a phlebotomist enters a room to draw blood on a patient undergoing care for an infected wound. the site of the wound and its bandages are considered which link in the chain of infection?

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Answer 1

A phlebotomist enters a room to draw blood on a patient undergoing care for an infected wound and the site of the wound and its bandages are considered portal of exit link in the chain of infection.

A phlebotomist is a medical professional who performs phlebotomy at medical facilities. His or her responsibility is to support medical laboratory technologists, physicians, nurses, and anyone who are solely responsible for collecting blood.

The virus can exit the reservoir through any channel, which is referred to as the Portal of Exit. This is largely dependent on the reservoir's properties. The principal egress points for humans are as follows: Vomiting, diarrhoea, and saliva are astringent.

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Related Questions

people tend to pattern their behavior on the perceived expectations of others, which is a form of a self-fulfilling prophecy.

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People indeed tend to pattern their behavior based on the perceived expectations of others. A self-fulfilling prophecy refers to a belief or expectation that influences individuals' behavior in a way that ultimately confirms the initial belief or expectation.

When individuals perceive certain expectations from others, they internalize those expectations and may adjust their behavior accordingly. This adjustment can result in actions and choices that align with the perceived expectations, leading to outcomes that reinforce the original belief or expectation.

For example, if someone is told they are not good at public speaking and they internalize this belief, they may approach public speaking situations with anxiety and lack of confidence. This behavior can hinder their performance, thereby confirming the initial belief of not being good at public speaking.

On the other hand, positive expectations from others can also shape behavior in a self-fulfilling manner. If someone is consistently praised for their creativity, they may develop a strong belief in their creative abilities, leading them to actively seek creative opportunities and perform well in creative endeavors.

Understanding the impact of perceived expectations is crucial as it highlights the power of social influence and the potential for individuals to fulfill or defy expectations placed upon them. It emphasizes the need for positive and supportive environments that promote growth, as well as the importance of challenging negative beliefs to break the cycle of self-fulfilling prophecies.

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The nurse in planning care for the pediatric oncology patient anticipates implementing which action regarding the administration of an antiemetic in a chemotherapy protocol?

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Administering 30 to 60 minutes prior to initiation of therapy.

In chemotherapy and/or radiation treatment regimens, antiemetic anticipatory care is a must. It is often delivered in a planned order, 30 to 60 minutes before the infusion, rather than on an as-needed basis or when the patient exhibits symptoms.

Parenteral administration is the preferred mode of administration, particularly if the likelihood of experiencing nausea and/or vomiting is higher. The study and treatment of cancer in children and young adults is known as pediatric oncology. Both pediatrics and oncology are studied and practiced by pediatric oncologists.

Cancers that manifest in youngsters frequently differ from those that do so in adults. Because of this, pediatric oncologists are experts in treating cancer in children, adolescents, and young adults.

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Pulmonary circulation is the key component that supports both respiratory and cardiovascular systems. Examine this diagram of a human heart as seen while looking at the front of the body. A diagram showing the heart with labels A through D. A is above the heart. B is on the left side of the heart. C is on the right side of the heart. D is below the heart. Which correctly identifies where the blood is flowing to and from? A: lower body, B: left lung, C: right lung, D: upper body A: upper body, B: right lung, C: left lung, D: lower body A: right lung, B: upper body, C: lower body, D: left lung A: left lung, B: lower body, C: upper body, D: right lung Mark this and return

Answers

Answer:

where is the diagram????????

Answer: The 3rd Option

aka Answer Choice- A: right lung, B: upper body, C: lower body, D: left lung

what part of the brain anylyzes/decides where/why you are feeling pain before your relfexes react?

Answers

The limbic system decides. Feelings are associated with every sensation you encounter, and each feeling generates a response.

What does going limbic mean?

When we are “triggered” our limbic system kicks in and takes over. This is known as going limbic and in extreme cases can result in the amygdala hijacking our thinking brain. Recent research in neuroscience has revealed that memories and emotions are intrinsically linked.

