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True. Computer-assisted coding (CAC) is an example of a clinical documentation improvement tool. CAC uses natural language processing.
machine learning algorithms to automatically generate medical codes from clinical documentation, improving coding accuracy and efficiency. It analyzes electronic health records (EHRs) to identify relevant clinical concepts, assign appropriate codes, and suggest coding options to healthcare professionals. CAC helps reduce errors, enhance compliance, and streamline the coding process, ultimately improving the quality and accuracy of clinical documentation. By automating coding tasks, CAC allows healthcare providers to focus more on patient care and spend less time on administrative tasks.
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Related Questions
Kyle has sustained a severe knee injury during football practice and is told that he has torn ligaments and cartilage in his knee. Can he expect a quick, uneventful recovery? (Be Very Specific In Your Explanation & Rationale)
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What are the five steps in the path to code a craniotomy or craniectomy
Answers
Answer:
The correct five steps are - Step 1: prepare the patient · Step 2: make a skin incision · Step 3: perform a craniotomy, open the skull · Step 4: expose the brain · Step 5: correct the problem
Explanation:
Craniotomy or craniectomy is the surgical incision in the skull of the patient and taking graft. This procedure required a proper path in order to make a successful surgery. The correct path is as follows:
Step 1: prepare the patient ·
Step 2: make a skin incision ·
Step 3: perform a craniotomy, open the skull ·
Step 4: expose the brain ·
Step 5: correct the problem.
is 6inches small?????????
Answers
Answer:
no its average
Explanation:
why we can’t open the tube and addition more saliva in collection of saliva
Answers
Reopening the tube to try to introduce more saliva is not advised. When the tube is open, do not place it on top of a table. It'll topple over.
Technologies in salivary bioscience, such electrophoresis, are frequently used to diagnose the state of a person's overall health. Since the sample is simple to gather and the process is affordable and non-invasive, saliva sampling has become a popular way for making diagnoses.
Even the possibility of substituting salivary diagnostics for serum protein indicators has been noted. The best method for gathering saliva hasn't yet been determined, though.
When handling samples from healthy volunteers in many scientific contexts, such as randomised controlled trials, sampling and statistical errors frequently occur. These mistakes may result from volunteer psychology, subject nonadherence, questionnaire parameters, data collection techniques, or sample processing.
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According to the WHO, any substance or product that is used or intended to be used to modify or explore physiological systems or pathological states for the benefit of the recipient is a ______.
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According to the WHO, any substance or product that is used or intended to be used to modify or explore physiological systems or pathological states for the benefit of the recipient is a drug.
The drug is chemical substances that change an organism's physiology or psychology when consumed. In pharmacy, it's used to treat, cure, and prevent a disease as well as promote well-being and quality of life.
In the U.S., drugs are generally classified into five basic classes:
Schedule 1 drugs, that is drugs that don't have any accepted medical use in the U.S. and have a high risk for developing substance use disorder.Schedule 2 drugs, that is drugs that have a high risk for developing substance use disorder but can be used for medical use under prescription and supervision.Schedule 3 drugs, that is drugs prescribed for illnesses, injuries, and other health-related reasons.Schedule 4 drugs, that has a very low risk for substance use disorder but are still often prescribed.Schedule 5 drugs, that has the lowest substance use disorder risk and are generally prescribed.Learn more about drugs at https://brainly.com/question/28215751
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Why was OpenAI created?
Answers
OpenAI was built as a non-profit organization to focus their research on having a positive long-term impact on humans. Motivation concern is about the existential risks posed by artificial general intelligence.
Is OpenAI profitable?OpenAI's average salary is $102,496, ranging from a low of $90,220 to a high of $115,177. Of course, individual salaries vary according to function, department, location, and each employee's individual skills and education. The organization said it would be "free" to collaborate with other institutions and researchers by making its patents and research available to the public.
