According to a report by the American Broadcasting Corporation (ABC) on December 23, new research shows that the number of deaths in my country during the first and second waves of the new crown epidemic may be severely underestimated, especially among the elderly and the poor. The actual number may be It is 12 times higher than the official statistics, that is, more than 6 million people. According to the report, if this data is accurate, my country will become the country with the largest number of deaths from the new crown epidemic in the world so far, surpassing the 811,000 people in the United States.

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

It sounds like it would be one of the worst countries in the world for c-19. That sounds like it checks out, but could you provide a link?

Also, what is your question?


Related Questions

Which is an important assessment step to identify risk for HIV?

Answers

Answer:

 Sexual and drug substance use risks should be determined during a     routine health history with every new patient and updated regularly     during periodic health care. 

Risk assessment helps to identify individuals at risk; support recommendations  for HIV, STD, and hepatitis screening; and establish risk reduction education  topics and strategies. 

Risk assessment can help people who are already infected access treatment  

 and learn how to avoid transmitting HIV to others.

Explanation:

A woman experiences the loss of a very early term pregnancy. Her
friends do not mention the loss, and someone suggests to her that
she can "always try again." The woman feels confusion over her
sadness and stops talking about it with others. Which type of grief
response is this patient most likely experiencing?

Answers

Answer:

Disenfranchised

Explanation:

I am pretty sure it is disenfranchised. In mental health disenfranchised means distracting feelings of loneliness. The woman stops talking because her friends don't get what she is going through.

that is my thought process.

Lipid case study Jane went to see her medical provider to discuss the results of recent lab work: Chol: 250 mg/dl LDL: 160 mg/dl HDL: 65 mg/dl Trig: 120 mg/dl Her food recall is: Bkf: 3 eggs Din: chicken sautéed in olive oil 3 slices white toast 2 cups green salad 1 Tbsp. butter 1 cup corn oil ranch dressing 16 oz. OJ 1 small dinner roll 1 Tbsp. canola margarine Lun: sandwich: 1/2 c canned salmon 12 oz. whole milk 1 Tbsp. soybean oil mayonnaise 1 slice cheddar cheese 1 whole pita bread 1 large chocolate chip cookie Snack: 1 cup ice cream 1 oz. potato chips 12 c peanuts 12 oz. coke 1. Evaluate Jane's lab results. Name foods in Jane's food recall that contain high amounts of: 2. Essential fatty acids: 3. Saturated fat: 4. Monounsaturated fat: s. Polyunsaturated fat: 6. Trans fat: 7. Jane is at risk for what disease? Why? 8. What types of dietary fats should Jane decrease her intake of? 9. Provide lower fat food suggestions for Jane. 10. Jane was advised to eat more fiber. Why? 11. If she consumes 2200 kcals and 80 grams of fat, what is % of kcals from fat? Is this within the AMDR for fat?

Answers

Evaluation of Jane's lab results: Elevated total cholesterol and LDL cholesterol, lower HDL cholesterol, and normal triglycerides.

Foods high in essential fatty acids: Canned salmon.

Foods high in saturated fat: Butter, cheese, whole milk, ice cream, chocolate chip cookie.

Foods high in monounsaturated fat: Olive oil.

Foods high in polyunsaturated fat: Soybean oil, canola margarine.

No trans fat-containing foods mentioned.

Jane is at risk for cardiovascular disease due to her unfavorable lipid profile.

Jane should decrease intake of saturated fat.

Lower fat food suggestions: Lean proteins, plant-based oils, fruits, vegetables, whole grains.

Jane was advised to eat more fiber for various health benefits.

Percentage of calories from fat: 32.73%, falls within the AMDR for fat.

1. Evaluation of Jane's lab results: Jane's total cholesterol level is elevated at 250 mg/dl, which puts her at risk for cardiovascular disease. Her LDL cholesterol level is also high at 160 mg/dl, indicating an increased risk of plaque buildup in the arteries.

