A distance-based uncertainty analysis approach is used in multi-criteria decision analysis for water resource decision making.
Multi-criteria decision analysis (MCDA) is a technique used to evaluate and compare different alternatives based on multiple criteria or objectives. In water resource decision making, this approach helps in selecting the best course of action considering various factors such as cost, environmental impact, and social acceptability.
The distance-based uncertainty analysis approach incorporates uncertainties associated with the criteria and weights used in MCDA. It considers the uncertainty of the data and the decision maker's subjective judgments. By analyzing the distance between alternatives and the ideal solution, this approach provides a measure of uncertainty in the decision-making process. It helps decision makers to identify the sensitivity of the final decision to uncertainties and make more informed choices.
Using this approach, decision makers can understand the potential impact of uncertainties on the final decision and develop strategies to manage and reduce them. By considering uncertainties in water resource decision making, the distance-based uncertainty analysis approach enhances the robustness and reliability of the decision-making process.
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If the long-run market supply curve for a perfectly competitive market is upward sloping, then this industry exhibits _____ costs. increasing decreasing constant an absence of marginal
When a perfectly competitive market has a long-run market supply curve that is upward sloping, then that market has increasing costs.
A market supply curve that is upward sloping means that:
Costs increase as production quantity increases Suppliers will produce more if prices rise as wellIn such a market, suppliers face increasing costs as they produce more which is why they will demand higher prices in order to produce more so that they can cover their costs.
In conclusion, such a market will have increasing costs.
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Which of the following is a personal benefit of eaming a college degree?
A. You have more friends.
B. You are more likely to exercise.
C. You have a longer life expectancy.
D. You are more likely to vote for the right candidate.
Answer:
Option B !!!!! :))
Explanation:
You are an auditor on an engagement.
You are performing tests of details of account balances.
The accounts you are most likely testing are the ______
a. cash flow statement accounts.
b. revenue accounts.
c. expense accounts.
d. balance sheet accounts.
The accounts an auditor on an engagement is most likely testing when performing tests of details of account balances are the balance sheet accounts.
An auditor is an individual responsible for reviewing and verifying the accuracy of financial records. An engagement is an agreement to perform audit activities and provides an auditor with a framework for planning and performing the audit. There are many audit procedures that an auditor might conduct in order to form an opinion on a set of financial statements. One such procedure is the testing of details of account balances.
The objective of tests of details of account balances is to obtain audit evidence about specific account balances and related transactions. By testing specific account balances, auditors can obtain assurance over the completeness, accuracy, and validity of these balances. Auditors will typically perform tests of details of account balances for accounts that are considered significant or high-risk.Balance sheet accounts include assets, liabilities, and equity accounts. Some examples of balance sheet accounts include cash, accounts receivable, inventory, accounts payable, and long-term debt. Given that balance sheet accounts represent the financial position of a company at a specific point in time, auditors are most likely to test these accounts when performing tests of details of account balances.
Therefore,
the answer to this question is option D: Balance sheet accounts.
An auditor on an engagement is responsible for reviewing and verifying the accuracy of financial records. Tests of details of account balances is an audit procedure that an auditor might conduct in order to form an opinion on a set of financial statements. The objective of tests of details of account balances is to obtain audit evidence about specific account balances and related transactions.
Balance sheet accounts include assets, liabilities, and equity accounts, so auditors are most likely to test these accounts when performing tests of details of account balances. Therefore, the accounts an auditor on an engagement is most likely testing when performing tests of details of account balances are the balance sheet accounts.
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filipino shrimpers practice dumping by selling their catch to u.s. customers at a price that is higher than the price of shrimp caught in the united states.
It is true that Filipino shrimpers practice dumping by selling the catch to U.S. customers at price that is higher than price of shrimp caught in United States.
What is a customer?A customer is a person or entity who purchases goods or services from a business in exchange for payment. Customers are the lifeblood of any business, as they generate revenue and sustain the company's operations. They are the reason why businesses exist and the primary focus of marketing efforts. Customer satisfaction is crucial to the success of a business, as it leads to repeat business, positive word-of-mouth referrals, and brand loyalty. A good customer experience can lead to increased sales and profits, while a poor experience can have a negative impact on the business's reputation. Therefore, businesses must strive to understand their customers' needs and preferences and provide exceptional service to retain them.
