A patient was in a car wreck and lost control over his left leg and left arm. He is admitted to a restorative care facility. In therapy, he is working on walking with a walker and strengthening his right arm. The nursing assistant suggests he participate in the bingo game at the care facility. She suggests that he brush his hair before going and places the brush in his right hand. The nursing assistant gives him his walker and leaves to attend other patients.

Which restorative care principle could the nursing assistant improve upon?

promote mobility
emphasize ability
prevent further disability
treat the whole person

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

promote mobility

Explanation:


Related Questions

What is another term for myocardial infarction?

An arrhythmia

A heart attack

Varicose veins

Sleep apnea

Answers

Another name for a myocardial infarction is a heart attack.

heart attack is the answer

Felice's doctor has determined that her blood is not clotting easily enough. Which type of drug would MOST LIKELY be prescribed to help Felice's blood form clots?

a. a thrombolytic
b. a hemostatic drug
c. an anticoagulant drug
d. an antibiotic drug

Answers

Answer:

The answer correct Aaaaaa

what are some key elements of the social model of
care?

Answers

Explanation:

1. know your loved one or client:Be aware of their lives preference and desire

2. Communicate for success

The social model of care focuses on addressing systemic barriers and promoting a society that values diversity, inclusion, and social justice. It aims to empower individuals and promote their rights, dignity, and quality of life within their social context.

Some key elements of the social model of care include:

Social inclusion: Fostering a sense of belonging and actively including individuals in all aspects of society, irrespective of their abilities or disabilities. This involves promoting equal opportunities and challenging discrimination and social barriers.Person-centered approach: Placing the person at the center of care, acknowledging their autonomy, preferences, and choices. It emphasizes the importance of involving individuals in decision-making processes and tailoring care to their specific needs and goals.Collaboration and participation: Encouraging active involvement and collaboration between individuals, their families, caregivers, and the wider community. It recognizes the value of collective efforts and partnerships in providing holistic care and support.Access to support services and resources: Ensuring equitable access to necessary support services, resources, and accommodations. This includes physical accessibility, assistive technologies, communication aids, and appropriate healthcare and rehabilitation services.Social and environmental factors: Recognizing the impact of social, cultural, and environmental factors on individuals' well-being. This includes addressing social determinants of health, promoting social cohesion, and creating inclusive environments that enable individuals to fully participate in society.

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Which core discipline within public health is the science of analyzing health data and interpreting the results so they can be applied to solving public health problems

Answers

Biostatistics is the science of analyzing health data and interpreting the results so they can be applied to solving public health problems.

What are the core public health disciplines?

The core public health disciplines are

BiostatisticsEpidemiologyHealth policyManagementSocialBehavioral sciences and Environmental health sciences.

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Where should an SDS binder be kept?

Answers

Explanation:

Stored in a location that all staff can access during work hours.

Answer:

in a work room

Explanation:

not too far away from where it's needed

A 50-year-old male patient arrives in the emergency department complaining of severe chest pain. He is taken to the cardiac cath lab for a coronary angiogram and left ventriculogram. The cardiologist discovers a lesion in the left main coronary artery branch and orders an immediate CABG. Why does the location of this lesion make it more dangerous than lesions in other locations?

Answers

Answer:

The LAD supplies a significant area of the heart. If this are of the heart dies the patient dies.

Explanation:

When the study of practice distribution refers to the length of the intertrial interval, one of the problems has been that researchers have generally failed to consider the relationship of the type of skill to the practice distribution effect. T/F

Answers

True. The study of practice distribution is concerned with how often practice sessions should be spaced out over time, and the length of the intertrial interval is a key factor in determining this.

However, one of the challenges in studying practice distribution is that researchers often overlook the impact of the type of skill being learned on the effectiveness of different practice schedules. For instance, some skills may require longer intervals between practice sessions, while others may benefit from more frequent practice. To fully understand the practice distribution effect, researchers must take into account the nature of the skill being learned and how it affects the optimal practice schedule.

To gain a more comprehensive understanding of practice distribution, it's crucial to consider the type of skill involved and how it may impact the outcomes.

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it is midday at the clinic and sarah......