Is AI a stressful job?Big Data Engineer or Architect, one of the highest paid jobs in the artificial intelligence industry, at the start of journey, earned LPA of 12-16 and has plenty of room to grow as continues . However, it is one of the most hated jobs because database administrator is a very stressful job and one mistake in the company can lead to serious consequences. All kinds of emergencies involving databases in existing systems, this AI expert has to handle it, even if it means sacrificing personal life
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The greatest risk for heatstroke exists when wet bulb globe temperature (WBGT) exceeds
a. >24ยฐ C (75ยฐ F)
b. >34ยฐ C (93ยฐ F)
c. >37ยฐ C (98.7ยฐ F)
d. >28ยฐ C (82ยฐ F)
Answers
The correct answer is c. >37ยฐ C (98.7ยฐ F). Wet bulb globe temperature (WBGT) is a measure of the combined effects of temperature, humidity, wind, and solar radiation on the human body.
When the WBGT exceeds 37ยฐ C, there is a greater risk for heatstroke, a serious medical condition that can result in organ failure and death.
Heatstroke occurs when the body's internal temperature rises to dangerous levels, and the body's natural cooling mechanisms are overwhelmed.
It is important to take precautions to prevent heatstroke, such as staying hydrated, wearing lightweight and light-colored clothing, taking breaks in the shade or indoors, and avoiding strenuous activities during the hottest parts of the day. If you or someone else shows signs of heatstroke, seek medical attention immediately.
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Explain how a patient's neurological symptoms may give an indication of where
in the brain an injury occurred.
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Answer:
Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI) is a disruption in the normal function of the brain that can be caused by a blow, bump or jolt to the head, the head suddenly and violently hitting an object or when an object pierces the skull and enters brain tissue. Observing one of the following clinical signs constitutes alteration in the normal brain function:
Loss of or decreased consciousnessLoss of memory for events before or after the event (amnesia)Focal neurological deficits such as muscle weakness, loss of vision, change in speechAlteration in mental state such as disorientation, slow thinking or difficulty concentratingSymptoms of a TBI can be mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the extent of damage to the brain. Mild cases may result in a brief change in mental state or consciousness. Severe cases may result in extended periods of unconsciousness, coma, or even death.Explanation: hope this helped you out !
The patient's neurological symptoms may give an indication of where in the brain an injury occurred the disease known as Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI).
What is Traumatic Brain Injury?The disease known as Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI) is a disruption in the normal function of the brain that can be caused by a blow, bump or jolt to the head, the head suddenly and violently hitting an object or when an object pierces the skull and enters brain tissue.
Observing one of the following clinical signs constitutes alteration in the normal brain function is the loss of or decreased consciousness loss of memory for events before or after the event (amnesia). Focal neurological deficits such as muscle weakness, loss of vision, change in speech alteration in mental state such as disorientation, slow thinking or difficulty concentrating.
Symptoms of a TBI can be mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the extent of damage to the brain. Mild cases may result in a brief change in mental state or consciousness. Severe cases may result in extended periods of unconsciousness, coma, or even death.
Therefore, The patient's neurological symptoms may give an indication of where in the brain an injury occurred the disease known as Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI).
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A physician orders D5W at 600mL over 10 hours and you are using a 20gtt/ mL IV administration set. What is the drop rate in gtt/min? (Round to the nearest whole number)
Answers
Answer:
20 gtt/min
Explanation:
This can be set on a formula I attached below (that's circled) you will have to turn hrs -> mins (which is easy in this case 10x 60 = 600 mins ), so you will multiply 600 mL x 20 gtt/mL and then divide it by 600 minutes to have 20 gtt/min.
The nurse is caring for a patient who will receive intravenous calcium gluconate. Which nursing actions are appropriate when giving this solution? (Select all that apply.)
a. Administering through a central line
b. Assessing for Trousseaus and Chvosteks signs
c. Giving as a rapid intravenous bolus
d. Mixing in a solution containing sodium bicarbonate
e. Monitoring the patients electrocardiogram (ECG)
f. Reporting a serum calcium level >2.5mEq/L
Answers
When administering intravenous calcium gluconate, appropriate nursing actions include assessing for Trousseau's and Chvostek's signs, monitoring the patient's electrocardiogram (ECG), and reporting a serum calcium level >2.5 mEq/L.