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Complete Question:
Filipino shrimpers practice dumping by selling their catch to u.s. customers at a price that is higher than the price of shrimp caught in the united states. Is True or False?
price changes alter consumers': multiple select question. equilibrium consumption bundles. budget constraints. preference patterns. incentives to buy different goods.
Price changes alter consumers' Equilibrium consumption bundles, Budget constraints, Preference patterns and Incentives to buy different goods. So, correct options are A, B, C and D.
Price changes can have a significant impact on consumers' behavior and choices. The following options are affected by price changes:
A) Equilibrium consumption bundles: Price changes can shift the equilibrium consumption bundle of a consumer. When the price of a good decreases, it becomes relatively cheaper, which can cause consumers to shift their consumption towards that good, resulting in a change in the equilibrium consumption bundle.
B) Budget constraints: Price changes also affect consumers' budget constraints. When the price of a good decreases, consumers can afford to buy more of that good with their given income. Conversely, an increase in the price of a good can reduce the amount of that good that consumers can afford, leading to a change in the budget constraint.
C) Preference patterns: Price changes can also alter consumers' preference patterns. For example, a decrease in the price of a good can make it more attractive to consumers, leading to an increase in demand for that good.
D) Incentives to buy different goods: Finally, price changes can alter the incentives for consumers to buy different goods. When the price of a good decreases, consumers may be more likely to buy that good over other goods, leading to a shift in demand and potentially altering the overall market equilibrium.
Overall, price changes can have a significant impact on consumers' choices and behavior by altering their equilibrium consumption bundles, budget constraints, preference patterns, and incentives to buy different goods.
So, correct options are A, B, C and D.
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a corporate charter specifies that the company may issue up to 39 million shares of stock. the company sells 31 million shares to investors and later buys back 12.5 million shares. the current number of shares of treasury stock after these transactions have been accounted for is: multiple choice 12.5 million shares. 8.0 million shares. 19.0 million shares. 27.0 million shares.
The current number of shares of treasury stock after selling 31 million shares and buying back 12.5 million shares is 18.5 million shares.
To find the current number of shares of treasury stock, we need to subtract the number of shares bought back from the number of shares sold.
Given:
Number of shares authorized = 39 million
Number of shares sold = 31 million
Number of shares bought back = 12.5 million
To calculate the number of shares of treasury stock, we subtract the shares bought back from the shares sold:
31 million shares - 12.5 million shares = 18.5 million shares
Therefore, the current number of shares of treasury stock after these transactions have been accounted for is 18.5 million shares.
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Which type of area is described as a highly specialized site where imported (foreign) goods can be stored, processed, exhibited, or used in manufacturing without being subjected to tariff (duties) or quotas until the goods enter the customs territory of the importing country?
A. free trade zone
B consolidated tariff zone
C private warehouse
D. international free market territory
A free trade zone, also known as a foreign-trade zone or a free zone, is a highly specialized area where imported goods can be stored, processed, exhibited, or used in manufacturing without being subjected to tariffs (duties) or quotas until the goods enter the customs territory of the importing country.
In a free trade zone, imported goods are considered to be outside the customs territory of the importing country. This means that the goods can be held in the free trade zone without being subject to import duties or other trade restrictions.
Once the goods are in the free trade zone, they can undergo various activities such as manufacturing, assembly, packaging, and labeling. These activities can add value to the goods before they are finally entered into the customs territory of the importing country.
The purpose of a free trade zone is to promote international trade by reducing trade barriers and facilitating the movement of goods between countries. It provides a favorable environment for businesses to engage in global trade by offering benefits such as tax incentives, streamlined customs procedures, and simplified regulations.
To summarize, a free trade zone is a specialized area where imported goods can be stored, processed, exhibited, or used in manufacturing without being subject to tariffs or quotas until they enter the customs territory of the importing country. It promotes international trade by reducing trade barriers and providing favorable conditions for businesses.
The correct answer to the question is A. free trade zone.
