an advantage of a weighted moving average is that more recent experience is given more weight than less recent ecxperience
true or false

The magnitude of the linear impulse experienced by the passenger during this time is 421.2 kg·m/s and the average force experienced by the passenger is approximately 5.44 × 10^2 N.

(a) To calculate the magnitude of the linear impulse experienced by the passenger, we can use the equation:

Impulse = mass × change in velocity

Given:
Mass of the passenger (m) = 70.2 kg
Change in velocity (Δv) = 6.00 m/s - 0 m/s = 6.00 m/s

Substituting the values into the equation, we get:

Impulse = 70.2 kg × 6.00 m/s = 421.2 kg·m/s

Therefore, the magnitude of the linear impulse experienced by the passenger during this time is 421.2 kg·m/s.

(b) To find the average force experienced by the passenger, we can use the equation:

Average force = Impulse ÷ time

Given:
Impulse (I) = 421.2 kg·m/s
Time (t) = 0.774 s

Substituting the values into the equation, we get:

Average force = 421.2 kg·m/s ÷ 0.774 s = 544.0 N (rounded to three significant figures)

Therefore, the average force experienced by the passenger is approximately 5.44 × 10^2 N.

To more about velocity visit:

https://brainly.com/question/34025828

#SPJ11

the frequency of this harmonic is 4299 Hz.

(a) The distance between two adjacent nodes in a standing wave is half of a wavelength, so we can find the wavelength of this wave:

wavelength = 2 * distance between nodes = 2 * 5.00 cm = 10.0 cm = 0.1 m

In a standing wave, the wavelength is related to the length of the string and the harmonic number by:

wavelength = 2L / n

where L is the length of the string and n is the harmonic number. Solving for n:

n = 2L / wavelength = 2 * 20.0 cm / 0.1 m = 40

So the string is vibrating in the 40th harmonic.

(b) The frequency of a wave is related to its wavelength by the wave speed:

frequency = wave speed / wavelength

The wave speed on a string is given by:

wave speed = sqrt(tension / mass per unit length)

where tension is the tension in the string and mass per unit length is the mass of the string divided by its length. Plugging in the given values:

mass per unit length = mass / length = 1.75×10−2 kg / 20.0 cm = 8.75×10^-5 kg/m

wave speed = sqrt(875 N / 8.75×10^-5 kg/m) = 429.9 m/s

Now we can find the frequency:

frequency = wave speed / wavelength = 429.9 m/s / 0.1 m = 4299 Hz

So the frequency of this harmonic is 4299 Hz.
Visit here to learn more about wavelength:

brainly.com/question/31143857

#SPJ11

Answer:

It should be fibre optic cable , buried underground

The electron falls to the third energy level (n=3) after getting excited to an energy level of n=7.ii. To calculate the energy of an electron, use the formula for the energy of an electron in the excited state:En= -2.178 × 10^−18 J × (Z^2/n^2)Where En is the energy of the electron.Therefore, the set of quantum numbers for an electron in 3p orbital is {3, 1, -1, 0, 1}.

Z is the atomic number (1 for hydrogen), and n is the energy level to which the electron jumps. Plugging in the values, we get:En = -2.178 × 10^-18 J × (1^2/7^2) = -0.204 × 10^-18 J(b) i. Orbits are the path that an electron follows around the nucleus. The term orbital refers to the space around the nucleus where an electron is most likely to be found.ii. The electronic configuration of Chromium is [Ar] 3d5 4s1.

The anomalous electronic configuration of chromium arises due to the exchange of an electron from the 4s orbital to the 3d orbital to attain more stability and have a fully filled d subshell.iii. The set of quantum numbers for an electron in the 3p orbital are:n=3, l=1, ml= -1, 0, 1, ms= +1/2 or -1/2.

Chromium is an element that has anomalous electronic configuration. The anomalous configuration arises when an electron from the 4s subshell of the element is excited and moved to the 3d subshell. The ground state electronic configuration of chromium is [Ar] 3d4 4s2. The fourth electron occupies the 4s subshell. It is easier to excite the electron in the 4s subshell and move it to the 3d subshell than removing an electron from the 3d subshell.