Answers

Answer:

what do you need to do I don't understand it does not make sense

Answer:

wut happen to sarah -v-

what value of ldl-c is the break point between acceptable and high risk for heart disease?

Answers

The break point between acceptable and high risk for heart disease in terms of LDL-C levels can vary depending on a person's individual risk factors and medical history.

Generally, an LDL-C level below 100 mg/dL is considered optimal, while levels between 100-129 mg/dL are considered near optimal. LDL-C levels between 130-159 mg/dL are classified as borderline high, and levels above 160 mg/dL are considered high. However, it's important to note that LDL-C levels are just one factor in assessing an individual's risk for heart disease, and other factors such as age, family history, and lifestyle habits should also be taken into consideration when determining overall risk.
The breakpoint between acceptable and high risk for LDL-C (low-density lipoprotein cholesterol) levels in relation to heart disease varies depending on individual factors. Generally, an LDL-C level below 100 mg/dL is considered optimal, while levels between 100-129 mg/dL are near optimal or above. High risk begins at 160 mg/dL for LDL-C, and anything above 190 mg/dL is considered very high. However, it's important to consult with a healthcare professional for personalized advice based on one's overall health and medical history. Maintaining a healthy lifestyle, including diet and exercise, is crucial for reducing heart disease risk.

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When caring for a trauma patient a principle is what is necessary for patient improvement or survival. A preference is how the principle is achieved and depends upon four factors. The factors used to accomplish the preference in treating the patient include all except:
a. Condition of the patient
b. Equipment available
c. Situation that exists
d. Research information

Answers

When caring for a trauma patient a principle is what is necessary for patient improvement or survival. A preference is how the principle is achieved and depends upon four factors. The factors used to accomplish the preference in treating the patient include all except research information. Therefore, option d is the correct answer.

What is a Trauma Patient?

A trauma patient is someone who has suffered a serious injury. This injury could be physical or psychological. Trauma patients may require medical attention to keep them alive and help them recover.

What are the four factors used to accomplish the preference in treating a trauma patient?

The four factors used to accomplish the preference in treating a trauma patient include:

1. Condition of the patient

2. Equipment available

3. Situation that exists

4. Preference of the medical professional treating the patient

A preference is how the principle is achieved and depends upon four factors when caring for a trauma patient. The factors used to accomplish the preference in treating the patient include condition of the patient, equipment available, situation that exists, and preference of the medical professional treating the patient. Research information is not included as one of the factors.

Hence, the answer is option D.

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1. A 10 year old, 85.21b FS labrador presented to the hospital. Cephalexin was given as a
prophylactic antibiotic at a dosage of 10-15 mg/lb PO Q8 hours x 10 d. Find the
Cephalexin bottles. Which bottle will you choose? How many capsules you will send
home with the client?
Cephalexin comes in 100mg tablets, 250 mg capsules & 500mg capsules

Answers

Answer:

2556.3-3834.45 miligram we should give in 24h

approximately 5to 7 capsules cephalexin

Select the correct answer.
Dr. Smith and Dr. Walters are leading a team in charge of deciding which new MRI equipment to purchase. They are helping build consensus. What
should be obtained when building consensus?

A. a deadline
B. a report
C. a compromise
D. a milestone
E. an option

Answers

According to the given statement a report should be obtained when building consensus.

What equipment is used in MRI?

Large, magnetized tubes make up the majority of MRI equipment. The magnetic field in an MRI scanner causes your body's water molecules to momentarily rearrange. These aligned atoms emit tiny signals that are utilized to make cross-sectional MRI pictures, which resemble the slices of bread.

What are the MRI's fundamental tenets and equipment?

Protons inside the body are forced to align with the magnetic field created by the strong magnets used in MRI machines. The protons are activated and spun out of equilibrium when a microwave current is pulsed through the person, which causes them to struggle against the magnetic field.

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What is the meaning of regurgitate ?

a. Thoroughly chew
b. Flow back
c. Seep into surrounding tissues
d. Cause extreme pain
e. Block a blood vessel

Answers

Answer:

B.Flow back

Explanation:

This answer is the closest to its original meaning of to regurgitate is to bring already swallowed food back up through one's throat and out the mouth. ... Then you're about to regurgitate all you've learned — repeat information verbatim without any real understanding or analysis of it.

