A nurse enters the room of a client who has returned to the unit after having a radical neck dissection.
The client is lying sideways with the head of the bed flat. This assessment finding requires immediate intervention.
What is radical neck dissection?
The tissue on the side of the neck between the collarbone and the jawbone is completely eliminated. In this region, the muscle, nerve, salivary gland, and main blood vessel are all removed.
The most typical kind of neck dissection is this one. The lymph nodes are all taken out. Compared to radical dissection, less of the neck tissue is removed. Additionally, this procedure may spare the neck's blood vessels, muscle, and nerves.
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medical prescription: aminophylline 50 mg orally 8/8 hours. available: 5% aminophylline solution - 50ml bottles. how many ml should be given?
Answer:
To calculate how many mL of the 5% aminophylline solution should be given, we need to use the formula:
(amount of medication needed / concentration of medication available) x volume of medication available = volume of medication to be administered
Using this formula, we can calculate the volume of the aminophylline solution to be given as follows:
(amount of medication needed) = 50 mg (concentration of medication available) = 5% (volume of medication available) = 50 mL
First, we need to convert 50 mg to grams by dividing by 1000:
50 mg / 1000 = 0.05 g
Next, we need to calculate the amount of aminophylline solution required. We can do this by rearranging the formula as follows:
(volume of medication to be administered) = (amount of medication needed / concentration of medication available) x volume of medication available
(volume of medication to be administered) = (0.05 g / 0.05 g/mL) x 1 mL
(volume of medication to be administered) = 1 mL
Therefore, to administer 50 mg of aminophylline orally every 8 hours, 1 mL of the 5% aminophylline solution should be given.
Explanation:
Why is it important for an athletic trainer to check the athletic training student’s work periodically?
Answer:
To make sure they Ain't slaking off
Explanation:
Answer:
to make sure that the student isnt pushing herself to hard and to make sure that they do the excercise correctly so that they gain from it
Explanation:
vitamins have many functions throughout the body. for example, vitamin a is important for , vitamin c is important for , and vitamin d is important for .
Vitamin D are crucial for the body's control of calcium.
A vitamin is an organic substance that must be consumed through food in order to maintain life. For instance, the B vitamins serve as coenzymes, vitamins C and E act as antioxidants, and vitamin D is crucial for calcium balance. It is a fat-soluble vitamin with a long history of helping the body retain and absorb calcium and phosphorus, both of which are essential for growth and development of bone. Additionally, research in the lab demonstrates that vitamin D helps lessen inflammation, manage infections, and slow the growth of cancer cells in body.
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neural impulse fired by a neuron when it reaches 255 mv, is called
The neural impulse that is fired by a neuron when it reaches 255 mv is called the action potential.
Acton potentials are neuron impulses that are fired by neurons. It is an electrical activity explosion that is created by depolarizing currents. They occur when the membrane potential of a certain cell location rapidly increases and falls, which causes adjacent locations to do a similar thing.
There are many functions that action potentials have. They play a central role in cell-to-cell communication, letting your body parts do what you want them to do. For example, when you want to pick up a glass of water, the action potentials help the cells communicate with each other, carrying that message from the brain to the hand.
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which disease may be caused by an unhealthy lifestyle
Osteoporosis
sickle cel disease
huntington’s disease
lupus
Answer:
Huntington's disease.
Explanation:
Answer:
osteoporosis
Explanation:
A patient recovering from traumatic brain injury (TBI) demonstrates impaired cognitive function (Rancho Cognitive Level VII). What training strategy should be the therapist's focus?
1. Provide assistance as needed using guided movements during training.
2. Provide a high degree of environmental structure to ensure correct performance.
3. Involve the patient in decision-making and monitor for safety.
4. Provide maximum supervision as needed to ensure successful performance and safety.
A patient recovering from traumatic brain injury (TBI) demonstrates impaired cognitive function (Rancho Cognitive Level VII). The training strategy that the therapist should focus on (3) is to involve the patient in decision-making and monitor for safety.
