Answers
Being able to walk safely, Knowledge of post-operative care,* Vital sign assessment, When a patient initially enters the post-anesthesia care unit, checking surgical wounds is a priority examination.
The same as sleeping, is anesthesia?Research has revealed that being under anesthesia is just nothing like sleeping, despite the fact that doctors frequently claim that you will be dozing off during surgery. Brown asserts, "We can rouse you up even in the deepest sleep stages with prodding and poking.
What negative effects does anesthesia have?Following are examples of general anesthesia side effects: Vomiting and nausea This extremely frequent side effect may appear within the first hours or days following surgery and may be brought on by a number of things, including the medicine, mobility, and the kind of operation.
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Related Questions
Which of the following patient instructions would not immediately follow a surgical dental procedure?
Answers
The answer to the task given above about a client instructions which would not immediately follow a surgical dental procedure is bed rest
The correct answer choice is option a.
Why resting on bed would not be followed by dental procedureFrom the task given above, such as chewing exercise requires a dentist to perform certain assessment. But when a patient is on bed rest, it does not necessarily means that a dental surgical procedure would be observed as dental procedure and assessment can be done even while standing or in a sitting position.
So therefore, it can be deduced that a patient in a hospital bed rest is not an instruction which is immediately after a dental process.
Complete question:
Which of the following patient instructions would not immediately follow a surgical dental procedure?
a. Bed rest
b. Chewing exercises
c. Taking an antibiotic
d. Clear liquid diet.
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Which of the following statements about basal metabolic rate (BMR) is correct?
a.The greater a person's age, the higher BMR
b. The more thyroxine produced, the higher BMR.
c. Fever lowers the BMR
d. Pregnancy lowers BMR
Answers
The statements about the basal metabolic rate (BMR) is correct is b. The more thyroxine produced, the higher BMR.
A person's basal metabolic rate (BMR) is total number of calories their body burns while doing its essential life-sustaining tasks. The thyroid gland produces the hormone thyroxine, which is essential for controlling metabolism. It raises the metabolic rate of cells all over the body, which raises BMR. Numerous metabolic functions, such as the digestion of food and the creation of energy, are stimulated by thyroxine.
Further, the BMR of an individual tends to decline with age. This is due to fact that ageing is linked to a decline in metabolic activity and muscle mass. The BMR is actually increased by fever. The body's metabolic rate speeds up when a person has a fever because they need more energy to fight off an infection or inflammation.
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you admitted a patient with hypotensive crisis with the following data and doctors
patient juan dela cruz 45 years old NGT for gavage feeding every 4 hours
With indwelling foley catheter for urine output monitoring
6:30 a.m. clients vs bp =70/40 rr = 15 pr = 59 o2sat = 98%
doctor's order fluid regimen
R hand start ivf off d5lrs 1 liter to run 48 hours using macro set with slide drift of levophed to ampules + 96 cc of pnss x 15 ugtts per minute
second line le start ivf pnss 1 l x 10 gttsper minute start blood transfusion of two unit prbc once available properly type and crossmatch
you receive the patient at exactly 7:00 a.m. and started the fluid regimen
8:00 a.m. started gavage feeding of 1 glass osterized feeding with 1/2 glass of plain water to dilute the feeding
8:00 a.m. urine output
8:30 a.m. pack rbc for blood transfusion available
9:00 a.m. started blood transfusion with 250 ml of 1 unit prbc to run for 4 hours no reactions noted
12:00 noon next feeding do but the patient was restless was not available to give the full feeding remaining half glass was discarded
1:00 p.m. urine collected is 200ml
1:30 p.m. finish one prbc, hooked 2nd prbc with same rate
3:00 p.m. no urine output recorded
End of Shift
instruction complete the intake and output form every two hours
Answers
Answer:
8
Explanation:
instruction the intake and output
Chronic migraine sufferers should
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Answer:
People who suffer from chronic migraines should consult their doctor to get their opinion and a potential diagnosis. Migraine can be formed by pinched nerves, stress, or a potential disorder. If you have a migrain, in order to self treat it you should lay down in a dark room with a cool rag over your eyes. Too much movement can cause dizziness and in worse cases hallucinations.