B. flow back (re) gurgitate

A client drinks 250 mL of soup, 120 mL of tea, and 90 mL of water for lunch. The client's total liquid intake for lunch is:​

Answers

Answer:

460ML

Explanation:

250ML+120ML+90ML= 460ML

According to the scenario, the client's total liquid intake for lunch is 460mL.

What is the optimum liquid intake by an adult each day?

The optimum liquid intake by an adult each day ranges from 2.7 in females to 3.7 liters in males. It consists of about 15 to 20 cups per day as well. This liquid intake is the optimum which prevents medical conditions like dehydration, dryness, throat problem, etc.

According to the context of this question,

The amount of soup = 250mL.

The amount of tea = 120 mL.

The amount of water = 90 mL.

As all three are primarily liquids or fluids. So, by calculating them all, you will get the accurate amount of liquid intake.

∴ 250 + 120 + 90 = 460 mL.

Therefore, according to the scenario, the client's total liquid intake for lunch is 460 mL.

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What is the difference between a CBC and a CMP?

A. A CBC checks some components of major cells in the patients blood while a CMP test several different substances mainly metabolism, sugar, and kidney/liver health.

B. A CMP is for heart health testing the function of the arteries and valves while a CBC is a blood test for contents of blood.

C. There is no difference between a CBC and a CMP.

D. A CBC tests the functions of the arteries and valves while a CMP tests the function of different parts of the brain.

Answers

the answer is A.
A CMP is a more targeted test that evaluates sugar, metabolism,kidney, liver
A CBC is mainly the cells in the blood

Please round answers to the nearest tenth for the following questions. Thank you
1) Md. orders Colace 0.050mcg via Peg. Available is 100mg/15ml how many ml would you give per dose?
2) Ordered Budesonide 120mcg. Available is 0.3 mg/3ml. How many ml would you give?

Answers

To find the required volume in ml, divide the desired dose (0.050mcg) by the concentration (100mg/15ml), and then round the answer to the nearest tenth.

First, convert the desired dose from micrograms (mcg) to milligrams (mg) by dividing it by 1000 since there are 1000mcg in 1mg. Therefore, 0.050mcg becomes 0.00005mg. Next, divide the converted dose by the concentration, which is 100mg/15ml.

Using the formula:

Volume (ml) = (Desired Dose in mg) / Concentration (mg/ml)

Substituting the values:

Volume (ml) = 0.00005mg / (100mg/15ml)

Simplifying the expression:

Volume (ml) = (0.00005mg) * (15ml/100mg)

Volume (ml) = 0.0000075ml

Rounding to the nearest tenth, the appropriate dose of Colace via Peg would be approximately 0.0 ml.

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One of the main functions of tcells is to

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

producing cytokinesregulating immune response killing infected host cells

Which nursing’s actions are appropriate to the roles/responsibilities of the LPN/LVN?

Answers

Answer:

Uses active listening techniques when in- teracting with a depressed patient 2. Reports changes in vital signs to the health care provider in a timely fashion 3. Takes initiative to create a comprehensive care plan for a newly admitted patient 4. Ensures that the correct medication is giv- en to the correct patient at the correct time 5. Collects data from the patient, the family, and previous medical records

The 1 distribution is the transportation of a drug by the bloodstream to its site of action. The 2 absorption is the maximum therapeutic response of a drug. The 3 peak effect is the time it takes for a drug to reach minimum therapeutic level. The (4.) onset of action is the movement of drug from site of administration into the bloodstream.

Answers

The given statements can be matched to their correct terms as shown below:

Distribution of a drug by the bloodstream to its site of action is known as (1.) Pharmacokinetics. It is the study of the absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion of a drug.

Absorption is the process by which the drug enters the bloodstream from its site of administration. The maximum therapeutic response of a drug is called (2.) Bioavailability.

It is the proportion of a drug that enters the systemic circulation and produces a therapeutic effect.

PPeak effect is the time taken by a drug to reach its maximum therapeutic effect.

This is the point where the drug is most effective in treating a medical condition. (3.) Peak concentration is the maximum level of a drug in the bloodstream.