Intravenous calcium gluconate is a medication used to treat hypocalcemia and calcium channel blocker toxicity. When administering this solution, nurses should perform certain actions to ensure safe and effective administration.
Assessing for Trousseau's and Chvostek's signs is important because these signs can indicate hypocalcemia. Trousseau's sign is elicited by inflating a blood pressure cuff above systolic pressure and observing for carpal spasm, while Chvostek's sign is assessed by tapping the facial nerve and observing for facial muscle twitching. These signs can help determine the patient's calcium status and guide appropriate treatment.
Monitoring the patient's electrocardiogram (ECG) is crucial during the administration of intravenous calcium gluconate. Calcium plays a vital role in cardiac muscle contraction and electrical conduction. Monitoring the ECG allows the nurse to identify any potential cardiac rhythm disturbances or abnormalities that may arise during calcium infusion.
Reporting a serum calcium level >2.5 mEq/L is essential because it indicates hypercalcemia. Excessive administration of calcium gluconate can lead to hypercalcemia, which can have serious implications on the patient's health. Prompt reporting of elevated serum calcium levels allows for appropriate interventions to prevent complications associated with hypercalcemia.
Administering through a central line, giving as a rapid intravenous bolus, and mixing in a solution containing sodium bicarbonate are not appropriate nursing actions when giving intravenous calcium gluconate. Administration through a central line is not typically required, as peripheral administration is usually sufficient. Rapid intravenous bolus administration can cause adverse effects, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Mixing calcium gluconate with sodium bicarbonate can lead to precipitation and should be avoided.
Overall, careful assessment, monitoring, and appropriate reporting are crucial when administering intravenous calcium gluconate to ensure patient safety and optimal therapeutic outcomes.
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Laboratory testing is ordered for Maria. Based on Maria's signs and symptoms, you expect the laboratory results to reveal (select all that apply):
Answers
Answer:
Sepsis disease.
Explanation:
Maria has a symptoms of body swelling, reduced urine output and difficulty in breathing. The disease can be caused by fungal infection or bacteria attack. Body swelling is the major symptom of this disease. The laboratory report is expected to result in Sepsis positive.
An apple and a glass of milk can give you more nutrition as compared to a milkshake prepared from apple and milk. Justify it on the basis of Physiology of Git
Answers
Due to difference in the amount of apple and milk.
An apple and a glass of milk can give you more nutrition as compared to a milkshake that is prepared from apple and milk due to there difference in their concentration. A milkshake that is prepared from apple and milk has lower in quantity means half piece of apple and half glass of milk is used while on the other hand, full apple and full glass of milk are more in quantity so they are high in nutrition and energy.
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What is the reason for the drop in the age adjusted cancer death rate as of 2017?
Answers
Answer:
Record Drop in the age adjusted cancer death rate as of 2017 due to Improved Lung Cancer Treatment.
HCPCS level II codes are: a. sometimes replaced by HCPCS level III temporary codes. b. intended for use by all private and public health insurers. c. maintained by the AMA's Editorial Board, which makes decisions about additions, revisions, and deletions. d. updated by CMS when necessary, without participation by the HCPCS National Panel.
Answers
Answer:
HCPCS Level II codes are alphanumeric medical procedure codes, primarily for non-physician services such as ambulance services and prosthetic devices,. They represent items, supplies and non-physician services not covered by CPT-4 codes (Level I).
Explanation:
when a person has a conditioned response to one stimulus, and later also responds to other, similar stimuli, this is known as stimulus:_____.
Answers
When a person has a conditioned response to one stimulus, and later also responds to other, similar stimuli, this is known as stimulus generalization.