1. At approximately what date in history was childhood seen as separate from adult life?
A. 1800
B. 1870
C. 1600
D. 1930
Answers
According to Clevette and colleagues, examples of unsafe, common disciplinary actions reviewed by boards of nursing include all of the following EXCEPT
Answers
Failure to implement safeguards to ensure patient confidentiality of patients protected health information aren't reviewed by boards of nursing.
Who is a Nurse?This is a healthcare professional who is involved in taking care of the patient so as to ensure quick recovery.
The nursing board deals with approval of nursing programs and also issues which may arise from direct relationship with the patient such as abuse so as to ensure the best hands are in the job.
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Which of the following are ways in which masks help prevent the spread of 5 points
viruses? (Select all that apply.) *
A Masks catch respiratory droplets before they evaporate, preventing them from
becoming microdroplets that can be easily carried through the air.
B. Masks reroute droplets to the sides of a person's face.
C. Masks reduce the momentum of droplets they don't catch.
D. Masks prevent us from breathing as deeply, making us produce fewer droplets.
Answers
suppose jill, also being treated for skin cancer, received the same absorbed dose, but from an electron beam (beta particles) with an rbe of 1.3. what dose equivalent did she receive?
Answers
Jill, who is being treated for skin cancer, received the same absorbed dose but from an electron beam (beta particles) with an rbe of 1.3. Therefore, to determine the dose equivalent that she received, we use the formula: Equivalent Dose (Sv) = Absorbed Dose (Gy) x Quality Factor (QF)
As a result, we have:Equiv. Dose (Sv) = Absorbed Dose (Gy) x Quality Factor (QF)Equiv. Dose (Sv) = Absorbed Dose (Gy) x 1.3The quality factor (QF) is utilized to convert absorbed dose into equivalent dose. Because the electron beam has an RBE of 1.3, the quality factor (QF) is 1.3.The absorbed dose is the same for Jill, and it is 3.5 Gy.Using the formula above, we get;Equiv. Dose (Sv) = Absorbed Dose (Gy) x Quality Factor (QF)Equiv. Dose (Sv) = 3.5 Gy x 1.3Equiv. Dose (Sv) = 4.55 Sv
The biological efficiency of the radiation is quantified using the relative biological effectiveness (RBE), which measures the effectiveness of the radiation in producing a biological effect when compared to another radiation type. In a nutshell, the RBE is the ratio of the dose of radiation required to produce a specific biological effect utilizing the reference radiation (usually X-rays or gamma rays) to the dose of radiation required to produce the same effect using the test radiation (the radiation type being assessed).
The Quality Factor (QF) is utilized to convert absorbed dose into equivalent dose. QF varies depending on the type of radiation. For beta particles or electrons, the QF is 1. This implies that if an individual were exposed to 1 Gy of beta radiation, the equivalent dose would be 1 Sv. The QF for beta radiation is utilized to compare biological efficiency, whereas the RBE is utilized to compare the effectiveness of one radiation type to another in producing a biological effect.
In conclusion, Jill received an equivalent dose of 4.55 Sv after being treated with an electron beam with an RBE of 1.3, and the QF is 1.3.
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what do behavior therapists see as the cause of abnormal or undesirable behaviors?
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Edyn is preparing for an athletic competition at her high school. She wants to do well in the competition. She will have two weeks to prepare.Explain how each of the following might hinder Edyn from preparing for the athletic competition.
