as a pharmacological approach to the treatment of anxiety disorders, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (ssris) correct serotonin imbalances by

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Answer 1

As a pharmacological approach to the treatment of anxiety disorders, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) correct serotonin imbalances by inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin molecules in the brain.

Serotonin is a neurotransmitter involved in the regulation of mood, emotions, and anxiety. By blocking the reuptake of serotonin, SSRIs increase the concentration of serotonin in the synaptic cleft, the space between nerve cells. This extended presence of serotonin enhances neurotransmission and facilitates communication between neurons. The increased availability of serotonin helps to alleviate symptoms of anxiety by promoting a more balanced mood state.

By modulating serotonin levels, SSRIs can effectively alleviate anxiety symptoms in individuals with anxiety disorders and restore a healthier neurotransmitter balance in the brain. It is important to note that individual responses to SSRIs may vary, and treatment should be monitored by a healthcare professional.

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The correct question is:

Fill in the blanks:

As a pharmacological approach to the treatment of anxiety disorders, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) correct serotonin imbalances by __________.


Related Questions

1. Which physical barrier was broken when meredith’s wound developed? explain how this wound increased meredith’s chances of infection

Answers

Meredith's wound likely broke the skin's physical barrier, which is the body's first line of defense against infection. The skin acts as a protective barrier that prevents microorganisms from entering the body, but when it is broken, microorganisms such as bacteria and viruses can enter the body through the wound.

When the skin is broken, it creates an entry point for microorganisms to invade the body. Once the microorganisms enter the body through the wound, they can multiply and cause an infection. Infections can lead to a variety of complications such as delayed wound healing, inflammation, redness, swelling, pain, fever, and even sepsis in severe cases.

Therefore, any wound or break in the skin increases the risk of infection by providing a gateway for microorganisms to enter the body, and it is important to keep the wound clean and protected to prevent infection.

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In the context of survey research, identify a true statement about a sample.

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The sample simply means the set of individuals that are selected from the total population by the researcher.

A survey research refers to the quantitative method that's used by researchers when they want to collect information from respondents

A survey simply means the list of questions that are given to the respondents in order to get a specific data from them which will be used for a research purpose

A sample simply means part of a larger group. The smaller represents the whole group. For example, if there are 100 students in a class, a researcher can choose 10 students from the 100 students. The 10 students chosen represent the sample.

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You are near the entrance to the operating room department when a vendor approaches you and asks where to go. What should you do first?

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Answer:tell him your sorry but your in a rush

Explanation:

Which best describes the term donning?

Answers

Answer:

Act of placing an item

Explanation:

verb (used with object), donned, don·ning.

to put on or dress in: to don one's clothes.

Is marijuana bad for the skeletal system and why

Answers

Answer:

People who regularly smoke large amounts of marijuana may be more susceptible to bone fractures than people who don't use the drug,

Explanation:

Yes it could be if you smoke excessive amounts

typically, micronutrients constitute what part of plant biomass?

Answers

Typically, micronutrients constitute the root part of plant biomass.

The root system is made up of two major structures: the root cap and the main root system. The root meristem, meristematic region, elongation region, and maturation region are all characteristics of the primary root. Lateral roots grow below the primary root.

Roots are the oldest and most vital underground portion of a plant, which is referred to as the root system. They are the main component that holds the plant tightly in place in the soil. They absorb soil water and minerals, synthesize hormonal officials, and store reserve food.

Seed plant roots have three key functions: attaching the plant to the earth, absorbing mineral nutrients and transmitting them upward, and storing photosynthetic products. Some roots have been modified to

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what type of compounds are suitable for iodine visualization method in tlc

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Non-volatile, organic compounds containing unsaturated carbon-carbon bonds or functional groups such as alcohols, amines, and carboxylic acids are suitable for iodine visualization method in TLC.

Iodine visualization method is used to detect the presence of organic compounds in thin layer chromatography (TLC). This method works by reacting with the unsaturated carbon-carbon bonds or functional groups in the compound to form a complex that can be seen as a brownish-yellow spot on the TLC plate. Non-volatile compounds are preferred for this method because volatile compounds may evaporate and not show up on the plate.

Organic compounds containing functional groups such as alcohols, amines, and carboxylic acids also react with iodine and are suitable for this method. In addition, unsaturated carbon-carbon bonds, such as those found in alkenes and alkynes, also react with iodine and produce a visible spot. It is important to note that not all organic compounds are suitable for iodine visualization and other detection methods may need to be used.