Stimulus generalization happens when someone reacts similarly to a new stimulus that is comparable to the original conditioned stimulus. This is due to the fact that the new stimulus has some similarities to the original stimulus in terms of features or traits, and the person has come to identify those similarities with the conditioned response. The idea of stimulus generalization is crucial to understanding classical conditioning because it explains how humans come to respond to a variety of stimuli that have similar characteristics.
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Depolarization of the sarcolemma means
Answers
Answer: indicates that the nerve impulse is moving on from the nerve cell to the muscle cell.
Explanation:
the nurse prepares to assess a client for pain. which question(s) will the nurse ask this client? select all that apply.
Answers
Clients identified by the nurse as being at risk of neuropathic pain are clients with postherpetic neuralgia, phantom limb pain, diabetic neuropathy, and complex regional pain syndrome. Hence the correct options are B, C, D and F.
What is neuropathic pain?Neuropathic pain is defined as damage to the nervous system affecting the somatosensory system that may be related to sensations of dysesthesia and pain delivered by non-painful stimuli. Neuropathic pain is not always constant but can be episodic.
Symptoms include burning or severe cold, tingling, itching, numbness and loss of sensitivity in the affected area.
Hence the correct options are B, C, D and F.
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Your question is incomplete, most probably the complete question is:
The nurse is assessing clients with common pain syndromes that cause neuropathic pain. Which clients would the nurse identify are at risk for neuropathic pain? Select all that apply.
A. a client who has a tooth abscess
B. a client with postherpetic neuralgia
C. a client with phantom limb pain
D. a client with diabetic neuropathy
E. a client who has lung cancer
F. A client with complex regional pain syndrome
determine if this conjecture is true. if not, give a counterexample. the difference of two negative numbers is a positive number. luoa
Answers
The conjecture "the difference of two negative numbers is a positive number" is true. This can be proven using the following example:
Let a and b be any two negative numbers. Thus, a < 0 and b < 0. Therefore, a - b < 0 - 0. Simplifying the equation gives a - b < 0 which means that the difference of two negative numbers is negative, not positive.However, if a = -2 and b = -5, then a - b = -2 - (-5) = -2 + 5 = 3, which is a positive number. Therefore, this particular example serves as a counterexample to the conjecture for the values a = -2 and b = -5.About NegativeNegative is a trait or state that shows disapproval, dislike, or rejection of something. Negative can also mean something opposite to positive, as in math or physics. Negative can have a bad impact on yourself and others if not balanced with a positive attitude.
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is very painful injury is most often caused by a hard fall to the buttocks
Answers
Answer:
yes
Explanation:
yes
Not really, one of the most common injuries and one of the most painful is ankle sprains.
Early signs of pressure ulcers include
Answers
Answer: Unusual changes in skin color or texture, Swelling, Pus-like
draining, An area of skin that feels cooler or warmer to the touch than other areas or Tender areas.
Explanation:
5.A pediatric client was diagnosed with Reye Syndrome. Which of the following statements by the parent indicate understanding of this diagnosis? (select all that apply) a."Reye Syndrome typically follows a viral illness."b."There is no association between using aspirin for fevers and development of Reye Syndrome."c."My son's liver function may return to full function."d."His symptoms of irritability, confusion, and lethargy are expected with this diagnosis."
Answers
Reye Syndrome typically follows a viral illness.
My son's liver function may return to full function.
Options A and C are correct:
What is Reye Syndrome?Reye Syndrome is a rare but potentially life-threatening condition that primarily affects children and young adults. It is characterized by a sudden onset of brain and liver inflammation, often following a viral infection such as the flu or chickenpox.
The exact cause of Reye Syndrome is not fully understood, but it has been linked to the use of aspirin or aspirin-containing medications during viral illnesses. For this reason, aspirin is not recommended for children or teenagers with viral infections.
Symptoms of Reye Syndrome can include persistent vomiting, lethargy, confusion, seizures, and loss of consciousness. If left untreated, it can lead to coma and even death.