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3. A fine-dining restaurant has been making every- thing from scratch for the five years it has been open; it is the only operation in the area known for scratch- cooking. The management hires a new chef who does a make–buy analysis only to discover that she can get much better pricing on many of her products if she buys them premade. After a tasting comparison, she discovers that the premade products are of high quality and taste only slightly different from her own. Should she switch to the premade products? Would your answer be different if this decision took place when the restaurant first opened?
Answer:
No
Explanation:
The premade products could have been contaminated with any type of disease because she doesn't know what went inside whereas making it from scratch means she is able to monitor and remove and contaminated product.
:)
Keri has already installed Microsoft Office Tools. When she opens Excel, the first step toward making the Analysis ToolPak available is to
open Advanced Filter under the Data tab.
open Microsoft Office Help.
go to the Formulas tab and click More Functions.
go to the Excel Options dialog box.
Answer:
Open Microsoft Office Help.
Go to the Formulas tab and click More Functions.
Explanation:
Select File → select Options → select Advanced → scroll to General → insert the location in the "At startup, open all files in" dialog box.
Answer:
open Microsoft Office Help
Explanation:
:)
Linda just got approved on an ARM mortgage. What is true?
O Her taxes will be reduced.
O She has a secured loan.
O Her interest will be fixed.
O She cannot make a down payment.
Answer:
\(\fbox {She has a secured loan.}\)
Explanation:
We know from basics that by a mortgage, we understand that we put our asset down as a collateral so we can take a loan and this asset will be under the lender's control until repayment.
An ARM mortgage means that the interest rate can be gradually changed based on performance benchmarks, such as a change in it every 6 months.
Hence, by this, we can understand that the loan is secure.
Vivian conducted market research on her company's products. She found that after the company raised the price of its product by $1.50, the demand in the uptown region remained the same with only minor fluctuations. However, she found that the demand in the downtown region dropped by 20 percent after the price change. How should Vivian take these demands into consideration?
Answer:
One important factor that Vivian needs to consider is that demand changes as a result of changes in price, however, other factors could affect the demand for goods or services, examples are, changes in the price of related goods, the income of the people, changes in preference etc.
Therefore, based on this fact, Vivian should consider "Price elasticity of demand." Price elasticity of demand can be defined as a measurement used in economics to show the responsiveness or elasticity of the quantity demanded of a good or service to a change in its price when nothing but the price changes.
The number of dependents that people are choosing to have is ?
O decreasing
O increasing
Current demographic trends show that the number of dependents that people choose to have is Decreasing.
What is the trend in dependants?A general trend that has been noticed in recent years is that people are choosing to have less dependants such as children.
The top reasons for this include more education and increased economic hardship.
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A ____ job is one that is found in many organizations and performed by several individuals who have similar duties and require similar KSAs.red-circledbenchmark
A market segments job is one that is found in many organizations and performed by several individuals who have similar duties and require similar KSAs.
Market segments are collections of people gathered with marketing goals in mind. Market segments are divisions of a broader market that often group people based on one or more shared traits.
Businesses and their marketing departments choose the target market for their goods and services using a range of considerations. Marketing gurus adopt a unique strategy for each market segment once they have a thorough understanding of the needs, way of life, demographics, and personality of the target consumer. A market segment is a collection of clients with similar tastes in an otherwise homogenous market. These clients could be made up of individuals, families, businesses, organisations.
Complete question:
A ____ job is one that is found in many organizations and performed by several individuals who have similar duties and require similar KSAs.red-circled benchmark segment.
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What sum of money will grow to $2443.96 in nine years at 7.8% compounded semi-annually? The sum of money is $ (Round to the nearest cent as needed. Round all intermediate values to six decimal places as needed.)
We may use the compound interest calculation to get the amount that will increase to $2443.96 in nine years at a compound interest rate of 7.8% compounded semi-annually:
A = P(1 + r/n)nt
Where: A = the investment's future worth ($2443.96 in this case),
P stands for the primary (or initial payment).
r = the yearly interest rate (0.078 in decimal notation, or 7.8% annually).
(Semi-annually, thus 2) n is the number of compounding periods every year.
9 years are represented by the numeral t.
Let's figure out P.