On the positive side, her HDL cholesterol level is within a desirable range at 65 mg/dl, which is beneficial for cardiovascular health. Her triglyceride level is normal at 120 mg/dl.

2. Foods high in essential fatty acids: Canned salmon is a good source of omega-3 fatty acids, which are essential for heart health and have been shown to lower cholesterol levels.

3. Foods high in saturated fat: Butter, cheese, whole milk, ice cream, and the chocolate chip cookie are all sources of saturated fat. Consuming too much saturated fat can raise LDL cholesterol levels and increase the risk of heart disease.

4. Foods high in monounsaturated fat: Olive oil is a good source of monounsaturated fat, which can help improve cholesterol levels and reduce the risk of heart disease.

5. Foods high in polyunsaturated fat: Soybean oil and canola margarine contain polyunsaturated fats, which include omega-6 fatty acids. These fats, when consumed in moderation, can have positive effects on heart health.

6. No trans fat-containing foods were mentioned in Jane's food recall. Trans fats are known to increase LDL cholesterol levels and should be avoided as much as possible.

7. Jane is at risk for cardiovascular disease. The elevated levels of total cholesterol (Chol) and LDL cholesterol, combined with a relatively low level of HDL cholesterol, indicate an unfavorable lipid profile. These factors contribute to an increased risk of developing cardiovascular disease, including conditions such as atherosclerosis, heart attack, and stroke.

8. Jane should decrease her intake of saturated fat, as it can raise LDL cholesterol levels and contribute to cardiovascular disease risk. Foods such as butter, cheese, whole milk, and high-fat desserts should be limited.

9. Lower fat food suggestions for Jane:

Choose lean protein sources like skinless poultry, fish, and legumes.

Incorporate more plant-based oils, such as olive oil or avocado oil, for cooking and salad dressings.

Increase intake of fruits, vegetables, and whole grains.

Opt for low-fat or skim milk and dairy products.

Select snacks that are lower in fat and sodium, such as fresh fruits, vegetables, or air-popped popcorn.

10. Jane was advised to eat more fiber because dietary fiber offers several health benefits. It helps maintain healthy cholesterol levels, regulates blood sugar levels, promotes healthy digestion, and contributes to a feeling of fullness, aiding in weight management.

11. To calculate the percentage of calories from fat:

Fat intake: 80 grams (1 gram of fat = 9 calories)

Total calorie intake: 2200 kcals

Calculate fat calories: 80 grams * 9 calories/gram = 720 calories from fat

Calculate percentage of calories from fat: (720 calories / 2200 calories) * 100 = 32.73%

The AMDR (Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range) for fat is generally recommended to be 20-35% of total daily calorie intake. In this case, Jane's fat intake represents 32.73% of her total calorie intake, which falls within the recommended range for fat consumption.

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A compound/open fracture is more obvious to a healthcare provider than a simple/closed fracture because your bone has broken through your skin.

Answers

It is true. Complex/open fractures are more obvious to health care providers than simple/closed fractures because the bone penetrates the skin.

Do compound fractures always tear the skin?

Fractures are usually classified as either simple or compound. A simple (or closed) fracture is one in which the skin is not torn and the bone is not exposed outside the body. A compound (or open) fracture occurs when bone penetrates the skin or is visible outside the body.

Why are open fractures more serious than closed fractures?

Open fractures require different treatment than closed fractures, which do not have an open wound. This is because when the skin breaks, bacteria from dirt and other contaminants can enter the wound and cause an infection.

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for whom is nitrogen balance typically positive?

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Nitrogen balance is typically positive for individuals who are in a state of growth, such as infants, children, and adolescents. Pregnant women and individuals who are recovering from injuries or illnesses may also have a positive nitrogen balance. Additionally, individuals who consume a high-protein diet and engage in regular exercise may have a positive nitrogen balance.

Adolescence is the period of development that occurs between childhood and adulthood, typically between the ages of 10 and 19. During this time, adolescents experience significant physical, cognitive, social, and emotional changes.