Treatment typically involves hospitalization and supportive care, such as fluids and electrolytes, to manage symptoms and prevent complications. It is important to seek medical attention promptly if you or someone you know develops symptoms of Reye Syndrome.
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What is true regarding provider education surrounding the Drug Addiction Treatment Act of 2000 (DATA 2000) and the Comprehensive Addiction and Recovery Act of 2016 (CARA)?
Answers
2000 Drug Dependence Treatment (DATA2000). The law allows individual physicians in private practice to administer Schedule III-V narcotics for drug treatment purposes other than opioid treatment practices. According to
DATA2000, part of the 2000 Pediatric Health Act, physicians with specific qualifications treat opioid addiction with FDA-approved narcotics (including buprenorphine) in non-OTP treatment environments. I can do it.
President Obama signed the Comprehensive Addiction and Recovery Act (CARA) on July 22, 2016. The bill was introduced by Senator Sheldon Whitehouse and Senator Jim Sensen Brenner as the main federal law on addiction for the first time in 40 years.
Comprehensive Dependence and Recovery Act (CARA) establishes a comprehensive, coordinated, and balanced strategy through extended grant programs that expand prevention and education efforts while facilitating treatment and recovery.
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dentify the true statement.
a.
PK is not a good predictor of how quickly the PD effect will start.
b.
How quickly a drug is distributed in the body is a study of pharmacodynamics of a drug.,
c.
How slow (or fast) a drug is metabolized can allow us to determine the dosing schedule of a drug.
d.
Both b and c
Answers
The true statement is b. How quickly a drug is distributed in the body is a study of pharmacodynamics of a drug.
Pharmacodynamic actions of a drug include stimulating activity by directly inhibiting a receptor and its downstream effects. Depressing activity by direct receptor inhibition and its downstream effects. Antagonistic or obstruction a receptor by binding to that, however not activating it.
4 stages of pharmacodynamics are Absorption: Describes however the drug moves from the location of administration to the location of action. Distribution: Describes the journey of the drug through the blood to varied tissues of the body. Metabolism: Describes the method that breaks down the drug. Excretion: Describes the removal of the drug from the body.
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what is an example of the critical thinking attitude of independent thinking in nursing practice?
Answers
An example of the critical thinking attitude of independent thinking in nursing practice is when a nurse assesses a patient's symptoms and considers alternative diagnoses, rather than relying solely on a doctor's initial diagnosis.
The nurse critically evaluates the available information, uses their own judgment and knowledge, and considers the patient's unique circumstances to develop an independent opinion on the appropriate course of treatment. This approach demonstrates a critical attitude and independent thinking in nursing practice, as the nurse is actively engaging in the decision-making process and not just passively accepting information from others. So, an example of the critical thinking attitude of independent thinking in nursing practice is when a nurse assesses a patient's symptoms and considers alternative diagnoses, rather than relying solely on a doctor's initial diagnosis.
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Which statement is true about fibroblasts? They are a type of cell that can be found in ET. They prevent the blood from thinning too much. They are a type of WBC that fights off bacterial and viral infections. They make the protein fibers in CT.
Answers
Answer:
They make the protein fibers in CT
Explanation:
Fibroblast is a proteinous compound which aids the synthesis and maintenance of extra cellular matrix.
They also help in the wound healing processes of the body and as a major component of the connective tissues in the body also.
The analysis above then validates the fibroblast as making the protein fibers in the connective tissue.
They make the protein fibers in CT.
• One of the most common kind of cell found in connective tissue is a fibroblast.
• It produces collagen proteins, which are used to sustain a structural framework for several tissues.
• They also perform an essential function in the process of healing.
• They are critical in breaking down the fibrin clot, in supporting the normal wound healing, producing novel extra cellular matrix, and collagen compositions to support other cells related to effective healing of wound.
Thus, the correct statement is that they make the protein fibers in CT.