Onset of action is the time taken by a drug to produce a therapeutic effect after administration. It is the movement of the drug from the site of administration into the bloodstream. (4.) Absorption is the process that determines the onset of action of a drug.

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Avalie as afirmativas sobre a irrigação dos dentes: Escolha uma opção: a. As duas arcadas dentárias têm anastomoses com as artérias da face. b. As artérias lingual, bucal e facial fornecem a maior parte do sangue para os dentes. c. Os ramos interdentais ou peridentais penetram nos dentes pelo colo. d. Cada dente recebe apenas um ramo dental. e. Os dentes da arcada inferior recebem mais ramos arteriais que os da arcada superior.

Answers

ummm, i think this is the wrong subject haha..

In which of the following circumstances would a peripheral catheter be sufficient?
A. Dosing with ampicillin IV for a 4-day period
B. Continous central venous pressure measurement
C. Providing total parenteral nutrition for two days
D. Dosing with high osmility fluids

Answers

A  peripheral catheter would be sufficient in  Dosing with ampicillin IV for a 4-day period. Option A is the correct answer.

What is a peripheral catheter?

This refers to a thin, flexible tube that is infused into a vein. It is usually infused into the lower part of the arm or the back of the hand. It is used to administer intravenous fluids, blood transfusions, chemotherapy, and other drugs.

The Different Types of peripheral catheter

peripheral intravenous catheters (PIVC);midline catheters (MC);long peripheral catheters (LPC).

Ampicillin IV is an intravenous injection, hence the use of peripheral intravenous catheters (PIVC). Since the injection is lasting for 4 days the peripheral intravenous catheter is infused into the desired body part and allowed to stay for a period of 4 days.

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pls paki answer nito kailangan lang
NONSENSE(REPORT)​

pls paki answer nito kailangan langNONSENSE(REPORT)

Answers

I think the question is not full , it must be more than you put in the image because it’s not showing any type of medicines.

Vitamins a and d are unlikely to cause toxicities unless taken in amounts ___________ times greater than the dri.

Answers

Base on some findings, it is discovered that vitamins a and d are unlikely to cause toxicities unless taken in amounts 5 to 10  times greater than the RDA.

What are vitamins?

Vitamins are organic compounds that are gotten from plants which cannot be synthesized by the body but it is needed in small amount for body growth and wellness.

Vitamin A and D are fat soluble vitamins because they are soluble in organic solvent . The sources include potatoes, milk , spinach, cheese and so on. Vitamin A and D have low toxicities but if it is taken in large quantity greater than the daily requirement can be toxic to human health.

Therefore, fat soluble vitamin A and D can be toxic to human body if it is taken in large amount.

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Some research supports the claim that individuals with antisocial personality disorder may not exhibit the same increase in stress hormone levels when under stress as those without the disorder.
T or F

Answers

Answer:

The statement is true.

Explanation:

The results of the investigations carried out in relation to the link between cortisol secretion and personality reveal differences in the reported evidence. Some of this research indicates that personality traits or disorders play a relevant role in individual differences in the endocrine response to cortisol, both in its basal levels and in the face of stressful stimuli.The relationship between antisocial personality and cortisol levels has been described in several investigations. Among the most reported neuroendocrinological abnormalities in antisocial men is a decrease in cortisol secretion levels. In this regard, Moss, Vanyukov and Martin conducted a case control study comparing cortisol secretion in stressful situations in children between 10 and 12 years of age at risk of presenting aggressive and abusive behavior in adolescence based on their family history. The groups were formed in relation to the presence or absence of a family history of aggression and substance abuse, specifically in the parents. The results found showed that children had a higher risk of antisocial behavior, if their parents had a history of substance abuse and violent behavior, they had lower levels of cortisol secretion in stressful situations than children in the control group whose parents did not present these behaviors negative. The researchers argue that these results could be indicating that a lower increase in cortisol levels in the face of stressful situations could be a biological marker of future antisocial adolescents. Likewise, a longitudinal study with 38 school-age children who had symptoms of aggressive behavior (clinically reported), who were assessed for the circadian rhythm of cortisol in saliva during the second and fourth years of schooling; reported the relationship between the decrease in HPA axis activity and the presence of severe and persistent aggressive behaviors.