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The following factors might hinder Edyn from preparing for the athletic competition: Stress from academics and other commitments Inadequate sleep Inadequate nutrition
Edyn's main focus should be preparing for the athletic competition since she wants to do well in it. However, several factors may hinder her preparation process. Below are some of these factors:Stress from academics and other commitments: Edyn might have other commitments such as academic work that could hinder her preparation. For example, if she has several assignments to complete, she might be forced to dedicate her time to academic work, which would limit her preparation time.
Inadequate sleep: Edyn might not be able to get adequate sleep since she has to dedicate time to preparing for the athletic competition. This could result in her being tired, which would affect her athletic performance. Adequate sleep is essential since it helps the body rest and recover from the strain of training.
Inadequate nutrition: Adequate nutrition is essential for anyone who engages in physical activity. If Edyn doesn't get adequate nutrition, she might become weak and unable to perform at her best during the competition. Furthermore, inadequate nutrition could lead to health problems, which would further hinder her preparation process.
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A hospital that focuses on providing treatment to a specific population is considered a: O Government run hospital O Religious organization run hospital Specialized hospital
Answers
Answer:
specialized hospital
Explanation:
they will treat a certain criteria of people.
a client with suspected renal dysfunction is scheduled for excretory urography. the nurse reviews his history for conditions that may warrant changes in client preparation. normally, the client should be mildly hypovolemic (fluid depleted) before excretory urography. which history finding calls for the client to be well hydrated?
Answers
A client with suspected renal dysfunction scheduled for excretory urography should be mildly hypovolemic before the procedure. However, there are certain conditions that could warrant changes to this protocol, and one of these is a history of diabetes. When a patient has a history of diabetes, it is important to ensure that they are well hydrated before the procedure. This is because diabetes can lead to dehydration, which can have negative impacts on the results of the excretory urography.
To ensure the client is well hydrated for the procedure, the nurse should ensure the patient has had plenty of fluids to drink in the days before the procedure. Additionally, the patient should be encouraged to continue drinking fluids until the procedure, and fluids should be made available during the procedure. This will help to ensure the patient has enough fluids to prevent dehydration during the procedure.
When preparing a patient with a history of diabetes for excretory urography, it is important to ensure they are well hydrated. This is because diabetes can lead to dehydration, which can affect the accuracy of the procedure results. To ensure the patient is well hydrated, they should have plenty of fluids before the procedure, and fluids should be made available during the procedure.
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A nurse is counselled for questioning a physician's order that made the physician mad. Which document best explains why the nurse was correct to question a physician's order that the nurse believed could be harmful to a patient
Answers
Answer:
a
Explanation:
A pregnant patient delivers twins at 30 weeks gestation. The first baby is delivered vaginally, but during this delivery, the second baby has turned into the transverse position during labor. The decision is made to perform a cesarean to deliver the second baby. The OB physician who performed the delivery also performed the prenatal care. The standard coding for this is
Answers
The standard coding for the delivery of the twin patients is 59409, 59410, and 59510.
The delivery of multiple fetuses is coded as a single unit and not separately when the delivery occurs during the same encounter. When the delivery occurs through cesarean section and with multiple fetuses, code 59510 is used once for the delivery, and the delivery of the additional fetus is coded with 59409 or 59410, depending on the method of delivery for the first fetus. The delivery of the first baby is coded with the appropriate delivery code based on whether it was vaginal delivery or cesarean delivery. The patient was at 30 weeks gestation, which is considered premature birth. A premature birth involves the delivery of the baby before the 37th week of pregnancy.
The standard coding for the premature birth is 644.2x. The xx in the code should be replaced with the appropriate number based on the gestational age of the baby at the time of delivery. For instance, a premature birth that occurs at 30 weeks gestation is coded as 644.20.In conclusion, when a pregnant patient delivers twins at 30 weeks gestation, the appropriate coding for the delivery depends on the method of delivery for each fetus and the gestational age of the fetus at the time of delivery. The standard coding for the delivery is 59409, 59410, and 59510, while the standard coding for the premature birth is 644.2x.