What are limbic emotions?

The limbic system helps the body respond to intense emotions of fear and anger by activating the fight or flight response. This response is also sometimes called the fight, flight, or freeze response, thanks to new evidence suggesting the role of freezing in response to danger.

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Select all the correct answers.
Which two phrases are true about ambulatory care?
knowing which support device to use
knowing which medications the client is taking
knowing which part of the body is injured or weak
walking behind the client at all times
chatting with the client continuously

Answers

The two true phrases about ambulatory care are knowing which medications the client is taking and knowing which part of the body is injured or weak. Option B

Knowing which medications the client is taking: In ambulatory care, it is important to have knowledge about the medications the client is taking. This includes understanding the dosage, frequency, and potential side effects or interactions with other medications.

Knowing which part of the body is injured or weak: Ambulatory care involves providing care and support to individuals who are able to walk or move independently, but may have specific injuries or weaknesses in certain parts of their body. Having awareness of the affected body part is essential for guiding the care process.

Knowing which support device to use: While support devices such as canes, crutches, or walkers may be relevant in ambulatory care, this statement alone does not encompass the broader scope of ambulatory care.

Walking behind the client at all times: This statement is not true about ambulatory care. Ambulatory care is not limited to physically walking behind the client at all times.

Chatting with the client continuously: While communication and patient engagement are important aspects of ambulatory care, the statement that healthcare providers should chat with the client continuously is not necessarily true. Option B

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a nurse is participating in a disaster simulation in which a toxic substance is released into a crowded stadium

Answers

The nurse should follow established disaster response protocols.

What actions should the nurse take during a simulated toxic substance release in a crowded stadium?

During a disaster simulation involving the release of a toxic substance in a crowded stadium, the nurse's primary responsibility is to follow established disaster response protocols.

These protocols are designed to ensure the safety and well-being of both the nurse and the affected individuals.

Firstly, the nurse should prioritize personal safety by donning appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) to minimize exposure to the toxic substance.

This may include gloves, masks, goggles, or full-body protective suits, depending on the nature of the toxic agent.

Secondly, the nurse should assess the situation and gather information.

This involves identifying the type of toxic substance released, understanding its potential health effects, and assessing the severity of the situation.

This information will help the nurse make informed decisions and provide appropriate care to affected individuals.

Finally, the nurse should collaborate with other healthcare professionals, emergency responders, and authorities involved in the disaster simulation.

This teamwork is crucial for coordinating efforts, implementing evacuation or containment measures, providing immediate medical assistance, and ensuring effective communication throughout the response.

It is important for the nurse to remain calm, focused, and adhere to established protocols to ensure the best possible outcome in managing the simulated disaster scenario.

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The axon:

A.) Is the ending point of the nerve impulse.
B.) Sends neurotransmitters.
C.) Is the main body of the nerve cell.
D.) Receives neurotransmitters.

Answers

I think it’s B I’m not that sure but if it’s not I’m sorry
I think it’s B if it’s wrong I’m sorry

A practitioner order is written for an antimetic medication to be given IV 7.5mg Q 4 hours prn N/V. the medication is available in prefilled syringe labeled 10mg/2 mL. How many millimiters should be given?

Answers

Answer:

1.5mL

Explanation:

This is 10mg/2mL, which simplifies to 5mg/1mL. To get 7.5mg, you need 1.5mL (multiple numerator and denominator by 1.5).

what strain of marijuana can i grow in 40 degrees weather

Answers

Answer:

to can calculate for popolation destiny it is imporative to divide rhe number of popolation bt the number size of the area

Explanation:

read book thats im my hope

Northern lights, blackberry, super skunk

You are ordered to give digoxin. Your patient's vital signs are as follows: Blood Pressure 130/75, Temp 97.9 oral, HR 52, O2 Sat 100% room air. What should you do next?

Answers

Before administering digoxin, it is important to assess the patient's heart rate (HR) and document it. In this case, the patient's HR is 52, which is below the normal range of 60-100 beats per minute.