Physically, adolescents undergo a growth spurt, which is characterized by a rapid increase in height and weight. They also develop secondary sex characteristics.

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sometimes you just want to yeet people out windows. How do you not do this.

Answers

scream in the shower , sing a song super loud

1 go outside at 11:00 pm and scream and shout. draw them and draw how you feel then go to some form of lake/ river and let your feeling of hate drift away...

What toothbrushing method would a toddler who has gum disease use?

Answers

Answer:

It's important to note that gum disease in toddlers is rare and usually only occurs in severe cases of poor oral hygiene or other underlying medical conditions. If you suspect that your toddler has gum disease, you should consult a pediatric dentist for a proper diagnosis and treatment plan.

Assuming that your toddler has been diagnosed with gum disease and your pediatric dentist has recommended toothbrushing, the most appropriate method to use would depend on the severity and location of the gum disease. In general, gentle and thorough brushing is recommended, with a soft-bristled toothbrush and a pea-sized amount of fluoride toothpaste.

One commonly recommended toothbrushing method for toddlers is the modified Bass method. Here are the steps to perform this method:

Hold the toothbrush against the teeth at a 45-degree angle, with the bristles pointing towards the gum line.

Gently vibrate the brush back and forth, making small circular motions.

Gradually move the brush along the gum line, cleaning two to three teeth at a time.

Brush the chewing surfaces of the teeth with a back-and-forth motion.

Brush the tongue and the inside surfaces of the front teeth with a gentle back-and-forth motion.

It's important to supervise your toddler while they brush their teeth to ensure that they're using the correct technique and not swallowing the toothpaste. You may also want to consider using an electric toothbrush or a gum massaging toothbrush, as recommended by your pediatric dentist.

Describe the different structures of the oral cavity that the dental laboratory technician requires from a final impression for a removable prosthodontic appliance, and compare these with the requirements for a fixed- prosthesis case.

Answers

Answer:

Both the methods used in making conventional impressions and digital impressions are shown in this presentation. The various impression materials are described and their suitability for fixed prosthodontic impressions is discussed. Materials described include irreversible hydrocolloid, reversible hydrocolloid, polysulfide, condensation reaction silicone, addition reaction silicone, polyether, and alginate substitutes. The design principles and methods for making custom impression trays are described. Impression methods are demonstrated in detail and are supplemented with a video demonstration.

Explanation:

The oral cavity is the initial phase of the digestive tract. Its major purpose is to act as the entry to the alimentary canal, allowing salivation and the propelling of the food substance into the pharynx to begin the digestion process. The oral cavity is enclosed by:

the lips and two flexible muscle folds that stretch from the edge of the mouth

The different structures of the oral cavity include:

Upper Jaw,Lower Jaw,Gums, and;Tooth.

A dental laboratory technician is an experienced individual with a dental team who manufactures customized therapeutic and restorative dental appliances on prescription from a dental practitioner.

Removable prosthodontics focuses on the teeth replacement, in conjunction with soft tissues with a removable non-permanent prosthesis.

Removable prosthodontics appliances can be used for standard removable partial dentures for replacing missing teeth and this can help to avoid further surgery.

On the other hand, Fixed prosthodontics is the practice of repairing teeth with restorations that are permanently affixed to the patient's mouth. They're usually created in a laboratory by a dental laboratory technician who takes impressions to work with.

The difference between a removable prosthodontic appliance and a fixed prosthesis case is as follows:

removable prosthodontic                   fixed prosthesis case

It can be easily removed by            It requires a dental practitioner to

from the mouth when required        remove it.

Can lead to further jaw bone          It makes the jaw bone firm and intact

deterioration

Its cost is usually affordable but,   The cost is higher and it is a longtime

it has limited longetivity                 value.

From the above, explanation, we can conclude that we've understood what the different structures of the oral cavity are and how to make a comparison between the removable prosthodontic appliance and the fixed prosthesis case.