2443.96 = P(1 + 0.078/2)^(2*9)
2443.96 = P(1.039)^18
P = 2443.96 / (1.039)^18
We calculate P to be $1221.82 (rounded to the nearest penny) using a calculator.
Consequently, the amount that will increase to $2443.96 in nine years at a 7.8% compounded growth rate
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Suppose Extensive Enterprises’s CFO is evaluating a project with the following cash inflows. She does not know the project’s initial cost; however, she does know that the project’s regular payback period is 2.5 years.
a. Year Cash Flow
b. Year 1 $325,000
c. Year 2 $475,000
d. Year 3 $450,000
e. Year 4 $450,000
If the project’s weighted average cost of capital (WACC) is 9%, what is its NPV?
A. $373,161
B. $356,199
C. $305,313
D. $339,237
The closest answer choice is A) $373,161, which is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is not provided in the answer choices.
To calculate the NPV of the project, we need to find the initial cost of the project. Since we know the project's regular payback period is 2.5 years and the cash inflows for each year, we can calculate the cumulative cash inflows until we reach the payback point.
Year 1 cash inflow = $325,000
Year 2 cash inflow = $475,000
Year 3 cash inflow = $450,000
Cumulative cash inflow at the end of Year 2 = $800,000 ($325,000 + $475,000)
Cumulative cash inflow at the end of Year 3 = $1,250,000 ($325,000 + $475,000 + $450,000)
To find the payback period, we need to calculate how long it takes for the cumulative cash inflows to equal the initial investment.
Payback period = 2 + [(Initial investment - Cumulative cash inflow at the end of Year 2) / Cash inflow for Year 3]
Payback period = 2 + [($X - $800,000) / $450,000]
Payback period = 2.78 years
Since the regular payback period is 2.5 years, we know the initial investment is somewhere between the Year 2 and Year 3 cash inflows. Let's assume the initial investment is $1,000,000.
Using the NPV formula with a WACC of 9%, we get:
NPV = (-$1,000,000) + ($325,000 / 1.09) + ($475,000 / 1.09^2) + ($450,000 / 1.09^3) + ($450,000 / 1.09^4)
NPV = (-$1,000,000) + $276,147 + $375,221 + $331,997 + $284,983
NPV = $267,348
Since the NPV is positive, the project is expected to generate a return greater than the WACC and should be accepted.
The closest answer choice is A) $373,161, which is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is not provided in the answer choices.
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If the production of a good generates a negative externality, which one of the following statements will be true from a social perspective?
Group of answer choices
a. the price will be too high and the quantity produced will be too high
b. the price will be too low and the quantity produced will be too high.
c. the price will be too low but the quantity produced will be correct.
d. the price will be too high and the quantity produced will be too low
If the production of a good generates a negative externality, the correct statement from a social perspective would be:
The price will be too low and the quantity produced will be too high.
Negative externalities impose costs on third parties who are not directly involved in the production or consumption of the good. When these costs are not taken into account in the market, the price of the good will be lower than the socially optimal level. As a result, the quantity produced will be higher than what is socially desirable.
In this case, the market fails to internalize the negative externality, leading to an overproduction of the good from a social perspective.
A negative externality refers a negative effect that is incurred by a third party as a result of the production of a certain good e.g pollution associated with the refining of oil.
When this negative externality is included in price e.g. the cost of cleaning up the pollution, the price will have to increase to reflect that. The good will therefore becomes more expensive to produce which would cause the company to produce less of it which means that the output will fall.
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What type of relationship exists between risk and expected return?
The relationship between risk and expected return often referred to as the risk-return tradeoff, states that the potential return on an investment increases with an increase in the level of risk associated with it.
In other words, investors expect higher returns on investments that carry higher levels of risk. This is because they are taking on more uncertainty and are therefore exposed to the possibility of experiencing losses. As a result, investors require a higher return as compensation for bearing that additional risk.
This relationship can be observed in various types of investments. For example, stocks generally have a higher risk and expected return compared to bonds, and within the stock market, small-cap stocks typically have a higher risk and return compared to large-cap stocks. Similarly, investing in a startup company carries higher risk and potential return than investing in an established company.