Digoxin is a medication used to treat heart failure and certain heart rhythm problems by slowing down the heart rate and increasing the force of heart contractions. Therefore, it is essential to ensure that the patient's HR is not too low before administering digoxin as it may cause further slowing of the heart rate and potentially lead to serious complications such as heart block or cardiac arrest.

The healthcare provider should consult with the patient's healthcare team and obtain further orders regarding the administration of digoxin in light of the patient's low heart rate. Additionally, the healthcare provider should monitor the patient's vital signs closely after administering digoxin to ensure that the patient is tolerating the medication well and to detect any adverse effects.

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the statement, "traumatic foot amputation at the left ankle," the main term to reference in the ICD-10-CM Index to Diseases and Injuries would be

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The answer would be amputation

The main term to reference in the ICD-10-CM Index to Diseases and Injuries would be amputation.

What is ICD-10-CM?

ICD-10-CM may be defined as the International Classification of Diseases -10th Version-Clinical Modification which is formulated and designed for classifying and reporting diseases in all healthcare settings.

In the statement, "traumatic foot amputation at the left ankle", the term amputation gives you the correct reference to this particular injury and authorized treatment in the ICD-10-CM.

Therefore, it is well described above.

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Why is DNA attracted to the positive end of the electrophoresis rig?

Answers

DNA is negatively charged, therefore, when an electric current is applied to the gel, DNA will migrate towards the positively charged electrode. Shorter strands of DNA move more quickly through the gel than longer strands resulting in the fragments being arranged in order of size.

in positive pressure systems, area alarm sensors for vital life support and critical care areas shall be located on which side of the zone valve box assemblies?

Answers

In positive pressure systems, area alarm sensors for vital life support and critical care areas shall be located downstream of the zone valve box assemblies.

This ensures that the sensors are able to detect any changes in pressure and respond accordingly to maintain proper ventilation and air flow in these critical areas.

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There are many complaints that nutrition education is focused on what not to eat instead of what to eat. How does this confuse consumers?​

Answers

By not letting them use their brains

Choose all of the shapes that are used to create the net of a cylinder.

triangle
wedge
rectangle
circle

Answers

the shapes that are used to create the net of a cylinder are rectangle and circle

‏type of advance medical directive does the AMA recommend? Living will or Durable power of attorney
‏I need a definitive answer to this question, please

Answers

Answer:

A Power of Attorney is a legal document that appoints an “Agent” to represent you and handle specific issues for you. Depending upon the terms of the Power of Attorney, your Agent could be authorized to make financial and health care decisions on your behalf.

all of the following medical conditions are considered contraindications for air polishing except for one. which is the exception?

Answers

All of the following medical conditions are considered contraindications for air polishing except for hypoglycemia. The correct answer is option a.

Air polishing is a dental procedure that uses a jet of air, water, and abrasive particles to remove stains and plaque from the teeth.

While it is generally safe and effective, there are certain situations or systemic conditions where air polishing may not be recommended.

Hypoglycemia, or low blood sugar, is not directly related to the safety or suitability of air polishing.

Hypoglycemia is a condition characterized by a decrease in blood glucose levels, and it primarily affects the body's energy metabolism.

It does not have a direct impact on the respiratory system, lung function, or the risk of infection.

On the other hand, conditions such as emphysema, active tuberculosis, and asthma can be contraindications for air polishing.

Emphysema is a chronic lung disease that affects the air sacs in the lungs, impairing breathing and increasing the risk of lung complications.

Active tuberculosis is an infectious disease that primarily affects the lungs, and air polishing may increase the risk of spreading the infection.

Asthma is a chronic respiratory condition characterized by airway inflammation and increased sensitivity, and the use of air polishing may trigger asthma symptoms or cause respiratory distress in some individuals.

So, the correct answer is option a. Hypoglycemia.