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An infertile couple seeks the assistance of a clinic when they are unable to conceive a child. Through in vitro fertilization, (IVF), their dream is realized when they give birth to a baby girl. After some time passes, the baby's features appear to be Asian (the couple is white). Their worst nightmare begins when they learn that the husband is not the biological father of the child. The clinic is ordered to reveal the identity of all donors who could potentially be the father of the child. Whose rights are superior? the child, the mother, the unknown father? As a malpractice case, how do you begin to assess damages?
Answers
1. Rights of the Child: The rights of the child should be a primary concern in such cases. The child has the right to know their genetic identity and biological origins, as this information can be crucial for their well-being and understanding of their own identity. Establishing the truth about their parentage can have significant emotional, psychological, and medical implications for the child. Therefore, the child's rights to genetic information and the truth about their parentage may be considered paramount.
2. Rights of the Mother: The mother's rights may include the right to privacy and reproductive autonomy. However, in a case where there is a discrepancy between the intended father and the biological father, these rights may be weighed against the child's right to know their genetic identity. The extent of the mother's rights and the legal obligations towards disclosing the information can vary based on local laws and specific contractual agreements between the parents and the IVF clinic.
3. Rights of the Unknown Father: The rights of the unknown biological father may also come into consideration. However, since the identity of the biological father is typically unknown, it may be challenging to assess or protect his specific rights. The focus is often on the rights of the child and the legal obligations of the IVF clinic to provide the necessary information to establish the child's parentage accurately.
Assessing damages in a malpractice case related to IVF can involve a variety of factors, such as emotional distress, psychological harm, breach of contract, professional negligence, and any associated medical costs. Legal experts specializing in family law or medical malpractice would typically be involved in evaluating the specific circumstances of the case, the applicable laws, and determining the appropriate course of action for assessing damages.
It is crucial to consult with a legal professional who specializes in reproductive law, family law, or medical malpractice to understand the specific legal principles and regulations that apply to the jurisdiction where the case is being considered. They can provide accurate and tailored advice based on the relevant laws and precedents in that jurisdiction.
The accounting system is automatically set up when you enter patient information into a record if you use an BLANK system.
O computerized
O manual
O pegboard
O enterprise-wide
Answers
Answer:
pegboard
Explanation:
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which is a nursing procedure that measures the amount of urine produced and the amount of fluid taken in by a patient? group of answer choices i&o c&s bun sp gr
Answers
I&O monitoring is a nursing technique that measures fluid intake and urine output and is crucial for ensuring fluid balance and spotting any changes. I&O is unrelated to C&S, BUN, and sp gr.
What is the process through which the urinary tract is examined?A cystoscope is a long, thin optical device comprising a rigid or flexible tube in the middle, an eyepiece at one end, and a small lens and light at the other end.
How is the capacity of the urine bladder measured?A cystometric test, also known as a cystometrogram, measures the pressure inside your bladder using catheters. The test can determine your bladder's capacity, its elasticity.
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five different types of white blood cells of the immune system
Answers
Watch on TV an amateur or professional sport entertainment event- for example, a university basketball, volleyball, softball or football game or a professional baseball, basketball, softball or football game. What evidence do you see of event management, financial management, human resource management, risk and legal management, marketing management, public relations management and program management? What evidence do you see that these position focus on encouraging spectating more than actual participation in sport? (150 words)
Answers
Sports events whether they are amateur or professional require management for a successful and well-executed event. Several factors go into managing such events to ensure they run smoothly and are successful.
The following are various types of management in sport event management and evidence seen of each: Financial management: This type of management involves managing the finances of the event. It includes budgeting, fundraising, and accounting to ensure the resources needed for the event are available.
Evidence of financial management can be seen in sports events where sponsors are involved in providing funds or advertisements in the event. This can be seen by banners with sponsor names or logos and advertisements during breaks in the event.
