a breastfeeding primiparous client who gave birth 8 hours ago asks the nurse, "how will i know that my baby is getting enough to eat?" which guideline should the nurse include in the teaching plan as evidence of adequate intake?

Answers

Answer 1

The guideline which the nurse should include in the teaching plan as evidence of adequate intake is six to eight wet diapers by the fifth day.

Following delivery, postpartum nurses provide vital physical, emotional, and recovery support for both the new mother and the infant. They may collaborate with a lactation consultant to help with breastfeeding because they are educated to support and educate the new mother and look out for symptoms of postpartum depression.

Your infant will remain in the room with you at this period as long as they are sound and healthy. Skin-to-skin contact with their neonates is encouraged and supported for all patients as soon as possible following delivery. Your nurse will assist you in starting breastfeeding within the first hour of birth if you decide to do so.

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Related Questions

Office Note
This 49-year-old secretary is being seen today for pain that is present in her right hand. She has had a series of imaging that showed no fractures or other abnormalities.
Upon exam she has weakness and pain, and she complains of disturbances of sensations in her right hand.
DIAGNOSIS: carpal tunnel syndrome

Answers

Answer: G56.01

Explanation:

A natural exposure to an infectious agent leads to.

Answers

Answer:

– Natural exposure to infectious agent stimulates your own B cells to produce antigen-specific antibodies – Artificial immunization (vaccination) with key antigens or epitopes from an infectious agent does the same thing – Active immunization results in immunologic memory (more vigorous response next time)

Explanation:

According to Clevette and colleagues, examples of unsafe, common disciplinary actions reviewed by boards of nursing include all of the following EXCEPT

Answers

Failure to implement safeguards to ensure patient confidentiality of patients protected health information aren't reviewed  by boards of nursing.

Who is a Nurse?

This is a healthcare professional who is involved in taking care of the patient so as to ensure quick recovery.

The nursing board deals with approval of nursing programs and also issues which may arise from direct relationship with the patient  such as abuse so as to ensure the best hands are in the job.

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7. How can you use these materials to test whether land or water heats faster?

Answers

For my answer I got Heat lamps

A 55-year-old woman is diagnosed with a juxtaglomerular cell rennin-secreting tumor. Lab tests reveal a plasma concentration of angiotensin II five times normal. Which of the following set of findings would be expected?Renal Blood Flow Blood Volume 个 Blood Pressure 个 个 个 A. B. C. D. E F. T小十个小 G. H.

Answers

A 55-year-old woman has been diagnosed with a rennin-secreting juxtaglomerular cell tumor. Angiotensin II plasma concentration is revealed to be five times normal. Therefore, A, C, and E are the correct options.

The following findings are expected in such a case: Increased Blood Pressure and Decreased Renal Blood Flow and Blood Volume.Juxtaglomerular cells are specialized cells in the kidney that are located around the afferent arterioles that supply blood to the glomerulus. They are important in regulating blood pressure and kidney function. Juxtaglomerular cells are important in maintaining blood pressure and kidney function. Renin, which is a hormone secreted by juxtaglomerular cells, is crucial for the production of angiotensin II, which in turn aids in the regulation of blood pressure.Angiotensin II is a hormone that helps to regulate blood pressure by constricting blood vessels and raising blood volume. Renal blood flow is the volume of blood flowing through the kidneys per unit time. Blood volume is the total amount of blood in the circulatory system. Blood pressure is the pressure of blood against the walls of arteries. Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a medical condition characterized by elevated blood pressure.In a case of juxtaglomerular cell rennin-secreting tumor, Angiotensin II plasma concentration is revealed to be five times normal. The following findings are expected in such a case: 1. Increased Blood Pressure, 2. Decreased Renal Blood Flow, 3. Decreased Blood Volume.Therefore, A, C, and E are the correct options.

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Your final patient has a respiratory problem, so something having to do with her breathing or lungs needs to be
described. Again, use at least 10 terms from the reading, especially using the respiratory medical word elements
from your textbook. Also, you need to include 3 tests or procedures that will help you to discover what the
problem with your patient is.



PLEASE HELPPPP

Answers

Your final patient has a respiratory problem, so something having to do with her breathing or lungs needs to be described. Again, use at least 10 terms from the reading, especially using the respiratory medical word elements from your textbook. Also, you need to include 3 tests or procedures that will help you to discover what the problem with your patient is.


Asthma: ( also called as bronchial asthma) is a condition in which airways become inflamed, narrow and swollen and produce extra mucus which makes it difficult to breathe Procedure for evaluation: FeNO test, pulmonary function tests, spirometry

In medical ethics, what sort of relationship best describes the paternalistic attitude?
1. teammates;
2. parent and child;
3. enemies;
4. greater amongst equals.