The complete question is -

All of the following medical conditions are considered contraindications for air polishing except for one. which is the exception?

a. Hypoglycemia

b. Emphysema

c. Active tuberculosis

d. Asthma

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Which of the following is a device for mounting disks and wheels into a hur shank?

Answers

To lock the wheel to the blaze

during vigorous exercise, stimulation of the tricarboxylic acid (tca) cycle results principally from:

Answers

During vigorous exercise, stimulation of the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle results principally from the flow of a number of enzyme by NADH/NAD+ reduction located in the mitochondria.

Where does the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle occur?

Also known as the citric acid cycle, the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle occurs in the mitochondria which is known as the power house of cells. The mitochondria consists of an inner membrane, a matrix and a cristae.

Enzymes are dissolved in the matrix and the cristae are the inward foldings of the inner membrane. The TCA steps up as a primary source of energy for cells and is very essential for aerobic respiration. It works to oxidize acetyl-CoA in skeletal muscles.

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Although it may vary from a short narrative description of a minor procedure to a more formal report dictated by surgeons, all operative reports contain

Answers

Answer:

procedure performed

Explanation:

Operative reports, which may be descriptive summaries or formal reports, sometimes include important information relating to surgical procedures.

These include information about the patient, preoperative diagnosis, surgical technique, findings, reasons for surgery, anesthesia details, specimens taken, drains or catheters used, estimated blood loss, postoperative diagnosis, complications. Post-operative conditions, procedures performed by other specialists, and surgical dictation.

Patient care, treatment continuation and legal paperwork all depend on these reports. They help with postoperative care and promote good communication between medical teams while providing important insights for health care practitioners. Depending on the complexity of the method and institutional constraints, the level of information may change.

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A nurse is taking care of a client diagnosed with norovirus. Which of the following statements made by the client suggests that the client is UNAWARE of the proper preventative procedures?

Answers

Answer:

Im sorry, im not sure, but mabye they dont know about all the vacines and or natrual supplements they can take in order to make it better. (instead of going to a hospital)

and so; as soon as they got sick, they didnt know what to do

hope you have a nice day! please mark brainliest!

OK KNOW IM GIVVING A BUNCH OF POINTS WITH NO MISTAKES!!!

Answers

Answer:

thx bro ur nice...........

:O thank you! Have a GREAT rest of your day!

If there's a prescription that calls for 28 mg of medication, and the pharmacy has 40mg/2mL solution in stock, how many mL will the patient need to receive to get the correct dose?

Answers

1.4mL

40/2 = 28/x
Cross multiply
40x = 56
divide both sides by 40
x = 1.4

together, the otc painkillers aspirin, acetaminophen (tylenol), and ibuprofen cause:

Answers

When taken together, the combination of aspirin, acetaminophen (Tylenol), and ibuprofen can increase the risk of adverse effects and potential harm to the body.

It is generally recommended to avoid simultaneous use of these medications without the guidance of a healthcare professional. Here are some potential issues that can arise:

Increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding: Aspirin and ibuprofen are nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) that can irritate the stomach lining and increase the risk of ulcers and gastrointestinal bleeding. Taking them together can further exacerbate this risk.

Kidney damage: Both ibuprofen and high doses of acetaminophen can be harmful to the kidneys, and taking them together may increase the risk of kidney damage.

Overdose risk: Combining multiple medications that contain acetaminophen can lead to unintentional overdose, as many over-the-counter products already contain this ingredient.Exceeding the recommended dose of acetaminophen can cause liver damage.

Interactions with other medications: Each of these medications can interact with other drugs, including prescription medications.Taking them together without medical advice may increase the risk of drug interactions and potential side effects.

It is important to consult a healthcare professional or pharmacist before combining or using multiple painkillers together to ensure their safe and appropriate use.

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1. a portable chest x-ray is taken at 90 cm sid, and the patient exposure is 280 mgy. what will the new
exposure be if the distance is increased to 180 cm and there is no accompanying technique change?

Answers

Answer:

I believe this is what your looking for 70 uGya

Explanation:

What does the prefix in the term bradypnea mean?