The risk-return tradeoff is important for investors when constructing their investment portfolios. They must balance their desire for high returns with their tolerance for risk, taking into account factors such as their investment goals, time horizon, and personal risk tolerance. By understanding the risk-return relationship, investors can make more informed decisions about the assets they include in their portfolios and achieve an appropriate balance between risk and expected return.
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2) At the optimal solution to a linear programming problem, how many of the constraints will be satisfied? a. All of them b. At least half of them, but not all c. At least one of them, but less than half
d. Exactly one
In the linear programming, at the optimal solution, all the constraints are satisfied (option a).
Linear programming is a mathematical method used to determine a way to achieve the best outcome (such as maximum profit or lowest cost) in a given mathematical model for a set of constraints, usually represented as linear relationships.
It's about optimizing the results while satisfying constraints.
In the linear programming problem, the optimal solution is the point on the graph that provides the maximum or minimum value of the function while also satisfying the given constraints. The optimal solution can also be considered the solution that is optimal in terms of the objective function.
Linear programming deals with finding the optimal value (maximum or minimum) for a linear function known as the objective function. The optimal value is found by satisfying all the constraints.
As a result, at the optimal solution to a linear programming problem, all of the constraints will be satisfied.
Hence, option a. All of them is the correct answer.
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conse and Cash Flow Analysis 1,200,000. Round vour anawers to the nearest dolar. Net income: 4 Net cash fow: 5 I. If depreciaton dowbied, taxable income would fail to zero, taxes would be zero, and net cash fio would rise, If. If depreciation doubled, taxable income would fall to zero, taxes would be zero, and net cash flow would deciine. 111. If depreciation doubled, taxable income would not be affected since depreciation is a noe-csh experise, Net cash flow would aiso be unaffected. IV. If depreciation doubled, tavable lncene would not be adected since depreciation is a non cash expense. Net cash fion wôld double. V. If denrecation doubled, taxavie income would fall to zero, tawes would be zero, and net cash flew would be unaftected, 1. If depreciabon were halved, raxable income and taxes would secline but net cash flow acularise. 18. If depreciation were halved, taxabse income, taxes, and net cash flow would all decine. 111. If depreciation nere halved, takable income and net cash flow would rise but takes would fall. TV. If isepreciation were holved, takable insome and taves would rise but net cash fiow would fall. V. If deprecision were halved, taxable income, taxes, and net cash flow would all rise.
I. If depreciation doubled, taxable income would fall to zero, taxes would be zero, and net cash flow would rise.
II. If depreciation doubled, taxable income would fall to zero, taxes would be zero, and net cash flow would decline.
III. If depreciation doubled, taxable income would not be affected, and net cash flow would also be unaffected.
IV. If depreciation doubled, taxable income would not be affected, but net cash flow would double.
V. If depreciation doubled, taxable income would fall to zero, taxes would be zero, and net cash flow would be unaffected.
VI. If depreciation were halved, taxable income and taxes would decline, but net cash flow would increase.
VII. If depreciation were halved, taxable income, taxes, and net cash flow would all decline.
VIII. If depreciation were halved, taxable income would rise, taxes would fall, and net cash flow would also rise.
IX. If depreciation were halved, taxable income would rise, taxes would rise, but net cash flow would fall.
X. If depreciation were halved, taxable income, taxes, and net cash flow would all rise.
I. If depreciation doubled, taxable income would fall to zero, taxes would be zero, and net cash flow would rise. This is because higher depreciation reduces taxable income, resulting in lower taxes and increased net cash flow.
II. If depreciation doubled, taxable income would fall to zero, taxes would be zero, and net cash flow would decline. In this case, higher depreciation completely offsets taxable income, resulting in zero taxes but also reducing net cash flow.
III. If depreciation doubled, taxable income would not be affected, and net cash flow would also be unaffected. Doubling depreciation does not impact taxable income, so taxes and net cash flow remain the same.
IV. If depreciation doubled, taxable income would not be affected, but net cash flow would double. Since depreciation is a non-cash expense, doubling it does not change taxable income. However, net cash flow increases due to the non-cash nature of depreciation.
V. If depreciation doubled, taxable income would fall to zero, taxes would be zero, and net cash flow would be unaffected. Doubling depreciation completely offsets taxable income, resulting in zero taxes, but net cash flow remains the same.