Answers

Answer:

The answer should be 1

Explanation:

Hope this helps

Have a great day

~Zero~

Describe the different structures of the oral cavity that the dental laboratory technician requires from a final impression for a removable prosthodontic appliance, and compare these with the requirements for a fixed- prosthesis case.

Answers

Answer:

Both the methods used in making conventional impressions and digital impressions are shown in this presentation. The various impression materials are described and their suitability for fixed prosthodontic impressions is discussed. Materials described include irreversible hydrocolloid, reversible hydrocolloid, polysulfide, condensation reaction silicone, addition reaction silicone, polyether, and alginate substitutes. The design principles and methods for making custom impression trays are described. Impression methods are demonstrated in detail and are supplemented with a video demonstration.

Explanation:

The oral cavity is the initial phase of the digestive tract. Its major purpose is to act as the entry to the alimentary canal, allowing salivation and the propelling of the food substance into the pharynx to begin the digestion process. The oral cavity is enclosed by:

the lips and two flexible muscle folds that stretch from the edge of the mouth

The different structures of the oral cavity include:

Upper Jaw,Lower Jaw,Gums, and;Tooth.

A dental laboratory technician is an experienced individual with a dental team who manufactures customized therapeutic and restorative dental appliances on prescription from a dental practitioner.

Removable prosthodontics focuses on the teeth replacement, in conjunction with soft tissues with a removable non-permanent prosthesis.

Removable prosthodontics appliances can be used for standard removable partial dentures for replacing missing teeth and this can help to avoid further surgery.

On the other hand, Fixed prosthodontics is the practice of repairing teeth with restorations that are permanently affixed to the patient's mouth. They're usually created in a laboratory by a dental laboratory technician who takes impressions to work with.

The difference between a removable prosthodontic appliance and a fixed prosthesis case is as follows:

removable prosthodontic                   fixed prosthesis case

It can be easily removed by            It requires a dental practitioner to

from the mouth when required        remove it.

Can lead to further jaw bone          It makes the jaw bone firm and intact

deterioration

Its cost is usually affordable but,   The cost is higher and it is a longtime

it has limited longetivity                 value.

From the above, explanation, we can conclude that we've understood what the different structures of the oral cavity are and how to make a comparison between the removable prosthodontic appliance and the fixed prosthesis case.

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Describe the different structures of the oral cavity that the dental laboratory technician requires from

Sub-Occipital Triangle- what muscles form this??

Answers

The Sub-Occipital Triangle is formed by three muscles: Rectus Capitis Posterior Major, Rectus Capitis Posterior Minor, and Obliquus Capitis Inferior. These muscles play a role in head and neck movement and stability.

The sub-occipital triangle is formed by four muscles - rectus capitis posterior major, rectus capitis posterior minor, obliquus capitis superior, and obliquus capitis inferior. These muscles are located at the base of the skull, between the occipital bone and the atlas vertebra. They work together to stabilize and move the head and neck. Dysfunction or tightness in these muscles can cause headaches, neck pain, and restricted range of motion.These muscles are deep to the trapezius and splenius capitis muscles and are responsible for various movements of the head and neck. They also play a role in maintaining proper posture and stabilizing the head during movements of the cervical spine.

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5. Wilson discusses identifying problems and questions to help drive scientific research. Think about the health sciences and medicine. What is one problem or question that you would be interested in trying to solve

Answers

Answer:

Improving the survival chances of chronic Hepatitis B viral infection carrier and blocking the damages it cause to the liver.

Explanation:

Hepatitis B is a viral infection that affects the liver and it is capable of causing death as sufferer can experience liver cancer at chronic stage.

Hepatitis B is a potentially life-threatening global health problem I would like to solve.

The following steps to conduct a scientific research on the problem are:

1. To make an observation

2. Ask questions

3. Do necessary research to collect valuable information

4. Formulate hypothesis

5. Conduct experiment to test hypothesis

6. Analyze results and get conclusion

7. Publish result

the combining form that means cause (of disease) is

Answers

The combining form that means "cause (of disease)" is etiology.

The term "etiology" is a noun form that denotes the study of causes of diseases.

Etiology refers to the study of the causes of diseases. It encompasses the factors that lead to the development of a disease, including genetic, environmental, social, and behavioral factors. Etiology has a crucial role in the diagnosis and treatment of diseases.