Answer:

true

Explanation:

Activity
Use the Internet to look for more information on psychological research. Write about a psychological study that you read or
learned about online. Cite the research method used in the study (observation, experiment, etc.).

Answers

Answer: Physical movement and energy

Explanation:

Which statement is true about a member of a Medicare advantage plan who wants to enroll in a Medicare supplement insurance plan?

Answers

Answer:

A member of a Medicare Advantage plan can enroll in a Medicare Supplement insurance plan, but they cannot use both plans at the same time. They must choose to enroll in either a Medicare Advantage plan or a Medicare Supplement insurance plan. Once they enroll in a Medicare Supplement insurance plan, they will be disenrolled from the Medicare Advantage plan. It's important to note that Medicare Advantage plans often include additional benefits, such as dental and vision coverage, that are not covered by Medicare Supplement plans. Therefore, before enrolling in a Medicare Supplement insurance plan, it's recommended to compare the benefits and costs of both options to determine which one is the best fit for the individual's healthcare needs and budget.

When a consumer enrolls in a Medicare Supplement Insurance Plan, he/she is not automatically disenrolled from his/her MA Plan.

The correct statement is: When a consumer enrolls in a Medicare Supplement Insurance Plan, he/she is not automatically disenrolled from his/her MA Plan.

Medicare Supplement Insurance Plans, also known as Medigap plans, are designed to work alongside Original Medicare (Parts A and B) to help cover certain out-of-pocket costs such as copayments, deductibles, and coinsurance. Medicare Supplement plans do not include prescription drug coverage, so beneficiaries may choose to enroll in a separate stand-alone Medicare Part D Prescription Drug Plan.

On the other hand, Medicare Advantage (MA) Plans, also known as Medicare Part C, are an alternative to Original Medicare and are offered by private insurance companies approved by Medicare. MA Plans provide all the benefits of Original Medicare, and many plans also include additional benefits like prescription drug coverage, dental, vision, and hearing services.

A member of an MA Plan can choose to switch to a Medicare Supplement Insurance Plan during certain enrollment periods, but doing so does not automatically disenroll them from their MA Plan. Enrolling in a Medicare Supplement plan means they will continue to be covered by Original Medicare and the new Medigap plan, but they will no longer receive the additional benefits provided by their MA Plan.

It's important for beneficiaries to carefully review their health care needs and coverage options before making any changes to their Medicare plan. It's also advisable to consult with a licensed insurance agent or Medicare counselor to ensure they understand the implications of their choices and select the most suitable coverage for their individual circumstances.

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The complete question is:

Which statement is true about a member of a Medicare Advantage (MA) Plan who wants to enroll in a Medicare Supplement Insurance Plan?

When a consumer enrolls in a Medicare Supplement Insurance Plan, he/she is automatically disenrolled from his/her MA Plan.A member does not need a valid election period to disenroll from an MA plan.When a consumer enrolls in a Medicare Supplement Insurance Plan, he/she is not automatically disenrolled from his/her MA Plan.A consumer can use a Medicare Supplement Insurance Plan and an MA Plan at the same time.

idk how to do this g:(((

idk how to do this g:(((

Answers

Answer:

Body's health is normal if the vital signs comes in the range.

Explanation:

If my vital sign data comes between in the range, so we can conclude that my body's health is good and is able to perform normal functions. If the pulse rate, respiration rate, temperature and blood pressure readings go lower from the minimum range and goes higher from the maximum range so it means that there is something not right in my body which disturbs the homeostasis of my body.

if 1200 mL is used to be infused at a rate of 100 mL/Hr, how long will last

Answers

Answer:

5hours

Explanation:

1,200 divide by 100 then the answer is 12 then divide to 60mins u got 5.

5hou:

1200/100=12÷60mins=5

Part II: Assignment 2 Task B: Look at the training Packet on Visual Desensitization. Describe how you could use this packet with a client who has a panic disorder when he is asked to give a verbal presentation which is something that is required weekly as part of his job description. You are to use ALL ( 10) steps I have discussed in the training packet. So be clear about what step you are discussing and systematically with lots of details walk me through how you would use this treatment to assist this clt with his panic disorder. You must use the training packet

Answers

Fortunately, with the aid of a combination of expert advice and self-help techniques, managing anxiety and leading a happy, fulfilling life are both feasible.