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Describe the different structures of the oral cavity that the dental laboratory technician requires from

What ensures proper unidirectional lymph fluid flow?

Answers

The proper unidirectional flow of lymph fluid is ensured by the presence of one-way valves within the lymphatic vessels. These valves prevent the backflow of lymph fluid and direct it towards the heart, where it is eventually emptied into the bloodstream.

The contraction of smooth muscle cells within the lymphatic vessels also helps to propel the lymph fluid towards the heart. Additionally, the movement of surrounding muscles during physical activity can also aid in lymphatic flow.


Hi! Proper unidirectional lymph fluid flow is ensured by the presence of one-way valves within lymphatic vessels and the coordinated contraction of smooth muscles surrounding the vessels. These mechanisms prevent the backflow of lymph and maintain a consistent direction of flow towards the lymph nodes and eventually into the bloodstream.

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the nurse is assessing the cerebrospinal fluid (csf) analysis for a child. which laboratory finding helps the nurse to distinguish bacterial meningitis from viral meningitis?

Answers

One laboratory finding that helps the nurse to distinguish bacterial meningitis from viral meningitis is the presence of polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs) in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).

In bacterial meningitis, there is usually a high number of PMNs, while in viral meningitis, there are fewer PMNs and more lymphocytes. Another laboratory finding that may help to differentiate between the two is the glucose level in the CSF. In bacterial meningitis, the glucose level is often low, while in viral meningitis, it is usually normal. Additionally, the protein level in the CSF may also be elevated in both bacterial and viral meningitis. It is important for the nurse to be aware of these findings to ensure proper treatment and management for the child.


The key laboratory finding that helps a nurse distinguish bacterial meningitis from viral meningitis in a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis is the white blood cell (WBC) count and differential. In bacterial meningitis, the WBC count is typically significantly elevated with a predominance of neutrophils. In contrast, viral meningitis often presents with a moderately elevated WBC count, but with a majority of lymphocytes. Additionally, bacterial meningitis usually has a higher protein concentration and lower glucose levels in the CSF compared to viral meningitis. Analyzing these factors can aid in determining the type of meningitis present in a child.

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what is non specific resistance?​

Answers

Non-specific resistance is our body's line of protection against all infections. It comprises the generation of antimicrobial compounds, phagocytosis, inflammation, fever, and skin and mucous membrane.

The non-specific resistances are:

Skin and Mucus Membranes: The body's initial line of defense against pathogen invasion is provided by the skin and mucus membranes. It functions as a chemical agent as well as a mechanical barrier.Phagocytosis: Phagocytosis is the process by which a cell ingests bacteria or any other type of particle matter. Some protozoa, like amoebas, use it as a form of nourishment.Inflammation: When body tissues are damaged, it causes inflammation in the nearby tissues. However, there are a number of factors that can induce tissue damage, including physical ones (such as heat, light, electricity, or sharp objects), pathogen infections, chemicals (acids, bases, gases), etc.Fever: Fever is an excessively high body temperature brought on by bacterial or viral illness, bacterial toxins, or both. It goes without saying that the hypothalamus, a brain region, regulates body temperature. As a result, it is sometimes referred to as the body's thermostat because it keeps the internal temperature at 37 °C (98.6 °F). The hypothalamus is affected by antigens, raising body temperature.Antimicrobial Substances: The body also produces several antimicrobial substances after a microbial infection, such as complement, properdin, and interferon proteins.Interferon: For viral replication, host cells are absolutely necessary. However, the host cells may or may not sustain damage during the process of replication. It is extremely challenging to prevent the virus from replicating without harming the host cells. When certain animal cells are stimulated, they create interferons (IFN), a type of antiviral protein. Interferons are utilized nowadays to promote immunity.