It is fundamental in identifying risk factors that can be modified or managed to prevent disease and promote good health. Etiology is also important in the development of new treatments and therapies for diseases.

The combining form eti/o derives from the Greek word aitia, which means "cause." Eti/o is a common prefix used in medical terminology. Other terms that use the eti/o prefix include etiology (the study of the causes of diseases), etiopathogenesis (the study of the causes and development of diseases), and etiologic agent (the cause of a disease).

Thus, the combining form that means "cause (of disease)" is eti/o.

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advantages of the bi-concave shape of red blood cells​

Answers

Answer:

The biconcave shape allows RBCs to bend and flow smoothly through the body's capillaries. It also facilitates oxygen transport. Red blood cells are considered cells, but they lack a nucleus, DNA, and organelles like the endoplasmic reticulum or mitochondria.

Explanation:

How many grams are in 200ml of 20% solution

Answers

Answer: The answer I have concluded for this question would be \(\textbf{200g}\) (grams).

Explanation: Hope this helps! Have a wonderful day <3!

There are 40 grams in 200 mL of a 20% solution.

To determine the number of grams in a solution, you need to know the percentage concentration and the volume of the solution.

In this case, you have a 20% solution and a volume of 200 mL.

To calculate the number of grams, you multiply the volume by the percentage concentration and divide by 100.

Number of grams = (Volume in mL * Percentage concentration) / 100

Number of grams = (200 mL * 20%) / 100

Number of grams = (200 mL * 0.20)

Number of grams = 40 grams

Therefore, there are 40 grams in 200 mL of a 20% solution.

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A six minth old patient is seen at the clinic for a routine visit and vaccinations. During th

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I dont think you pit the entire question there.

Please state the entire question.

1. Give examples of gynaecological and non-gynaecological samples. Also, which staining method is used for each? (5 marks) 2. The crush method is used for what type of sample? (1 mark) 3. What is the

Answers

1. Gynaecological samples refer to samples that are specifically collected from the female reproductive system. Examples of gynecological samples include cervical swabs, endometrial biopsies, and vaginal smears. The staining method commonly used for gynecological samples is the Papanicolaou stain, also known as the Pap stain. This staining technique helps to identify abnormal cells, such as those found in cervical cancer.

On the other hand, non-gynecological samples are samples collected from areas other than the female reproductive system. Examples of non-gynecological samples include blood, urine, and skin biopsies. These samples may be stained using various methods depending on the specific purpose. For example, blood samples may be stained using a Wright-Giemsa stain for the identification of different types of blood cells, while skin biopsies may be stained using hematoxylin and eosin (H&E) stain for general histological examination.

2. The crush method is commonly used for the examination of tissue samples. This method involves compressing or squashing a tissue sample between two glass slides to create a thin, flattened specimen. The crush method is particularly useful for obtaining cellular details from solid tissue samples, such as lymph nodes or tumors, and allows for easier visualization of cells under a microscope.

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Calculate how many mL you will dispense for the following prescription.
Magic Mouthwash
Swish and spit 15 mL po q4h x 12 days
Select one:
a.180
b.360
c.720
d.1,080

Answers

D. 1,080 mL you will dispense for the prescription: Swish and spit 15 mL po q4h x 12 days.

The prescription indicates that the patient should take 15 mL of Magic Mouthwash by mouth every 4 hours for 12 days. To calculate the total amount of Magic Mouthwash that the patient will need, we need to know how many doses the patient will take in 12 days.

There are 24 hours in a day, so if the patient takes the mouthwash every 4 hours, they will take it 24/4 = 6 times per day.

To calculate the total number of doses in 12 days, we multiply 6 doses per day by 12 days, which equals 72 doses.

To calculate the total amount of Magic Mouthwash required, we multiply the number of doses (72) by the amount of each dose (15 mL), which equals 1,080 mL.

Therefore, the answer is d. 1,080.

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What type of agent increases the viscosity of a suspension?
Group of answer choices

Emulsifier

Flocculating agent

Mucilage

Thickening agent

Answers

B, would be correct.

Have a nice day!

psychiatric disorders in children (adhd, conduct and oppositional defiant disorders) please give the introduction for this in your own words I have a presentation

Answers

Psychiatric disorders in children are conditions that affect the mental health and behavior of children and adolescents.

What is a good introduction?

Some of the most common psychiatric disorders in children include attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD), conduct disorder, and oppositional defiant disorder (ODD).

ADHD is a condition that affects a child's ability to focus, control impulses, and regulate behavior. Children with ADHD may struggle in school and have difficulty with social interactions.