Program management: Program management includes organizing and implementing the activities of the event. Evidence of program management can be seen in sports events by observing the various activities and performances taking place during the event. For example, halftime shows, cheerleading, or presentations. Risk and legal management:
This type of management involves minimizing legal liability and managing any potential risks during the event.
Evidence of this can be seen in sports events where security personnel are present to prevent any incidents from occurring.Human resource management: This type of management focuses on managing the people involved in the event. Evidence of this can be seen in sports events where staff and volunteers are present to ensure the smooth running of the event. Marketing management: This type of management focuses on promoting and advertising the event to attract spectators. Evidence of this can be seen in sports events where tickets are sold, advertisements are present in the media, and promotional activities are carried out. Public relations management:
This type of management involves managing the relationship between the public and the event.
Evidence of this can be seen in sports events where news reports, media coverage, and social media are used to promote the event.Finally, most of the positions mentioned above focus more on encouraging spectating rather than actual participation in sport. This is evident because most of the activities carried out in sports events are geared towards encouraging people to come and watch the event rather than participate.
This includes promotional activities, ticket sales, and the inclusion of halftime shows, cheerleading, and presentations.
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Mart Beth's sense of belonging and trust have been shaken since her second divorce. She is most often late for appointments and is very impulsive. What is Mary Beth's focus?
Answers
Answer:
Present time focus
Explanation:
Present-focused people are the people who are well known and focused on current life situations. They regularly find the activities, and relationship to get pleasures.
They have strong believe that if they involved in activities that give them spontaneous gratification, temporary payoffs.
So, The basic difference between the present and past focused people is that the past focused people are always thinking about their condition and experiences of the past.
The physician has ordered Ceclor (cefaclor) 250 mg. On hand you have liquid that contains 500 mg/10 mL. How many mL will you give?
Answers
Answer:
5 mL=250 mL
Explanation: Is equal to250 mL
Which of the following statements is true? Multiple Choice An undercooked hamburger patty is the most likely source of giardia. In the United States, people rarely suffer from food-borne illnesses. A food's odor or appearance is not a reliable indicator of whether it's safe to eat. The United States Environmental Protection Agency is responsible for inspecting local restaurants and grocery stores to ensure they meet food safety standards.
Answers
Answer:
Giardiasis is an intestinal illness caused by infection with the parasite Giardia lamblia, which lives in contaminated water. Although the illness most often occurs in developing countries, giardiasis is also a common cause of waterborne illness in the United States. A person can remain infected with Giardia until the infection is diagnosed and treated. In developing areas of the world, it is common for more than 20% of a country's population to have ongoing Giardia infection. In the United States, only 1 or 2 out of every 10,000 people have Giardia in a typical year, but the infection is found in about 1 out of 3 people who have prolonged diarrhea symptoms if they have recently traveled to a developing country.
Explanation:
what is the best position for examining rectum ?
Answers
How did john watson have different view from sigmund freud
Answers
Explanation:
John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism.
Freud incorporated the concept of the unconscious to explain transference. Watson understood and was intrigued by Freud's definition of sexual transference, but he was searching for an explanation of transference that did not involve the unconscious (Watson & Morgan, 1917)
Answer:
John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism. After failing to explain psychoanalysis in terms of William James's concept of habit, Watson borrowed concepts from classical conditioning to explain Freud's discoveries. Watson's famous experiment with Little Albert is interpreted not only in the context of Pavlovian conditioning but also as a psychoanalytically inspired attempt to capture simplified analogues of adult phobic behavior, including the "transference" of emotion in an infant. Watson used his behavioristic concept of conditioned emotional responses to compete with Freud's concepts of displacement and the unconscious transference of emotion. Behind a mask of anti-Freudian bias, Watson surprisingly emerges as a psychologist who popularized Freud and pioneered the scientific appraisal of his ideas in the laboratory.