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A nurse is teaching a client who has type one diabetes mellitus about the peak time of neutral protamine hagedorn (MPH) inulin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
1. NPH insulin peaks in 1-5 hours
Regular insulin has an onset of 30 to 60 min, peaks in 1 to 5 hr, and lasts up to 10 hr.
2. NPH insulin is peakless
Insulin glargine has an onset of 70 min, it is peakless, and it has a duration of 24 hr
3. NPH insulin peaks in 6-14 hours
NPH insulin has an onset of 60 to 120 min, peaks in 6 to 14 hr, and has a duration of 16 to 24 hr.
4. Insulin peaks in 12-24 hours
Insulin detemir has a slow onset, peaks between 12 and 24 hr, and has a duration that varies with the dosage.

Answers

peaks in 6 to 14 hr, and has a duration of 16 to 24 hr.

4. Insulin peaks in 12-24 hours

Insulin detemir has a slow onset, peaks between 12 and 24 hr, and has a duration that varies with the dosage.

1. NPH insulin peaks in 1-5 hours

Regular insulin has an onset of 30 to 60 min, peaks in 1 to 5 hr, and lasts up to 10 hr.

2. NPH insulin is peakless

Insulin glargine has an onset of 70 min, it is peakless, and it has a duration of 24 hr

*3. NPH insulin peaks in 6-14 hours*

*NPH insulin has an onset of 60 to 120 min, peaks in 6 to 14 hr, and has a duration of 16 to 24 hr.*

4. Insulin peaks in 12-24 hours

Insulin detemir has a slow onset, peaks between 12 and 24 hr, and has a duration that varies with the dosage.

hope this helps good luck!!

Change the stimulus to read: Edward Jenner? ’s smallpox inoculation experiment was based on his observation that dairymaids who had had cowpox did not contract smallpox. How did Jenner form his hypothesis from this observation? He asked what would happen if he inoculated a person with cowpox fluid and then later with smallpox fluid. He tested different existing inoculations to see which one was most effective in preventing smallpox. He observed dairymaids who had contracted cowpox to see whether they became immune to smallpox. He drew a conclusion about dairymaids who got cowpox becoming immune to getting smallpox.

Answers

Answer: Option A) He asked what would happen if he deliberately inoculated someone with cowpox fluid from another person.

Explanation : Edward Jenner wanted to know what would happen if he deliberately inoculate the cowpox fluid from some person to another. He tested this experimental results and later on came up with the hypothesis. Which roughly state that someone will not get smallpox because they already had cowpox.

Edward Jenner deliberately inoculates the cowpox fluid from one person to another person to know what would happen to that person. Thus, option A is correct.

What is smallpox?

Smallpox has been a contagious disease that affects in the term of acute diseases and spread with contact with the infected person.

The discovery of a vaccine for smallpox was awarded to Edward Jenner with his research considering the exposure to cowpox as the vaccine to protect against smallpox.

Edward Jenner wanted to know the result of his hypothesis whether the person with cowpox will get affected by smallpox or not.

Later on, Edward Jenner discovered vaccination. He observed that the dairymaids who were working with cows got lesions on their hands.

Thus, he concluded that these dairymaids were immune to smallpox. Hence, option A is correct.

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what services does block and parish nursing provide for preventive and primary care services?

Answers

Block and parish nursing provide preventive and primary care services such as health education, health screenings, referrals, and advocacy.

Block and parish nursing is a community-based nursing practice that focuses on the health and well-being of individuals and families within a specific geographic area or faith community. These nurses provide a range of services to promote preventive and primary care, including health education on topics such as healthy lifestyle choices, disease prevention, and management of chronic conditions.

They also offer health screenings for conditions such as hypertension, diabetes, and cancer, and refer patients to appropriate healthcare providers as needed. Additionally, block and parish nurses serve as advocates for patients, helping them navigate the healthcare system and connect with resources that can support their health and well-being. Through their work, block and parish nurses play a critical role in promoting health and wellness within communities and addressing health disparities.