This is because the energy required to remove an electron from the 3d subshell is high due to its closeness to the nucleus. Therefore, the configuration becomes [Ar] 3d5 4s1 to attain more stability and have a fully filled d subshell.Quantum numbers for an electron in 3p orbital:The set of quantum numbers for an electron in the 3p orbital are as follows

n = 3 (The principal quantum number which denotes the shell number)l = 1 (The azimuthal quantum number which denotes the sub-shell number and takes values from 0 to n-1)s= +1/2 or -1/2 (The spin quantum number which denotes the spin of the electron)i.e., ml= -1, 0, 1 (The magnetic quantum number which denotes the orientation of the orbitals and takes integer values from -l to +l.)

Therefore, the set of quantum numbers for an electron in 3p orbital is {3, 1, -1, 0, 1}.

To know more about quantum refer here :

brainly.com/question/32773003#

#SPJ4

The tiny spring displacement with a spring constant of 1.20N/m after strecting is C) 4.2 mm.Option C

To find the displacement of the spring when it is stretched by a 0.0050-N force, we can use Hooke's Law. Hooke's Law states that the force exerted on a spring (F) is equal to the spring constant (k) multiplied by the displacement (x):
F = k * x
We are given the spring constant (k) as 1.20 N/m and the force (F) as 0.0050 N. We need to solve for the displacement (x). Rearrange the equation to isolate x:
x = F / k
Now, plug in the given values:
x = (0.0050 N) / (1.20 N/m)
x = 0.00416667 m
To convert the displacement from meters to millimeters, multiply by 1,000:
x = 0.00416667 m * 1,000 mm/m
x = 4.16667 mm
Since the answer should be in two decimal places, we can round it to 4.17 mm. None of the given options match this value, but the closest option is C) 4.2 mm. Therefore, the answer is:C) 4.2 mm

For more such questions on displacement visit:

https://brainly.com/question/14422259

#SPJ11

The man's resultant velocity is

8.5 m/s up .

Answer:

(a) women who painted watch dials - they also had the habit of licking their brush to provide better contrast of the numerals with the underlying face of the watch (or clock)

Answer:

17.59 km/h

Explanation:

distance/time

The cube's volume in cubic centimeters (cm³) is 16.3871 cm³

From the question given above, the following data were obtained:

To convert from cubic inches to cubic centimeters, we simply multiply the value in inches by 16.3871.

Thus, we have that:

1 in³ = 16.3871 cm³

Therefore, we can conclude that the cube's volume in cubic centimeters is 16.3871 cm³

Learn more about conversion:

https://brainly.com/question/12081899

#SPJ1

This question involves the concepts of th magnetic field and current.

The magnetic field created by the current at the house is "6.75 x 10⁻⁷ T".

The magnetic field created by a current carrying wire can be given by the following formula:

\(B=\frac{\mu_o I}{2\pi r}\)

where,

\(B=\frac{4\pi x\ 10^{-7}(152)}{2\pi(45)}\)

B = 6.75 x 10⁻⁷ T

Learn more about magnetic field here:

https://brainly.com/question/23096032

#SPJ1

Answer:

Explanation:

THE SONAR is the equipment that used to find the depth of the sea. The SONAR emits a sound wave. The sound wave strikes the sea bed and reflects back. the total time used force this is divided by 2 to find the depth of the sea. by using the equation S=ut we can find the depth of the sea.

Answer:

The sonar sends a signal that travels at 1500 m/s. When the sound comes back to the ship it will have traveled to and from the object, it bounces off of. So depending on the time it takes to get back will dictate the depth/distance of the water.

Explanation:

The device used by the ship's crew is called a sonar (short for sound navigation and ranging). The sonar sends out a pulse of sound waves (similar to the way a bat uses echolocation) that travel through the water and bounce off the seafloor. The sonar then detects the echoes and measures the time it takes for the sound waves to bounce back to the ship. Based on the time it takes for the sound waves to return, the sonar can calculate the depth of the water below the ship. The sonar is an important tool for ships to navigate safely in areas where the water depth may be variable or unknown.

As we know that,

According to the question,

F = 20 × 2

F = 40 N

Force applied is 40 N

\(\begin{gathered} \\ \end{gathered}\)

The net torque on the board when a boy of mass 45 kg and his dog of mass 25 kg stand on a diving board at 2m and 1.2m from the pivot respectively is 1176Nm.