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Lenco Industries has cost of goods manufactured of $65 000 in May. The finished goods inventory at the end of May was $20 000 and the cost of goods sold during May was $75 000. The inventory in finished goods at the beginning of May was: $5000. $30 000. $10 000. $20 000

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is:

$30,000

Explanation:

ending inventory = $20,000

sales = $75,000

Manufactured goods = $65,000

Beginning inventory = ???

1. First let us calculate the difference between the cost of goods sold and the cost of goods manufactured, in order to determine the goods from alternative sources order than manufacturing. This is done as follows:

Goods from sources other than manufacturing = (sales) - (manufactured goods)

Goods from sources other than manufacturing = 75,000 - 65,000 = $10,000

This means that out of the $75,000 worth of goods sold, $10,000 was from a source other than manufacturing which can be accurately predicted to be the beginning inventory

2. Next, to calculate the total beginning inventory, we will add the goods sold from the beginning inventory and the ending inventory.

Beginning inventory = (Goods from sources other than manufacturing ) + ending inventory

Beginning inventory = 10,000 + 20,000 = $30,000

Note, since the sales are more than the manufactured goods, the excess is from beginning inventory

A friend of yours is worried about a particular illness that runs in his family. He recently reached out to you about his cafeteria plan that he received from work. His family doctor has done a great job of treating members in his family with this illness. In the event that he should suffer with the same condition, he would like to know which of the following options allows the insured to use the services of different hospitals, clinics, and doctors without prior permission?

Question 13 options:

Preferred provider organization

Managed care plan

Point of service plan

Health management organization

Answers

The option that allows the insured to use the services of different hospitals, clinics, and doctors without prior permission is a Preferred Provider Organization (PPO) plan.

A Preferred Provider Organization is a type of health insurance plan that offers a network of healthcare providers, including hospitals, clinics, and doctors, who have agreed to provide services at negotiated rates. With a PPO, the insured individual has the flexibility to choose healthcare providers both within and outside the network. They are not required to obtain prior permission or a referral to see a specialist or receive medical services.

In contrast, a Managed Care Plan typically requires the insured to select a primary care physician (PCP) and obtain referrals from the PCP to see specialists or receive certain medical services. A Point of Service (POS) Plan is a type of managed care plan that allows individuals to receive services from both in-network and out-of-network providers, but usually requires a referral to see specialists. A Health Maintenance Organization (HMO) is another type of managed care plan that typically requires individuals to choose a primary care physician and receive all healthcare services through the HMO's network of providers, with limited coverage for out-of-network services.

Therefore, in this case, the Preferred Provider Organization (PPO) would be the option that allows your friend to use the services of different hospitals, clinics, and doctors without prior permission.

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aclare la importancia de la mision preventiva de la medicina deportiva

Answers

El entrenamiento atlético abarca la prevención, el examen, el diagnóstico, el tratamiento y la rehabilitación de lesiones y afecciones médicas emergentes, agudas o crónicas. El entrenamiento atlético es reconocido por la Asociación Médica Estadounidense (AMA), la Administración de Servicios de Recursos de Salud (HRSA) y el Departamento de Salud y Servicios Humanos (HHS) como una profesión aliada del cuidado de la salud.


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After a thorough exam of an underweight nine-month-old child, the pediatrician rendered a diagnosis of severe malnutrition with marasmus. What are the correct ICD-10-CM codes?

Answers

After a thorough examination of an underweight nine-month-old child, the pediatrician diagnosed severe malnutrition with marasmus. The correct ICD-10-CM codes for this diagnosis are E41 - nutritional marasmus and  E43 - unspecified severe protein-calorie malnutrition

E41 - Nutritional marasmus, this code specifically addresses the marasmus aspect of the diagnosis, indicating a severe form of protein-energy malnutrition that is characterized by significant weight loss, muscle wasting, and stunted growth. E43 - Unspecified severe protein-calorie malnutrition: This code is used when the child is suffering from severe malnutrition that is not specifically classified under another code. It covers both marasmus and kwashiorkor or any other form of protein-energy malnutrition.

So therefore by using both codes,  E41 - nutritional marasmus and  E43 - unspecified severe protein-calorie malnutrition, you accurately represent the diagnosis of severe malnutrition with marasmus in the ICD-10-CM coding system. These codes are essential for proper documentation, treatment planning, and insurance billing purposes.

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Does the education of women tend to reduce their fertility?
Why?