How can I become able to manage my anxiety?

The London Coma Scale may be used to determine the objective level of decreased consciousness in patients with all types of acute illnesses and trauma (GCS).

Patients are rated using the three components of responsiveness—eye opening, muscular reaction, and vocal response—on a scale. The skull safeguards the brain.

The bones that protect the brain, including cranium, are collectively referred to as the skull.

The spine and brain are covered and protected by the three-layered meninges, which are situated here between helmet and the brain.

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_______ are things which appear on the screen but which do not correspond to any real anatomy or pathology.

Answers

Artifacts are things that appear on the screen but do not correspond to any real anatomy or pathology.

Technical problems, patient mobility, equipment failures, or poor imaging procedures are only a few of the causes of artifacts. These anomalies may cause the genuine anatomical structures or clinical findings to be misinterpreted in the photographs by distorting or obscuring them. To ensure accurate diagnostic imaging, radiographers and other medical imaging specialists are educated to recognize and reduce artifacts.

Image noise, motion blur, beam hardening, aliasing, and equipment-related artifacts like grid lines or ring artifacts are examples of common types of artifacts. Maintaining picture quality and increasing the precision of medical diagnosis requires an understanding of the ability to recognize artifacts.

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What is the correct solution to the twin paradox?A. Andy is younger because his world line is longerB. Betty is younger because her world line is shorterC. The problem is undefined in special relativity because it contains accelerations3. Which of the following statements about causality are true?(multiple correct answer)A. Objects are causally connected if they are separated by a time-like trajectory (invariant interval greater than 0)B. Light rays follow trajectories that maximize the invariant interval (maximum proper time interval)C. Light rays follow light-like trajectories with invariant interval 0 (meaning proper time interval 0)D. Objects are causally connected if they are separated by a space-like trajectory (invariant interval smaller than 0)D. Andy is younger because his world line is shorterE. Betty is younger because her world line is longer4. Which of the following statements about the mass-energy relation in special relativity are true?(multiple correct answer)A. 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This form of reproductive isolation is:A. an example of a post-zygotic barrier due to F2 hybrid breakdownB. an example of a pre-zygotic barrier due to mechanical isolationC. an example of a pre-zygotic barrier due to geographic isolationD. an example of a pre-zygotic barrier due to behavioral isolationE. an example of a post-zygotic barrier due to F1 hybrid sterility2. Sickle-cell trait (with one allele for the normal beta-globin polypeptide and one allele for the sickle-cell beta-globin polypeptide) is maintained, in areas where mosquito-borne malaria is endemic, because of which of the following selective forces?A. diversifying selectionB. disruptive selectionC. directional selectionD. purifying selectionE. stabilizing selection3. What would be expected to occur to the beta-globin genotype in humans migrating from an area with very few malarial parasites to an area where mosquito-borne malaria is common?A. heterozygous genotypes would be at a selective disadvantage compared to all other genotypesB. homozygous dominant genotypes would be selectively favored over all other genotypesC. heterozygous genotypes would increase while both homozygous genotypes would decreaseD. homozygous recessive genotypes would be selectively favored over all other genotypesE. both homozygous genotypes would increase while heterozygous genotypes would decrease Menthol (fw = 156. 3 g/mol), the strong-smelling substance in many cough drops, is a compound of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. When 0. 1595 g of menthol was burned in a combustion apparatus, 0. 449 g of co2 and 0. 184 g of h2o formed. What is menthol's molecular formula? enter as c#h#o# # stands for the number you will enter. To make it easier use the following g/mol for c: 12, o: 16, and h 1. 2. Write a complete sentence about the impact of improvedagriculture on the health and population of Britain. Drag and drop a symbol to correctly compare the expressions. PLS ANSWER While the plot diagram may look like a pyramid, it works like a factor: 2x^2+ 5x-3=0 Which settlers were attracted to New England in its earliest years? In bipedal hominins, the foramen magnum is positioned to the rear of the cranium. True False