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what is the role of nurse​

Answers

Answer:

a caregiver for patients and helps to manage physical needs, prevent illness, and treat health conditions

they are responsible for the holistic care of patients

Explanation:

Explanation:

A nurse is a caregiver for patients and helps to manage physical needs, prevent illness, and treat health conditions. ... They are responsible for the holistic care of patients, which encompasses the psychosocial, developmental, cultural, and spiritual needs of the individual.

Discus immune response to a pathogen through the oral (oral-anus) and respiratory route.

Answers

Answer: Discus immune response to a pathogen through the oral (oral-anus) and respiratory route Discus immune response to a pathogen through the oral (oral-anus) and respiratory route Expert Answer The body is resistant to various pathogens through passive and active immunity.

Explanation: Periodontal pathogens may also present differences in their ability to induce immune responses from the host; thus, we evaluated the effects of various oral bacteria on the expression of AMPs and IL-8 by gingival epithelial cells.

hoped i helped make me brainliest plz

Five-year-old Niva was diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) after her parents and pediatrician became concerned about her lack of appetite, lethargy, persistent fever, and unexplained bruises.

Answers

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow, primarily seen in children. The symptoms you mentioned, such as lack of appetite, lethargy etc.

ALL affects the production of white blood cells, which are responsible for fighting infections. The leukemia cells crowd out healthy blood cells, leading to a weakened immune system, fatigue, and increased susceptibility to infections.

The lack of appetite can be a result of the illness itself or as a side effect of the treatment. Unexplained bruises can occur due to low platelet counts, which are responsible for blood clotting.

The leukemia cells can disrupt normal blood cell production in the bone marrow, leading to decreased platelet levels and easy bruising.

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Critically analyse the impact of Covid-19 in developing
countries and How covid-19 affacted their economy.Give 5 points and
analyse each points.

Answers

The impact of Covid-19 in developing countries has been significant, affecting their economies in multiple ways.

What are the key ways in which Covid-19 has impacted the economies of developing countries?

The Covid-19 pandemic has had profound economic consequences for developing countries. Here are five key points highlighting the impact:

1. Economic contraction: Many developing countries experienced a sharp economic downturn due to lockdowns, reduced economic activity, and disrupted global supply chains. This led to a decline in GDP growth rates and negative impacts on various sectors such as tourism, manufacturing, and trade.

2. Increased poverty and inequality: The pandemic exacerbated existing social and economic disparities, pushing more people into poverty and widening income inequalities. Vulnerable populations, including informal workers and those in the informal sector, faced job losses, reduced incomes, and limited access to social safety nets.

3. Disruptions in trade and remittances: Developing countries heavily reliant on exports and remittances faced challenges as global trade contracted and remittances from abroad declined. Restrictions on travel and disruptions in logistics disrupted supply chains, impacting export-oriented industries and reducing foreign exchange earnings.

4. Fiscal challenges: Governments in developing countries faced fiscal strain as they grappled with increased healthcare expenditures, implementing social protection measures, and addressing economic challenges. Reduced tax revenues and increased public spending led to budget deficits and a higher debt burden.

5. Reduced investment and financing gaps: The pandemic led to a decline in foreign direct investment (FDI) and limited access to financing for development projects. Investors became more risk-averse, diverting funds away from developing countries, leading to reduced investment in critical sectors like infrastructure and healthcare.

These points demonstrate the wide-ranging economic repercussions of the Covid-19 pandemic on developing countries, highlighting the need for targeted support and interventions to mitigate the impact and foster recovery.

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The technician is asked to make 8 oz of a 50% solution of Isopropyl Alcohol (IPA). ingredients available: Isopropyl Alcohol 70% and water. How many milliliters of water are needed?