VI. If depreciation were halved, taxable income and taxes would decline, but net cash flow would increase. Lower depreciation reduces taxable income and taxes, leading to increased net cash flow.
VII. If depreciation were halved, taxable income, taxes, and net cash flow would all decline. Halving depreciation reduces taxable income, resulting in lower taxes and reduced net cash flow.
VIII. If depreciation were halved, taxable income would rise, taxes would fall, and net cash flow would also rise. Lower depreciation increases taxable income, leading to reduced taxes, but net cash flow still increases.
IX. If depreciation were halved, taxable income would rise, taxes would rise, but net cash flow would fall. Decreased depreciation increases taxable income and taxes, resulting in reduced net cash flow.
X. If depreciation were halved, taxable income, taxes, and net cash flow would all rise. Lower depreciation increases taxable income, leading to higher taxes and increased net cash flow.
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Give all start up costs for opening a salon that has 8 workers with 8 stations and that does everything hair and wax related. Include the quantities for each item and the pricing
Rent/Lease for the salon space: $2,000 - $10,000
Build-out costs: $5,000 - $15,000
Equipment and supplies:
8 stations, chairs, and mirrors: $5,000 - $10,000
8 styling stations (styling chairs, styling stations, styling tools): $8,000 - $15,000
8 hair dryers: $4,000 - $6,000
8 hair washing stations: $8,000 - $12,000
8 hair cutting stations: $8,000 - $12,000
8 waxing stations: $8,000 - $12,000
Hair color, waxing, and other supplies: $5,000 - $10,000
Marketing and advertising costs: $2,000 - $5,000
Legal and accounting fees: $1,500 - $3,000
Insurance (liability, property, and worker's compensation) $2,000 - $5,000
Employee salaries: $8,000 - $12,000
Miscellaneous costs (utilities, phone, internet, etc): $5,000 - $10,000
Note that these numbers are rough estimations, and the cost can vary depending on location and other factors.
help please and thank youuuuuu
Answer:
B I'm pretty sure sorry if I get it wrong
Answer:
sales tax
Explanation:
sales tax is a tax a costumer pays for certain goods and services
______ Is a market in which a large number of suppliers compete with each other to satisfy the needs and wants of a large numbers of consumers at a competitive price.???
Answer : Monopolistic competition
Answer:
Monopolistic Competition
Explanation:
In a monopolistic competitive market, there are large numbers of sellers who do not sell identical products instead they sell differential products. They compete with each other at a competitive price. The products could be differentiated in many ways including quality, style, location and even brand name. Since they compete at a competitive price, if there is a substantial rise in the price of any of the products, the buyers could quickly shift from one product to another. The most crucial factor behind product differentiation is because of geographical factors. Under a monopolistic competitive market, the sellers do not have any influence over customer loyalty and limited control over the price.
as phasedown of shelter operations has begun, the american red cross disaster operations supervisor has directed you to begin re-assigning shelter staff personnel and release those that are no longer required. as a supervisor, you direct released staff to checkout. what nims management characteristics are you supporting? select all that apply.
Nims management characteristics are Chain of Command and Unity of Command Accountability.
The military term "chain of command" is used to describe how orders are passed down from one person to another. Although the term unity of command sounds similar, it refers to a highly unique structure in which a worker reports to just one supervisor.
A management strategy known as "unity of command" requires employees to answer to and follow orders from a single, authorized supervisor. It refers to the range of authority that a supervisor has over her direct reports and is a sort of chain of command that is frequently utilized in hierarchical organizations.
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What is the opposite of fade-in, when the image goes black?
Answer:Umm fade out is the opposite if fade in, but it might not be correct.
Explanation:
;)
110 PART 2 PORTER'S APPROACH TO INDUSTRY ANALYSIS Michael Porter, an authority on competitive strategy, contends that corporation is mes con cemed with the intensity of competition within its incestry
Michael Porter's approach to industry analysis is based on his ive Forces Fmodel. This model is used to determine the intensity of competition within an industry and to identify the key factors that influence a corporation's ability to compete in the market.