Traumatic brain injury (TBI) is a condition that occurs when an external force injures the brain. TBI can be caused by a wide range of injuries, including falls, accidents, or acts of violence. The symptoms and severity of TBI can differ widely depending on the extent of the injury, the location of the injury, and the person's age, overall health, and other factors.Rancho Cognitive Level VII
The patient is demonstrating impaired cognitive function at Rancho Cognitive Level VII. This is the level where the patient is generally alert and able to respond to the environment but may still have difficulty with processing information, attention, memory, and problem-solving skills.Training strategy that should be the therapist's focusInvolve the patient in decision-making and monitor for safety. By involving the patient in decision-making, the therapist can help the patient to take ownership of their recovery and build their self-confidence. The therapist should also monitor the patient's progress and make any necessary adjustments to their training plan to ensure that the patient is making progress safely and effectively. The other options are also useful, but the focus should be on involving the patient in decision-making and monitoring for safety.
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Which is an important assessment step to identify risk for HIV?
Answer:
Sexual and drug substance use risks should be determined during a routine health history with every new patient and updated regularly during periodic health care.
Risk assessment helps to identify individuals at risk; support recommendations for HIV, STD, and hepatitis screening; and establish risk reduction education topics and strategies.
Risk assessment can help people who are already infected access treatment
and learn how to avoid transmitting HIV to others.
Explanation:
A client drinks 240 mL of soup, 120 mL of coffee, and 90 mL of juice for lunch. The client's total liquid intake for lunch is:
The client's total liquid intake for lunch is 450 Mlo It is important to keep track of liquid intake throughout the day as it can impact hydration levels and overall health. In this case, the client consumed a variety of liquids including soup, coffee, and juice.
The important to note that while these beverages do provide hydration, they may also contain other substances such as caffeine or sugar that can have additional effects on the body. To ensure proper hydration, it is recommended to consume at least 8 glasses or 64 ounces of water per day. Additionally, if the client has any specific dietary or health concerns, it may be helpful to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the appropriate level of liquid intake for their individual needs. calculate the client's total liquid intake for lunch. To find the total liquid intake, we need to add up the volumes of all the client drinks 240 mL of soup 120 mL of coffee 90 mL of juice Now, let's add these volumes together: 240 mL soup + 120 mL coffee + 90 mL juice = 450 mL So, the client's total liquid intake for lunch is 450 mL.
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Question 2 of 20 :
Select the best answer for the question
2. A respiratory abnormality in which the alveoli increase in size, leading to their destruction and resulting in difficulty in breathing, is
O A. influenza
O B. pleuritis
O C. emphysema.
O D. asthma
Mark for review (Will be highlighted on the review page)
A respiratory abnormality in which the alveoli increase in size, leading to their destruction and resulting in difficulty in breathing, is Emphysema
Option (C) is correct.
Emphysema is a respiratory abnormality characterized by the enlargement and destruction of the alveoli, which are the tiny air sacs in the lungs responsible for oxygen exchange. This condition is typically caused by long-term exposure to irritants such as cigarette smoke or air pollution.
As the alveoli become damaged and lose their elasticity, they lose their ability to effectively expand and contract during breathing. This results in difficulty in breathing, shortness of breath, and decreased oxygen exchange.
Influenza (A) is a viral infection that primarily affects the upper respiratory system and can cause symptoms such as fever, cough, and sore throat. Pleuritis (B), also known as pleurisy, refers to inflammation of the lining around the lungs and is often associated with sharp chest pain.
Asthma (D) is a chronic respiratory condition characterized by inflammation and narrowing of the airways, resulting in wheezing, coughing, and shortness of breath.
Therefore, among the given options, emphysema (C) best describes the respiratory abnormality involving enlarged alveoli and difficulty in breathing.
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A 77-year-old woman was cooking in the kitchen when she collapsed onto the floor. Her daughter called an ambulance and the woman was taken to the emergency room. She had suffered a stroke, and slowly regained consciousness over the next two days. However, when she woke up, she had the following signs and symptoms: - paralysis of the right face and arm - loss of sensation to touch on the skin of the right face and arm - inability to answer questions but ability to understand what was said to her - ability to write down her thoughts more easily than to speak them
Answer:
She suffered from a very server stroke that could probably lead to something worse or extreme expenses
Explanation:
lsd can have an effect with a dose as small as _____ milligrams
LSD can have an effect with a dose as small as 20 to 30 milligrams.