Given the mass of the boy (M) = 45kg

The mass of the dog (m) = 25kg

The distance of the boy from the pivot (d1) = 2m

The distance of the dog from the pivot (d2) = 1.2m

Let the net torque acting on the board = T

The torque acting at the side of boy = T1

Let the torque acting at the side where dog is standing = T2

The net torque = T1 + T2

We know that the torque is equal to the force acting on a certain distance such that:

T1 = F1 * d1 = Mg*d1 where g is the gravitational acceleration = \(9.8m/s^2\)

T1 = 45*9.8*2 = 882Nm

T2 = F2*d2 = mg*d2

T2 = 25*9.8*1.2 =294Nm

T = 882 + 294 = 1176Nm

To learn more about torque click here https://brainly.com/question/6855614

#SPJ1

Answer:

300,000 kg·m/s

Explanation:

Answer:

An egg with a thick shell.

Explanation:

Hope this helps.

Answer:

Explanation:

Yes, According to law of conservation of energy, it has been said that energy cannot be created or destroyed.

When a comet comes near the Sun, its volatile ice sublimates and changes directly from the solid to the gas phase.

Comets are cosmic snowballs of frozen gases, dust, and rocks, orbiting the Sun. When frozen, comets are the size of a small town. As the comet's orbit approaches the Sun, it heats up, spewing gases and dust onto its giant glowing head, larger than most planets.

Comets vaporize when their orbits come to close to the Sun. Comets do not melt in the strict sense of chinging to liquid. However, since they are made up partly of ice and other volatile compounds, comets vaporize (turn directly to gas) when warmed in the vacuum of space by orbiting near the sun.

You can learn more about Comets at

https://brainly.com/question/14157013

#SPJ4

Yes, ultraviolet light and irradiation can destroy riboflavin.

Riboflavin is a light-sensitive vitamin that can break down when exposed to light, particularly UV light. This is why milk and other products that are fortified with riboflavin are often packaged in opaque containers to protect the vitamin from light damage.

When ultraviolet (UV) radiation activates the vitamin B2 riboflavin, active oxygen is produced, which destroys cell membranes and stops the spread of pathogens like viruses, bacteria, and protozoa in all blood products.

However, some studies suggest that controlled exposure to UV light and riboflavin can be used to disinfect surfaces and water. In this process, called UV-C irradiation, the riboflavin helps to enhance the antimicrobial effects of the UV light.

Riboflavin can therefore be destroyed by radiation and UV light.

Learn more about "ultraviolet light": https://brainly.com/question/25847009

#SPJ11

Answer:

A

(a) 16J

B

(b) 8J

C

(c) 32J

D

(d) 24J

Answer

B

Solution

Small amount of work done in extending the spring by dx is

dW=kxdx

∴W=k∫

0.15

0.05

xdx=

800

2

[(0.15)2-(0.05)2]=8J

Answer:

10s

Explanation:

Answer: the theory that all matter is made up of tiny indivisible particles (atoms). According to the modern version, the atoms of each element are effectively identical, but differ from those of other elements, and unite to form compounds in fixed proportions.

Answer:

C.)

Explanation:

The theory that all matter is made up of tiny indivisible particles (atoms). According to the modern version, the atoms of each element are effectively identical, but differ from those of other elements, and unite to form compounds in fixed proportions.

The given statement The market price of a house is $125,000, and the home buyer borrows $100,000. Two points are equal to $2,000 is true.

Two points equaling $2,000 is a common convention in real estate transactions. Points, also known as loan origination fees, are typically calculated as a percentage of the loan amount. In this case, two points amount to $2,000 on a $100,000 loan.

If the home buyer is borrowing $100,000 and two points equal $2,000, it aligns with the given information. Therefore, the statement is true.

Points, in the context of real estate, refer to fees charged by lenders at the time of closing a mortgage loan. Each point is typically equal to 1% of the loan amount. These points are paid upfront by the borrower and are considered a form of prepaid interest.

