the incline angle for the uniform solid sphere with linear acceleration 0.70g, we can use the equation for the acceleration of a rolling sphere down an incline:

a = (5/7) * g * sin(theta)

Where a is the linear acceleration, g is the gravitational acceleration (9.81 m/s²), and theta is the incline angle. We are given a = 0.70g, so we can solve for theta:

0.70g = (5/7) * g * sin(theta)

Divide both sides by g:

0.70 = (5/7) * sin(theta)

Now, divide both sides by (5/7):

(0.70 * 7)/5 = sin(theta)

0.98 = sin(theta)

To find the angle, take the inverse sine of 0.98:

theta = sin^(-1)(0.98) ≈ 78.52°

So, the incline angle must be approximately 78.52° for the sphere to have a linear acceleration of 0.70g.

(b) If a frictionless block were to slide down the incline at that angle, its acceleration magnitude would be more than 0.70g. This is because the sphere's acceleration is reduced due to its rotation. A frictionless block doesn't have any rotation, so its acceleration down the incline is given by:

a_block = g * sin(theta)

Since sin(theta) is greater than the (5/7) factor in the sphere's acceleration equation, the acceleration of the frictionless block will be more than 0.70g. Therefore, the correct answer is c. The acceleration magnitude would be more than 0.70g.

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A uniform solid sphere rolls down an incline, the incline angle if the linear acceleration of the center of the sphere is to have magnitude 0.70g can be determined using-

The linear acceleration of the center of a uniform solid sphere rolling down an inclined plane is determined by the inclination angle of the plane.

It is determined by the formula a= g sin θ, where g is the acceleration due to gravity and θ is the angle of inclination.

For the linear acceleration of the center of the sphere to have a magnitude of 0.70g, we substitute 0.70g for a in the formula.

\(θ = sin⁻¹ (0.70) = 44.92°\)

Therefore, the inclination angle must be approximately 44.92 degrees for the linear acceleration of the center of the sphere to have a magnitude of 0.70g.

(b) If a frictionless block were to slide down the incline at that incline angle, would its acceleration magnitude be more less than or equal to 0.70g?

The acceleration of a frictionless block sliding down an inclined plane is determined by the formula a= g sin θ, where g is the acceleration due to gravity and θ is the angle of inclination.

Since the inclination angle of the plane is the same as in part (a), we can substitute 44.92° for θ in the formula

\(a= g sin θ = 9.81 × sin 44.92° = 6.78 m/s²\)

Since the magnitude of the acceleration of the block is less than 0.70g, the acceleration magnitude would be less than 0.70g. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

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(a) The athlete's velocity just before reaching the pad is 9.8 m/s

(b) The Constant force exerted on the pole vaulter due to the collision is 37.69 N

(a) To calculate the velocity of the athlete just before reaching the pad, we use the formula below.

Formular:

Simplifying the equation,

Where:

From the question,

Given:

Substitute these values into equation 2

Solve for v

(b) To calculate the constant force exerted on the pole vaulter due to collision, we use the formula below.

Where:

From the question,

Given:

Substitite these values into equation 3

Hence, (a) The athlete's velocity just before reaching the pad is 9.8 m/s (b) The Constant force exerted on the pole vaulter due to the collision is 37.69 N

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Answer:

40.90 mph if I did the math right

Answer:

because the friction in the baloons and the magnetism make it like nuclear fision

Explanation:

The magnetic field and friction between the balloons when placing two very strong magnets in the middle of two separate balloons provide a good model for nuclear fusion.

Nuclear fusion is the process through which light elements interact to create heavier elements (up to iron). Significant amounts of energy are released when interacting nuclei are from elements with low atomic numbers, such as hydrogen (atomic number 1) or its isotopes deuterium and tritium.

Thermonuclear weapons, or hydrogen bombs, which were created in the decade immediately following World War II, were the first to utilize the tremendous energy potential of nuclear fusion.

There are two main categories of fusion reactions: those that maintain the ratio of protons to neutrons and those that convert protons to neutrons.

Therefore, the magnetic field and friction in the balloons when placing two very strong magnets in the middle of two separate balloons provide a good model for nuclear fusion.

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Answer:

Power generate by elephant = 666.67 W

Explanation:

Given:

Force = 2,000 N

Change in time = 45 Seconds

Distance = 15 meter

Find:

Power generate by elephant ?

Computation:

⇒ Work Done = Force × Distance

⇒ Work Done = 2,000 × 15

⇒ Work Done = 30,000

⇒ Power = Work Done / Time taken

⇒ Power generate by elephant = 30,000 / 45 seconds

⇒ Power generate by elephant = 666.67 W

Answer:

A cube of wood is 3 cm on each side. It has a mass of 27 g. What is its density?The volume of a cube is given by s^3. So the volume of this block is 3cm x 3cm x3 cm = 27 cm^3. density = mass/volume =27 g / 27 cm^3 = 1 g/cm^3. the answer is 1 g/cm^3.

What is the mass of a billiard ball that has a volume of 100 cm³ and a density of 2.5 g/cm³?what is the density of a billiard ball that has a volume of 100cm cubed and a mass of 250g? Density = 250g / 100cm^3 = 2.5 g/cm^3.

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