LSD is one of the psychoactive drugs. The full form of LSD is Lysergic acid diethylamide. It is made from a fungus that grows on rye and other grains. LSD is an illegal drug, which means it is prohibited by law. The effects of LSD are unpredictable and are known to last for several hours. It affects the way a person thinks, feels, and behaves. The dose of LSD ranges from 20 to 30 milligrams and can have an effect with a dose as small as 20 to 30 milligrams. It is also known to have the potential to cause long-lasting changes in personality, mood, and mental health. Hence, the correct option is 20 to 30.
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LSD (lysergic acid diethylamide) can have an effect with a dose as small as 20 to 30 micrograms or 0.02 to 0.03 milligrams.
What is LSD? LSD is a psychedelic drug that causes changes in perception, mood, and thought. It is derived from ergot, a fungus that grows on rye and other grains, and is one of the most potent mood-altering substances known to humans. LSD's effects last for up to 12 hours, and its use has been linked to long-term changes in personality and mental health.LSD doses can range from 20 to 200 micrograms, with most doses ranging from 100 to 150 micrograms. Because LSD is so potent, it's essential to use a scale that can measure small amounts accurately and to take appropriate safety precautions when using the drug.
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Does hydroxychloroquine work?
Answer:
yes
Explanation:
A client diagnosed with type 2 diabetes has been instructed about managing his condition with diet. The nurse determines further teaching is necessary when the client states:
A customer who has type 2 diabetes has received advice on how to control it with nutrition. When the client says, "I must avoid all candies and cookies, but I may eat infinite amounts of pasta and breads," the nurse concludes that more instruction is required.
The risk of Type 2 diabetes might rise if you have metabolic syndrome. If you don't alter your way of living to lose weight, you may become insulin resistant, which would raise your blood sugar levels. Insulin resistance can eventually result in type 2 diabetes.
The NCEP ATP III definition states that the presence of metabolic syndrome is determined by the fulfillment of three or more of the following five criteria: Blood pressure above 130/85 mmHg, waist circumference over 35 inches for women and 40 inches for males.
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Which stage of Kohlberg's theory of moral reasoning is based on one's personal code of ethics? A. unconventional B. conventional C. preconventional D. postconventional
Answer:
D. postconventional
Explanation:
Edg
Postconventional stage of Kohlberg's theory of moral reasoning is based on one's personal code of ethics. So, the correct option is (D).
What is Kohlberg's theory?Kohlberg's theory focuses on the thought process that occurs when one decides whether a behavior is right or wrong. Therefore, the theoretical emphasis is on how one decides to respond to a moral dilemma, not what one decides or actually does.
There are different levels of this theory which are as follows:
Stage 1: Obedience and punishment
Stage 2: Self-interest.
Stage 3: Interpersonal accord and conformity
Stage 4: Authority and maintaining social order
Stage 5: Social contract
Stage 6: Universal ethical principles.
Pre-conventional levelConventional levelPost conventional levelThe right behavior of the individual, in his opinion at the post conventional level, is therefore never a means to an end, but always an end in itself, not everyone reaches this level.
Thus, Postconventional stage of Kohlberg's theory of moral reasoning is based on one's personal code of ethics. So, the correct option is (D).
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Question 19 options: The guidance for having infant sleep on their back to reduce the incidence of SIDS has a grade of A. The Back-to-Sleep campaign directed information at parents and care-givers with the involvement of clinicians, crib manufacturers, and the media. The mortality from SIDS fell by approximately 50% within several years of the beginning of the Back-to-Sleep campaign Case-control studies were important in establishing a cause and effect relationship between having infants sleep prone and Sudden Infant Death Syndrome. Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is the most common cause of death between age 1 month and one year. Twenty years ago it resulted in over 5,000 deaths per year.
Back to Sleep campaign, which urges parents to put their infants to sleep on their backs (supine position) to lower the risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome, or SIDS.