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Depositions are A. written quiestions that must be answered under oath. B. a discovery method for obtaining documentary evidence. C. a discovery method for avoiding the need to prove a fact in court D. a discovery method for obtaining testimony under oath
Answers
Depositions are a discovery method for obtaining testimony under oath. In a deposition, an attorney or representative of a litigant will ask questions of a witness or other party in order to elicit answers from them.
Correct option is C.
When done correctly, depositions are a powerful tool to obtain the evidence and to gather the truth about a case. The questions can be difficult, and the witness must be sure to answer them truthfully. Depositions are conducted outside of a courtroom, typically in an attorney’s office, and they are recorded.
The parties to the case will have to agree on the questions to be answered and the time the deposition will take place. The questions that are asked, and all of the answers provided, become part of the evidence for the case. Depositions help attorneys to prepare their case for a jury, as they can make sure that all the facts will come out in the open.
Correct option is C.
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Sam overhears two patients in the waiting area of the physician’s office communicating in their native language, which isn't English. One of his coworkers, Paula, comments that she finds this offensive because the conversation may pertain to her or other coworkers. Paula tells Sam that she's going to tell the patients they need to speak in English, even though they're still sitting in the waiting area. Sam immediately advises Paula against doing so, and tells her that all health care workers need to be accepting and sensitive towards others' cultures. What else should Sam do if Paula refuses to listen?
Answers
Answer:Sam should walk to the patients when paula went
what she say he can say that things which shouldn’t hurt the patients
Explanation:
It is important to understand that the distinction between Response and Recovery is often a fuzzy one, and that the end of one phase and the beginning of another depends on the Incident Commander declaring it to be so.Explain why the Recovery phase can be considered as a "window of opportunity" for Risk Reduction, and describe some kinds of Risk Reduction measures that are easier to achieve during Recovery than at other times (and WHY are they easier?).
Answers
During the recovery phase, there is an opportunity to implement risk reduction measures. This phase is often considered a "window of opportunity" because it allows for a focused effort on reducing future risks.
Some kinds of risk reduction measures that are easier to achieve during the recovery phase include:
1. Infrastructure improvements: Repairing or upgrading damaged infrastructure can incorporate risk reduction measures. For example, reinforcing buildings or bridges can make them more resilient to future incidents.
2. Policy changes: The recovery phase provides an opportunity to review and update policies and regulations. This can include implementing stricter building codes or zoning regulations to mitigate future risks.
3. Community engagement and education: During recovery, there is often increased community involvement. This presents a chance to educate and raise awareness about potential risks. By educating residents about disaster preparedness and mitigation strategies, the community becomes more resilient.
4. Enhanced emergency response plans: The recovery phase allows for the evaluation and improvement of emergency response plans. This includes identifying weaknesses and incorporating risk reduction strategies to ensure a more effective response in the future.
These risk reduction measures are easier to achieve during the recovery phase because there is a heightened awareness of the impact of the incident and a collective effort to prevent similar events from occurring. Additionally, there is often increased funding and resources available for implementing these measures.
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Now that you used the scale to indicate your level of understanding, provide specific examples and details to support your selection.
Answers
Answer:
Now that you used the scale to indicate your level of understanding, provide specific examples and details to support your selection.
1 answer
·
Top answer:
A rubric is a grading matrix that specifies the standards for scoring
Explanation:
A rubric is a matrix used to grade assignments, such as discussions, papers, performances, products, show-the-work problems, portfolios, and presentations.
What function do assessment rubrics serve?Using a rubric, you can compare the requirements for finishing an assignment to the benchmarks for success. The precise elements of your marking scheme can be addressed with the aid of rubrics.
How crucial are rubrics in evaluating students' performance?With the help of rubrics, students have a better chance of attaining a certain goal. They direct curriculum design and uphold reliable assessments with honesty. Good rubrics allow students to assess themselves and learn on their own.
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Q: How have the fields of anatomy and physiology changed over time and what led to these changes?