Answers

yes the education of women tends to reduce their fertility.
because education provides women with knowledge and skills that enable them to make informed decisions about their reproductive health.
educated women are more likely to use contraception and family planning methods which can help them to space out pregnancies and limit family size. educated women are also more likely to pursue careers and other interests outside of motherhood which can lead to later marriages and delayed childbearing.
women who are educated tend to have greater access to economic opportunities and are more likely to participate in the labor force which can also impact their fertility choices.
education has been shown to be an effective tool for empowering women and promoting reproductive health and rights.

why shouldn't you use an AED on someone having a heart attack​

Answers

Answer:

Remember, a heart attack can turn into cardiac arrest if the heart becomes damaged. If the person is not responsive when you yell at him, assume it is CARDIAC ARREST and start CPR.

Explanation:

The  AED      

could change the heartbeat pattern

Dr's order is 7.5 mg, the bottle on hand reads 5mg tabs how many tables are given?

Answers

Answer:

1.5 tablets

Explanation:

if you were getting one dose of 7.5mg but are given in the form of 5mg then it'll be 1 and 1/2 tablet to equal 7.5mg.

How does dialysis stimulate the kidneys

Answers

When your kidneys fail, dialysis keeps your body in balance by: removing waste, salt and extra water to prevent them from building up in the body. keeping a safe level of certain chemicals in your blood, such as potassium, sodium and bicarbonate. helping to control blood pressure.

a client sustained a closed-head injury 4 hours ago and now presents to the emergency department with difficulty breathing. the nurse should suspect damage to what part of the brain?

Answers

When a client presents with difficulty breathing after sustaining a closed-head injury, the nurse should suspect damage to the brainstem. The brainstem is responsible for regulating essential bodily functions, such as breathing and heart rate. Any damage to this area can result in respiratory distress and difficulty breathing.

The nurse should closely monitor the client's vital signs, oxygen saturation levels, and neurological status. Prompt and appropriate interventions, such as supplemental oxygen therapy, may be necessary to support the client's respiratory function. It is also important for the nurse to inform the healthcare provider immediately and prepare the client for emergent interventions, such as intubation or mechanical ventilation. A thorough neurological assessment and timely interventions can help prevent further complications and improve the client's overall outcome.

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The emerging role of the administrative medical assistant serving as a receptionist includes?

Answers

The emerging role of the administrative medical assistant serving as a receptionist includes various responsibilities aimed at ensuring efficient healthcare facility operations and providing excellent patient experiences.

Some key aspects of this role include greeting and checking in patients, scheduling appointments, managing electronic medical records, verifying insurance information, and facilitating communication between patients and healthcare providers.

Additionally, administrative medical assistants may handle billing and coding tasks, assist with referrals, and coordinate administrative tasks within the healthcare team. They play a vital role in creating a welcoming and organized environment, managing patient flow, and contributing to the smooth functioning of the healthcare facility.

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Indicate whether each effect or symptom is associated with acute (short-term) or chronic (long-term) stress.

Answers

Answer:

Increases consumption of glycogen, increased angiotensin secretion, increased breakdown of protein and increase gluconeogenesis is also acute stress.

Decreases testosterone or estrogen, deceased immunity and increased sodium retention are the examples of chronic stress.

Explanation:

Increases consumption of glycogen, increased angiotensin secretion, increased breakdown of protein and increase gluconeogenesis is also acute stress means the type of stress that occurs for a short period of time or have short term effect on the body and then vanished, while on the other hand, decreases testosterone or estrogen, deceased immunity and increased sodium retention are the examples of chronic stress means have long term stress on the body and its organs.

ibuprofen 100 mg/5 ml suspension 2 tsp po q8h prn disp: 1/2 pint how many milliliters will be dispensed to the patient?

Answers

Ibuprofen suspension is a liquid formulation of the medication ibuprofen. Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that is commonly used to relieve pain, reduce inflammation, and lower fever. 10 milliliters (ml) of ibuprofen suspension will be dispensed to the patient.

To determine how many milliliters of ibuprofen suspension will be dispensed to the patient, we need to convert the given quantity from teaspoons to milliliters.

The suspension form of ibuprofen is typically used when the medication needs to be administered orally and is more convenient for individuals who have difficulty swallowing tablets or capsules.

Given:

Ibuprofen suspension concentration: 100 mg/5 ml

Dispensed Quantity: 2 tsp

Conversion factor: 1 tsp = 5 ml

To calculate the milliliters dispensed, we can set up a proportion:

(2 tsp) / (1) = (x ml) / (5 ml)

Cross-multiplying, we get:

2 tsp * 5 ml = x ml * 1

10 ml = x ml

Therefore, 10 milliliters (ml) of ibuprofen suspension will be dispensed to the patient.

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