The purpose of points is to lower the interest rate on the mortgage loan. By paying points, the borrower can reduce the overall interest expense over the life of the loan. Generally, each point paid upfront can lower the interest rate by a certain percentage, often referred to as "buying down" the rate.

learn more about Market price here:

https://brainly.com/question/17205622

#SPJ4

Answer:

b

Explanation:

Answer:

its c

Explanation:

i have asked my teacher

The function has a y intercept at 10 and the function approaches 10 as x approaches infinity.

The correct answers are A and C.

A function is a mathematical rule that assigns a unique output (dependent variable) for every input (independent variable). In other words, a function is a relationship between two or more variables where each input has exactly one output. The output value depends on the input value and the rule that governs the relationship between them. A function can be represented as a graph, table, or formula.

From the given question above;

A. The function has a y intercept at 10 because when the mass is 0, the length of the spring is 10 inches.

C. The function approaches 10 as x (mass) approaches infinity because the length of the spring will increase as the mass increases.

Learn more about mathematical functions here https://brainly.com/question/11624077

#SPJ1

Answer:

The index of refraction can be calculated using Snell's law:

n1sin(theta1) = n2sin(theta2)

where n1 and theta1 are the index of refraction and angle of incidence in the first medium (glass), and n2 and theta2 are the index of refraction and angle of refraction in the second medium (unknown material).

Plugging in the given values:

1.76sin(25) = n2sin(35)

Solving for n2:

n2 = (1.76*sin(25))/sin(35)

n2 ≈ 1.29

Therefore, the index of refraction for the unknown material is approximately 1.29.

Answer:

Polonium(Po)

Explanation:

Answer:

B. polonium (Po)

Explanation:

i took the test

A 145-g baseball is thrown straight upward with kinetic energy 8.7 j. when the ball has risen 6 m, So, the work done by gravity is -8.5347 J, the ball's kinetic energy at 6 m is 0.1653 J, and the ball's speed is approximately 1.51 m/s.

(a) The work done by gravity can be calculated using the formula: work = force x distance x cos(theta), where force is the weight of the baseball, distance is the height it rises, and theta is the angle between the force and the displacement. Since the force of gravity is acting downward and the displacement is upward, theta = 180 degrees, and cos(theta) = -1. Thus, the work done by gravity is:
work = -mgh = -(0.145 kg)(9.8 m/s^2)(6 m) = -8.484 J
(b) The ball's kinetic energy can be found using the formula: kinetic energy = 0.5mv^2, where m is the mass of the baseball and v is its velocity. At the top of its path, the ball momentarily stops before falling back down, so its velocity is zero. Therefore, its kinetic energy is also zero.
(c) The ball's speed can be found using the formula: final velocity = square root of (2gh), where h is the height it rises. Substituting the values given, we get:
final velocity = square root of (2 x 9.8 m/s^2 x 6 m) = 7.67 m/s
Therefore, the ball's speed at the top of its path is approximately 7.67 m/s.

(a) To find the work done by gravity, we use the formula:
Work = Force x Distance x cos(theta)
where Force is the force exerted by gravity, Distance is the vertical distance the ball has risen, and theta is the angle between the force and distance
Force = mass x gravity
mass = 145 g = 0.145 kg (convert grams to kilograms)
gravity = 9.81 m/s^2
Force = 0.145 kg x 9.81 m/s^2 = 1.42245 N
Work = 1.42245 N x 6 m x cos(180 degrees)
Work = 1.42245 N x 6 m x (-1)
Work = -8.5347 J (negative because the work is done against gravity)
(b) To find the ball's kinetic energy at 6 m, we can use the work-energy theorem:
Initial kinetic energy + Work done = Final kinetic energy
8.7 J (initial kinetic energy) - 8.5347 J (work done by gravity) = Final kinetic energy
Final kinetic energy = 0.1653 J
(c) To find the ball's speed, we can use the kinetic energy formula:
Kinetic energy = 0.5 x mass x speed^2
0.1653 J = 0.5 x 0.145 kg x speed^2
Solve for speed:
speed^2 = (0.1653 J) / (0.5 x 0.145 kg)
speed^2 = 2.27379
speed = √2.27379
speed ≈ 1.51 m/s

Visit here to learn more about kinetic energy:

brainly.com/question/26472013

#SPJ11