The US National Institute of Child Health and Human Development (NICHD) at the US National Institutes of Health is supporting the Safe to Sleep campaign, formerly known as the Back to Sleep campaign, which urges parents to put their infants to sleep on their backs (supine position) to lower the risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome, or SIDS. Since infants are most at danger of SIDS between the ages of 0 and 1, this age range is the campaign's focus. The incidence of SIDS has decreased by more than 50% since the 1994 launch of "Safe to Sleep." However, incidents of newborn asphyxia while sleeping have increased. As a result, the campaign's objective has been expanded to emphasize safe sleep.learn more about Back to Sleep campaign here: https://brainly.com/question/13310038
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A postpartum client decides to bottle-feed her neonate. Which client statement indicates the need for further teaching about preventing engorgement?
Answer:
"Taking hot showers can help reduce engorgement."
Explanation:
The statement made by a client that would indicate the need for further teaching would be "Taking hot showers can help reduce engorgement." That is because Engorgement is when the breast tissue overfills with milk, blood, and other fluids which causes swelling, and pain. Heat (like from a hot shower) can increase swelling. The best thing to do would be to apply ice for 15–20 minutes at a time between feeds to reduce swelling.
a client has a tracheostomy tube attached to a tracheostomy collar for the delivery of humidified oxygen. what is the primary reason identified by the nurse for suctioning the client? 1. Humidified oxygen is saturated with fluid.
2. The tracheostomy tube interferes with effective coughing.
3. The inner cannula of the tracheostomy tube irritates the mucosa.
4. The weaning process increases the amount of respiratory secretions.
The correct option is 2. The primary reason for suctioning a client with a tracheostomy tube is that the tube interferes with effective coughing, leading to the accumulation of respiratory secretions that require removal to maintain a clear airway and prevent complications.
The primary reason identified by the nurse for suctioning a client with a tracheostomy tube attached to a tracheostomy collar for the delivery of humidified oxygen is option 2: The tracheostomy tube interferes with effective coughing.
1. Suctioning is necessary to remove accumulated respiratory secretions that cannot be cleared effectively by coughing due to the presence of the tracheostomy tube.
2. The tracheostomy tube bypasses the upper airway, which normally helps to clear secretions through effective coughing.
3. Without the ability to cough effectively, secretions can accumulate in the lower airways and obstruct the air passage, leading to potential respiratory complications.
4. Suctioning helps to remove these secretions and maintain a clear airway, promoting effective gas exchange and reducing the risk of respiratory distress or infection.
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A nurse is caring for a client who has encephalitis due to West Nile virus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A nurse caring for a client with encephalitis due to the West Nile virus should take the following actions: Ensure proper hydration of the client.
Ensure respiratory support, as required. Monitor neurological status closely. Administer antipyretics, as prescribed by the physician. West Nile virus (WNV) is a mosquito-borne disease that can cause encephalitis (inflammation of the brain) or meningitis (inflammation of the lining of the brain and spinal cord). Encephalitis due to West Nile virus can be life-threatening and can result in long-term complications such as paralysis, memory loss, and seizures. Treatment of West Nile virus consists of supportive care such as proper hydration and respiratory support, as required. Antipyretics are also administered as prescribed by the physician to lower the patient's fever. Additionally, neurological status is monitored closely to identify any changes in mental status or motor function.
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Why do you think we don't have oil glands on the palms of our hands and soles of our feet?
In the palms of our hand sand soles, there is no sebaceous gland, therefore, it does not secrete oil and these glands are spread over throughout the body.
What are sebaceous glands?Except for the palms of the hands and soles of the feet, sebaceous glands are found throughout the skin. Sebum is an oily material made, the body is covered in glands the scalp and face have most of them.
The bulk of lipids on the skin's surface is provided by the sebaceous gland through the production of sebum, which keeps moisture in and prevents the skin from drying out.
Sebum primarily escapes onto the skin's surface via a wicking motion involving the hair shaft because sebaceous glands drain into the hair canal.
Therefore sebaceous glands secrete oil and are present in the entire body except for the palms and soles of our feet.
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Which of the following shows the correct relationship among the epidemiology terms listed?
- mortality > incidence > prevalence
- incidence > prevalence > mortality
- prevalence > incidence > mortality
- mortality > morbidity > prevalence
The correct relationship among the epidemiology terms listed is: incidence > prevalence > mortality. Incidence represents new cases of a disease, prevalence represents the total number of cases, and mortality represents the deaths caused by the disease. Incidence contributes to the prevalence, and mortality is a subset of prevalence.
The correct relationship among the epidemiology terms listed is: incidence > prevalence > mortality.