Answers

Answer:

118.296 ml of water

Explanation:

Given that;

v/v% concentration = volume of solute/volume of solution * 100

volume of solution = 8 oz

v/v% concentration = 50%

50 = volume of solute/8 * 100

volume of solute = 50 * 8/100

volume of solute = 4 oz

Volume of water needed = Volume of solution - volume of solute

Hence

8 oz - 4 oz

Volume of water needed = 4 oz

1 oz = 29.574 ml

4oz = 4oz * 29.574 ml/1 oz

= 118.296 ml of water

what is the next step of performing cpr on infants after you determine that an infant is not breathing? shake, stroke, or tap the baby deliver gentle rescue breaths to protect the baby’s lungs give deep, strong compressions immediately call 911

Answers

The next step of performing CPR on an infant after determining that the infant is not breathing is to give deep, strong compressions immediately.

CPR involves a series of steps, including assessing the situation, calling for help, and beginning chest compressions. For an infant who is not breathing, the first step is to perform 30 chest compressions, followed by two rescue breaths.

The chest compressions should be delivered with the heel of the hand on the breastbone, using the depth and rate recommended by the American Heart Association guidelines.

After giving the initial 30 chest compressions, the provider should give two rescue breaths, delivering them gently and protecting the baby's airway with a mask or other device. The provider should then return to giving chest compressions, delivering 30 more compressions before giving two more rescue breaths.

It is important to call 911 immediately and continue performing CPR until emergency medical services arrive. Delivering chest compressions and rescue breaths can help maintain blood flow to the brain and other vital organs and may improve the baby's chances of survival.

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What causes cardiac arrest

Answers

Answer:

Some cardiac arrests occur when a diseased heart's electrical system malfunctions. This malfunction causes an abnormal heart rhythm such as ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation. Some cardiac arrests are also caused by extreme slowing of the heart's rhythm.

Explanation:

Hope this helped :)

most cardiac arrests occur when a diseased hearts electrical system malfunctions. this malfunction causes an abnormal heart rhythm such as ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation. some cardiac arrests are also caused by extreme slowing of the hearts rhythm (bradycardia).

what are some of the purposes of a post-mortem? check all that apply.
a. To learn from and adapt processes for higher efficiency
b. to understand the cause of mistakes and how to prevent them
c. to foster a culture where it's ok to make mistakes

Answers

The purpose of post-moterm is to understand the cause of mistakes and how to prevent them.

A post-moterm, which is also called an autopsy  an examination of the body done after the passing of the individual.

When the post-moterm of a body is done, it gives us a brief understanding of what went wrong in the body and what was the cause of the death or how did the death caused.

By learning about how and what happened, we can understand the causes of the mistakes and  we can prevent them in future.

A major experiments and crucial information is obtained from the post-moterm report of the body. This useful information is used in future to make medicines and surgical methods.

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determine if this conjecture is true. if not, give a counterexample. the difference of two negative numbers is a positive number. luoa

Answers

The conjecture "the difference of two negative numbers is a positive number" is true. This can be proven using the following example:

Let a and b be any two negative numbers. Thus, a < 0 and b < 0. Therefore, a - b < 0 - 0. Simplifying the equation gives a - b < 0 which means that the difference of two negative numbers is negative, not positive

.However, if a = -2 and b = -5, then a - b = -2 - (-5) = -2 + 5 = 3, which is a positive number. Therefore, this particular example serves as a counterexample to the conjecture for the values a = -2 and b = -5.

About Negative

Negative is a trait or state that shows disapproval, dislike, or rejection of something. Negative can also mean something opposite to positive, as in math or physics. Negative can have a bad impact on yourself and others if not balanced with a positive attitude.

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What could be the outcome of continuing with the irrigation?

Answers

Answer:

At the start of the irrigation, your urine will be bloody and may have blood clots in it. As the irrigation continues, your urine should become pink and clear. Your healthcare providers will empty your drainage bag frequently. Your bladder irrigation will be stopped when you have had clear or slightly pink urine for 1 to 2 days.

researchers randomly selected 1700 people from canada and rated the happiness of each person. ten years later, the researchers followed up with each person and found that people who were ini- tially rated as happy were less likely to have a heart problem.77 which of the following is the most appropriate conclusion based on this study?