The five forces include:
1. Threat of new entrants: This refers to the ease with which new competitors can enter the market. If there are low barriers to entry, the threat of new entrants is high, and competition within the industry is likely to be intense.
2. Bargaining power of suppliers: This refers to the ability of suppliers to influence the prices of the goods and services they provide. If suppliers have a high degree of bargaining power, they can exert more control over the prices of their products, which can impact the profitability of the corporations within the industry.
3. Bargaining power of buyers: This refers to the ability of buyers to influence the prices of the goods and services they purchase. If buyers have a high degree of bargaining power, they can exert more control over the prices of the products they buy, which can impact the profitability of the corporations within the industry.
4. Threat of substitute products: This refers to the availability of products or services that can be used in place of those offered by the corporations within the industry. If there are many substitute products available, the threat of substitution is high, and competition within the industry is likely to be intense.
5. Rivalry among existing competitors: This refers to the level of competition among the corporations within the industry. If there is a high degree of rivalry, competition within the industry is likely to be intense.
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Which of the following was not one of Reagan's four major policy objectives during his presidency?
A.reduce government regulation
B. reduce federal income tax and capital gains
C.reduce growth of government spending
D.reduce the rising taxes for middle-class citizens
E.reduce inflation by controlling growth of the money supply to reduce inflation
Answer: D.reduce the rising taxes for middle-class citizens
Explanation:
During the tenure of President Ronald Reegan when he was the president of the United States,he promoted some economic policies which were often referred to as Reaganomics.
These policies include:
A.reduce government regulation
B. reduce federal income tax and capital gains
C.reduce growth of government spending
E.reduce inflation by controlling growth of the money supply to reduce inflation
It should be noted that option D "reduce the rising taxes for middle-class citizens" isn't among the policies put forward by Reegan.
How can you use these questions to help you better develop your own leadership skills? Explain
Answer:
I can use these questions to help me better develop my own leadership skills by setting long-term goals. I think goals could really help in the future and if we complete them, that is even better. By setting long-term goals, you can prepare and plan for the future.
Explanation:
Hope this helps.
Job specialization may improve work efficiency in all of the following ways, EXCEPT: O a. Less attention residue from changing tasks O b. Fewer skills to learn O c. Better person-job matching O d. Increased number of tasks to master O e. More frequent practice
Job specialization can improve work efficiency in several ways, such as reducing attention residue from changing tasks, achieving better person-job matching, providing more frequent practice, and enabling employees to master specific tasks.
However, job specialization does not result in fewer skills to learn. In fact, it often requires employees to develop a narrow set of specialized skills related to their specific job tasks. By focusing on a specific set of tasks, employees may become highly skilled and efficient in performing those tasks, but they may lack versatility and flexibility in handling other tasks that fall outside their specialized area. Therefore, the exception to job specialization's benefits is that it does not lead to fewer skills to learn (option b).
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Sam is getting his bachelor's degree. During some of his course work, he honed his research skills and learned to exhibit confidence while presenting to an audience. Which career has Sam most likely been preparing for?
Printing Technology
Telecommunications
Performing Arts
Journalism
Answer:
Journalism
Explanation:
Answer:
journalism
Explanation:
Discuss the impact of effective college and career planning. After reviewing the career plan for your chosen career pathway, discuss how you might revise your school-related activities and associations in order to follow your plan, such as joining a CTSO. Consider any possible changes in plans you may have to make in the future, such as moving to a new city or state, and discuss how you can plan for unforeseen setbacks, such as failing a class or placement exam. Also discuss any possible backup plans, just in case the career you have chosen might not turn out to be the right choice for you. How might you change your plan if you decide that you want to do something else?
The effect of effective college and career planning is that it would give a student a clear plan on what he wants to study and the study resources he would need to make it possible.
This college and career planning is key to help the student make better informed decisions about the career he wants and the courses he would study in school.
What is Career Planning?This refers to the situation where a person makes plans that are feasible that would help his career path.
Hence, we can see that The effect of effective college and career planning is that it would give a student a clear plan on what he wants to study and the study resources he would need to make it possible.
This college and career planning is key to help the student make better informed decisions about the career he wants and the courses he would study in school.
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