Incidence refers to the number of new cases of a disease or health condition within a specific population over a given period. It represents the rate at which new cases occur and provides information about the risk of developing the condition.
Prevalence, on the other hand, refers to the total number of cases of a disease or health condition present in a population at a given point in time. It includes both new and existing cases and provides a measure of the burden of the condition in the population.
Mortality refers to the number of deaths caused by a particular disease or health condition within a specific population and time period.
It represents the outcome of the condition and provides information about the severity and impact on survival.
The relationship among these terms is such that incidence precedes prevalence because new cases contribute to the overall prevalence. Prevalence, in turn, includes both incident cases and existing cases.
Finally, mortality is a subset of prevalence as it represents the ultimate outcome of the disease, specifically the deaths that occur among the prevalent cases.
Therefore, the correct relationship is incidence > prevalence > mortality.
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what 2 aspects of echocerdiography are more reproducible in 4d echo imaging over 2d
The two aspects of echocardiography that are more reproducible in 4D echo imaging over 2D are left ventricular volume and systolic function.
What is echocardiography?Echocardiography is a diagnostic technique that uses ultrasound echoing to measure the functioning of the heart.
The instrument used is called an echocardiogram and the results of an echocardiogram can be obtained in either 2D, 3D, or 4D.
2D echocardiography imaging only produces images
4D echocardiography produces live video feeds about the functioning of the heart.
Hence, results produced by 4D echocardiography are more accurate and reproducible.
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Tommy Anderson, a 5-year-old patient, is seen in the office because of an outbreak of impetigo. Rose must apply the concepts of the chain of the infection and infection control methods to teach Tommy and his mother how to prevent the spread of the infection to other members of the family. What procedures should she follow after Tommy's visit to prevent the spread of the infection to other patients, other staff, and herself?
Answer:
The procedures Rose must follow after Tommy's visit to prevent the spread of the infection to other patients, other staff, and herself includes:
1. She should disinfect the area to avoid other children who are at greater risk or adults from contracting the infection.
2. She should wash everything including surfaces that Tommy came into contact with in hot water.
3. Other patients with skin cuts, should have it treated or bandaged. Since a case has been registered, preventing the infection from spreading should now be the goal.
4. Population of the hospital should be reduced because the infection spreads faster in a congested environment.
5. Rose should wash her hands with soap and water and encourage other staff and patients to do the same.
6. Rose should ensure bed linens and clothing Tommy came in contact with her changed.
Explanation:
Impetigo is an infection of the skin caused by bacteria infestation on a broken or skin that is exposed through cuts. It is contagious hence need to avoid close contact with an infected person and avoid sharing their personal items like clothes. Depending on the type of impetigo, an infected person usually have reddish sores and blisters. Good hygiene, avoiding exposure to cuts or wounds on the skin could help prevent contracting impetigo, however, antibiotics are used to treat the infection
Which of the following is NOT a symptom of respiratory problems?
A. infections
B. chemical burns
C. chronic back pain
D. coughing
Answer:
DExplanation:
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the complication which is not likely to result from a compound, transverse fracture of the tibia and fibula is
The complication which is not likely to result from a compound is air embolus.
Compound (or open) fractures are while the bone both punctures the pores and skin or in any other case may be visible out of doors the body. The maximum not unusualplace reasons of compound fractures are falls, accidents, overuse, and osteoporosis. Osteomalacia describes a ailment of "bone softening" in adults this is typically because of extended deficiency of vitamin D. This effects in extraordinary osteoid mineralization. Infection. This is the maximum not unusualplace difficulty of open fractures. Infection is the end result of micro organism getting into the wound on the time of the injury. Infection can arise early on in the course of restoration or a lot later after each the wound and fracture have healed.
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Which of the following best describes the electrolytes that are dissolved in
blood?
Answer:That substances give when dissolved in water are called electrolytes.
Explanation:Substances give when dissolved and divided into acids,salts and they are dissolved in water.
Electrolytes are the dissolved the combination blood and the coordinates all the functions.
Electrolytes are the balance is crucial to the many functions of bloods.
Electrolytes and decreased plasma and magnesium can muscle spasms the extremities.