Explanation:
set as brainliest
a 74-year-old woman complains of heaviness in her chest, nausea, and sweating that suddenly began about an hour ago. she is conscious and alert, but anxious. her blood pressure is 144/84 mm hg and her heart rate is 110 beats/min. she took two of her prescribed nitroglycerin (0.4-mg tablets) before your arrival but still feels heaviness in her chest. you should: a. recall that geriatric patients often take multiple medications and that interactions can occur with potentially negative effects. b. give her high-flow oxygen, avoid giving her any more nitroglycerin because it may cause a drop in her blood pressure, and transport. c. transport her at once and wait at least 20 minutes before you consider assisting her with a third dose of her prescribed nitroglycerin. d. assist her in taking one more of her nitroglycerin tablets, reassess her blood pressure, and contact medical control for further instructions.
Answers
You should keep in mind that older people frequently have slower absorption and excretion rates, which may call for adjusting a drug's dosage. Therefore, choice A is the right response.
Because they may be dealing with many illnesses or other health issues concurrently, adults 65 and older typically take more medications than adults in any other age group. For people who are confined to their homes or reside in remote places, managing various prescriptions can be costly, time-consuming, and challenging.
The existence of a concomitant condition, which is typical in the elderly, can also impact renal function. Older patients may need lower or less frequent dosages due to reduced medication clearance caused by decreased renal function.
We can therefore draw the conclusion that You should be aware of the fact that older individuals typically have slower rates of absorption and excretion, which may necessitate changing a drug's dosage.
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Medical ethics involves rules that are __________, rather than __________.
Answers
What type of medical equipment is used by Heathprofessionals to access an electronic medical record
Answers
Answer:
:)
Explanation:
EHR systems in healthcare
An electronic health record (EHR) is the systematized collection of patient and population electronically stored health information in a digital format. These records can be shared across different health care settings. ... EHR systems are designed to store data accurately and to capture the state of a patient across time.
Which organ controls the pituitary gland by producing chemicals that either stimulate or suppress hormone secretions by the pituitary gland? A. cerebrum B. thalamus C. cerebellum D. hypothalamus
Answers
Answer D
Nerve cells in the hypothalamus control the pituitary gland by producing chemicals that either stimulate or suppress hormone secretions from the pituitary.
A COTA® is preparing a client with T1 spinal cord injury for discharge to home alone. What is the BEST recommendation for required home assistance?
Answers
Answer:
A. Homemaking assistance for a few hours a daily
B. Attendant care 24 hours a day
C. Attendant care 12 hours a day
D. Homemaking assistance for several hours daily
The answer is D. Homemaking assistance for several hours daily
COTA® preparing a client with T1 spinal cord injury for discharge to home alone can choose to employ the use of BEST recommendation for required home assistance such as Homemaking assistance for several hours daily due to ensuring a degree of independence.
which information would the nurse include when education a patient about measures for treating insomnia
Answers
When educating a patient about measures for treating insomnia, the nurse would include the following information. Insomnia is a sleep disorder characterized by difficulty falling asleep or staying asleep or waking up too early and not being able to go back to sleep.
Individuals with insomnia are likely to wake up unrefreshed and feeling tired.The following are the measures to treat insomnia:Medications- Sleeping pills may be recommended by your doctor. Non-benzodiazepine sedative-hypnotics, benzodiazepine receptor agonists, and melatonin receptor agonists are among the most common insomnia medications.Sleep hygiene- Patients are encouraged to practice good sleep hygiene habits, such as avoiding caffeine, heavy meals, and nicotine before bedtime. It is also important to establish a bedtime routine.
Exercise- Exercise is one of the most effective ways to combat insomnia. Daily exercise, such as jogging or brisk walking, can help you sleep better.Behavioral Therapy- This is one of the most effective treatments for insomnia. Patients learn how to avoid activities that may lead to insomnia or awakenings during the night. This method is extremely beneficial in avoiding the need for medication.
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