Answers

The prefix "brady-" in the term "bradypnea" means "slow". "Pnea" refers to "breathing". Therefore, "bradypnea" means "slow breathing".

The prefix in the term bradypnea means "slow." Bradypnea is a medical term that describes a decreased respiratory rate or slow breathing.

It is derived from two Greek words: brady, meaning slow, and pnea, meaning breathing or respiration. Bradypnea is a condition that affects a person's breathing rate, and it is characterized by the reduced number of breaths per minute.

A person with bradypnea might breathe slower than 12 times per minute, which can result in poor oxygenation in the body. The most common causes of bradypnea include sleep apnea, heart disease, stroke, and side effects of medication.

Some people may experience bradypnea as a side effect of general anesthesia or opioid drugs. Bradypnea can be dangerous when it is not treated promptly, especially in newborns and elderly people. Therefore, it is important to consult a healthcare professional if you notice any unusual changes in breathing patterns.

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Last night, 312 people attended the early showing of a theater movie. How many people attended the late showing if the attendance for both showing was 961 people?


write a solution equation to solve the problem .


solve your equation

Answers

Answer:641

Explanation: since you know 312 people arrived early that means the rest were late so you just do the amount of people that were there in total and then exclude 312 since they got there early


Hope it helps :)

Dr. Penningworth asks Mr. Raines how long he has struggled with his addiction to alcohol. Mr. Raines informs him that he has had a drinking problem since he was 18, for more than 28 years. Does this strengthen or weaken your suggestion regarding Susan's response to Dr. Penningworth in the preceding question?

Answers

Answer:

Mr. Raines statement strengthens the suggestions made by by the Dr. Penningworth.

Explanation:

Dr. Penningworth identifies that Mr.Raines has been suffering from liver failure but he has no idea what has led him to this disease as he had no earlier symptoms. Mr.Raines informs the doctor that he has been drinking alcohol since very early age. He started intake of alcohol when he was 18 and then his liver got infected with the disease.

What is one of the responsibilities of
Health
care regulatory
agencies?

Answers

Answer:

DHHS agency responsible for developing standards and regulations and conducting inspections and investigations to determine compliance, and propose corrective action for noncompliance in matters related to occupational safety and health.

Hope it is helpful

One of the responsibilities of healthcare regulatory agencies is to ensure the safety and quality of healthcare services provided to the public. These agencies play a crucial role in overseeing and enforcing regulations and standards that healthcare providers must follow.



Here are some specific responsibilities of healthcare regulatory agencies:

1. Licensing and Certification: Healthcare regulatory agencies are responsible for licensing and certifying healthcare facilities, such as hospitals, clinics, and nursing homes. They ensure that these facilities meet specific criteria and maintain certain standards of care.

2. Monitoring Compliance: Regulatory agencies monitor healthcare providers to ensure they comply with rules and regulations. This includes conducting inspections, reviewing medical records, and investigating complaints. They also verify that healthcare professionals have the necessary licenses and credentials.

3. Setting Standards: Regulatory agencies establish and enforce standards for healthcare quality and safety. They develop guidelines and protocols that healthcare providers must follow to ensure proper patient care, infection control, medication management, and more.

4. Consumer Protection: These agencies protect consumers by ensuring transparency and accountability in healthcare. They may handle consumer complaints, investigate fraud or malpractice cases, and take appropriate disciplinary actions against healthcare providers who violate regulations.

5. Policy Development: Healthcare regulatory agencies also play a role in developing and implementing healthcare policies. They analyze data and research to make evidence-based decisions that improve public health outcomes and address emerging issues in the healthcare industry.

Overall, healthcare regulatory agencies work to safeguard public health by monitoring and enforcing regulations, ensuring healthcare providers deliver safe and high-quality care.

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Early signs of pressure ulcers include

Answers

Answer: Unusual changes in skin color or texture, Swelling, Pus-like

draining, An area of skin that feels cooler or warmer to the touch than other areas or Tender areas.

Explanation:

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