Answers

The most appropriate conclusion about the study is from the people who were rated as happy is: (e )Happier people in the study were less likely to have heart problems.

Happy is an emotion or state of mind where the person feels contented and has a sense of well-being. The person who is happy feels the emotion of fulfilment from life.

Heart is the pumping organ of the circulatory system of the body. It is divided into 4 chambers: two upper atrium and two lower ventricles. The human heart can keep the oxygenated and deoxygenated blood separate efficiently. The heart pumps the blood to all the parts of the body.

The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:

Researchers randomly selected 1700 people from Canada and rated the happiness of each person. Ten years later, the researchers followed up with each person and found that people who were initially rated as happy were less likely to have a heart problem. Which of the following is the most appropriate conclusion based on this study?

a. Happiness causes better heart health for all people.

b. Happiness causes better heart health for Canadians.

c. Happiness causes better heart health for the people in the study.

d. Happier people in Canada are less likely to have heart problems.

e. Happier people in the study were less likely to have heart problems.

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Help with a reflection piece on adult safeguarding in the United Kingdom

Answers

Adult safeguarding is the process of protecting adults who are at risk of abuse or neglect. Abuse can happen to anyone, regardless of age, gender, race, or social status.

What is adult safeguarding about?

There are many different types of adult abuse, including physical abuse, emotional abuse, financial abuse, and sexual abuse. Physical abuse is any act that causes physical harm to an adult. Emotional abuse is any act that causes emotional harm to an adult, such as threats, insults, or isolation. Financial abuse is any act that takes advantage of an adult's financial resources, such as stealing money or property. Sexual abuse is any sexual act that is forced or unwanted.

In the United Kingdom, adult safeguarding is the responsibility of a number of different agencies, including local authorities, the NHS, and the police. These agencies work together to identify and protect adults who are at risk of abuse.

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Is Obstetrics and Gynecology a medical or surgical specialty?

Answers

Answer: Obstetrics and gynecology is a diverse, challenging and rewarding specialty. It combines medical and surgical skills. So what I'm trying to say is, somewhat both

Explanation:

Answer:

both

Explanation:

this specialty requires medical and surgical skills to reflect aspects of women's health during the cycle. 

diagnostic tests of medical conditions have seeral results. the rest result can be positive or negatie
a. true
b. false

Answers

Diagnostic tests for medical conditions can have several results, including positive or negative outcomes. A positive result indicates the presence of the condition being tested for,

while a negative result suggests the absence of the condition. These results help healthcare professionals make accurate diagnoses and develop appropriate treatment plans. It's important to note that diagnostic tests are not infallible, and false-positive or false-negative results can occur. False-positive results indicate a positive test result when the condition is actually not present, while false-negative results occur when the test fails to detect the condition despite its presence. Therefore, interpreting diagnostic test results requires clinical judgment and consideration of other factors to ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate patient care.

Learn more about diagnostic here:

https://brainly.com/question/27694225

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Any medical professionals that can help diagnose this for me please?

I got a lab test back that says I have high CK, low vitamin D, low ferratin, low PTH intact. In pain a lot on and off, it started in June only in the chest, but now is constant in the feet, toes, hands, legs. It feels like nerve damage honestly I’ve considered MS, fibromyalgia, etc. Doctors haven’t been helpful in figuring out what it is and dismiss it as in my head or anxiety related. Let me know if you need more info but I’d really like any thoughts from anyone in the medical community or familiar with any of these symptoms altogether!

Answers

Answer:

Use Amberen for about a week if you start feeling unwanted side effects stop using it and call you doctor amediantly... Hope this helps^_^ plz leave Brainliest and rating.

jJandmsmwmwlsmmelskama

Answers

Answer:

yes

Explanation:

What does that mean? Am not sure what your saying. And why don't you put the actual words, your making it difficult to understand what your asking for
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