Question 2 of 54
return to overview
nitroprusside sodium (nipride) 50 mg is mixed in
dsw.250 ml. the nurse plans to administer the
solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/minute to a client
weighing 182 pounds. using a drip factor of 60
gtt/ml, how many drops per minute should the
nurse regulate the infusion?
31 gtt/min.
single answer
to answer this item,
choose a single
answer.
62 gtt/min.
93 gtt/min.
124 gtt/min.
submit
Answer:
124 ggt/min
Explanation:
50 mg = 50 000 mcg
50 000 mcg / 250 ml = 200 mcg/ml
182 pounds = 82.55 kg
5 mcg / kg/ min * 82.55 kg = 412.75 mcg/min
412.75/200 = 2.06 ml/min
2.06 ml/min * 60 ggt/ml = 123 ggt / min ~~~ 124
What are the first signs of cirrhosis of the liver.
Answers are all implementations. Determine the outcome of each
answer choice. Is it desired?
(1) correct-hypokalemia is not expected after this surgery
(2) used to treat tetany resulting from possible damage to parathyroid glands
(3) essential equipment to provide for airway
(4) needed to maintain a patent airway
It seems that you have four answer choices related to a medical situation and you'd like to know the outcome of each choice and whether it's desired.
1) Correct - Hypokalemia is not expected after this surgery: This outcome is desired, as hypokalemia (low potassium levels in the blood) can lead to complications such as muscle weakness and heart arrhythmias. The absence of hypokalemia after surgery is a positive result.
2) Used to treat tetany resulting from possible damage to parathyroid glands: This is a desired outcome because treating tetany (involuntary muscle contractions) is important in cases where the parathyroid glands are damaged. Damaged parathyroid glands can cause an imbalance in calcium levels, leading to tetany, which needs to be addressed to prevent complications.
3) Essential equipment to provide for airway: Ensuring the availability of essential equipment to maintain a patent airway is a desired outcome. This ensures that the patient can breathe properly during and after the procedure, preventing respiratory complications and ensuring patient safety.
4) Needed to maintain a patent airway: This is a desired outcome, as maintaining a patent airway ensures that the patient can breathe properly during and after the procedure. Proper airway management is crucial for patient safety and preventing complications related to oxygenation and ventilation.
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Identify an assessment tool (instrument) used in clinical practice (ex. pain, fall, wound stage, depression; tympanic thermometer, bed scale). Search the literature (no older than 7 yrs) to find validity and reliability statistics supporting the use of the selected tool. Based on your findings, how valid and reliable do you believe the tool is for your patient population?
The assessment tool that has been selected for clinical practice is the 'Tympanic Thermometer'.
To find validity and reliability statistics supporting the use of the Tympanic Thermometer in clinical practice, a search has been performed in the literature. According to the literature, it has been found that the Tympanic Thermometer is an accurate and reliable tool for the measurement of body temperature in the patient population.
In fact, a study was conducted in 2015 to determine the reliability of the Tympanic Thermometer in neonatal populations.The study involved 150 infants who were assessed with both Tympanic Thermometer and rectal thermometer. The findings of the study showed that the Tympanic Thermometer is an accurate and reliable tool for the measurement of body temperature in neonatal populations.
The results of the study showed that there was no significant difference between the two methods of temperature measurement, which suggests that the Tympanic Thermometer is a reliable tool for the measurement of body temperature.
Therefore, based on the findings of the literature, it can be concluded that the Tympanic Thermometer is a valid and reliable tool for the measurement of body temperature in the patient population.
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preindopril mechanism of action ?
Answer:
inhibition of ACE activity.
Explanation:
The mechanism through which perindoprilat lowers blood pressure. ACE is a peptidyl dipeptidase that catalyzes conversion of the inactive decapepetide, angiotensin i, to the vasoconstrictor, angiotensin ii.
Perindopril, and generally any medication ending in the suffix -pril, is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, meaning its mechanism of action is to block the conversion of blood hormone angiotensin 1 to vasoconstricting blood hormone angiotension 2, as well as increase increase plasma levels of enzyme renin and reduce levels of aldosterone, with the goal of causing systemic vasodilation which leads to a decrease in blood pressure in those with hypertension (HTN) and decreased risk of death from cardiovascular events in patients with coronary artery disease (CAD).