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What does the acronym RACE stand for, as it pertains to fire safety?

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Answer:

Remove, Alarm, Confine, and Extinguish/Evacuate

What code(s) is(are) assigned for a patient receiving home care after kidney transplant? a Z48.22 b Z48.22, Z94.0 C. N18.6 d. Z94.0'

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a Z48.22 code(s) is(are) assigned for a patient receiving home care after kidney transplant.

How do aftercare codes work?

When the original course of treatment for an illness has been completed but the patient still needs ongoing care for the duration of the healing or recovery process or for the long-term effects of the condition, aftercare visit codes are provided.

For patients getting ongoing treatment during the healing process or for the long-term effects of a condition, the aftercare codes (Z47-Z48) are utilised. Reminder: For following encounters, code to the individual injury with the seventh character rather than using these codes with the injury codes.

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five different types of white blood cells of the immune system ​

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The five main types of blood cells are basophils, neutrophils, eosinophils, monocytes, and lymphocytes.

Explain the significance of gatekeeping in regards to primary care and keeping health care costs down.

Answers

Gatekeeping is the process of managing access to health care services. It is an important concept in primary care that helps to ensure that health care costs remain low.

Gatekeeping involves the primary care physician making referrals to specialists when needed and determining the best course of action for a patient’s medical care.

By having a primary care physician serve as a gatekeeper, it can help to prevent unnecessary visits to specialists, costly tests, and other treatments that may not be necessary. It also helps to avoid duplications of services and overlapping of care among different providers.

Gatekeeping also encourages preventive care and health education, which can help to reduce long-term health care costs. Gatekeeping can help to keep costs down by ensuring that patients are getting the most appropriate care for their medical needs.

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Charlie eats eggs and foods from the dairy group, but does not consume any other animal food products. This type of diet is considered a/an _________ diet.

Answers

Answer:

pollotarian diet

Explanation:

A pollotarian diet is a type of semi-vegetarianism in which chicken is allowed, but red meat and pork are not. Some pollotarians may also include eggs and dairy.

You are working as the triage nurse in the ED when the following four clients arrive. Which client requires the most rapid action to protect other clients in the ED from infection?
1. 3-year-old who has paroxysmal coughing and whose sibling has pertussis
2. 5-year-old who has a new pruritic rash and a possible chickenpox infection
3. 62-year-old who has a history of a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) abdominal wound infection
4. 74-year-old who needs tuberculosis (TB) testing after being exposed to TB during a recent international airplane flight

Answers

The client who requires the most rapid action to protect other clients in the ED from infection is the 3-year-old who has paroxysmal coughing and whose sibling has pertussis.

Pertussis, also known as whooping cough, is a highly contagious respiratory infection caused by the bacteria Bordetella pertussis. It spreads through respiratory droplets when an infected person coughs or sneezes. Given that the 3-year-old has paroxysmal coughing and a sibling with pertussis, there is a high suspicion of possible pertussis infection. Immediate action is necessary to isolate and prevent the spread of the bacteria to other clients in the ED. This may involve implementing airborne precautions, providing appropriate respiratory hygiene, and conducting diagnostic tests to confirm the diagnosis. Prompt identification and isolation of the client with pertussis are crucial to minimizing the risk of transmission and protecting others in the ED from infection.

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Which food was one of the first recognized for its ability to reduce blood cholesterol and the risk of heart disease

Answers

Answer: oatmeal

Explanation:

the answer is oatmeal

a client is diagnosed with early-stage alzheimer's disease. the nurse will anticipate that the client will be given a(n):

Answers

A client diagnosed with early-stage Alzheimer's disease may be given a cholinesterase inhibitor medication, such as donepezil, to help manage symptoms and slow the progression of the disease.

Assessment and Diagnosis: The client undergoes a thorough assessment, including medical history, cognitive testing, and imaging studies, leading to a diagnosis of early-stage Alzheimer's disease.- Treatment Plan: The healthcare provider develops a treatment plan based on the client's specific needs and stage of the disease. In early-stage Alzheimer's, the primary goal is to manage symptoms and slow down cognitive decline.- Cholinesterase Inhibitors: The nurse anticipates that the client will be prescribed a cholinesterase inhibitor medication, such as donepezil, rivastigmine, or galantamine. These medications work by increasing the levels of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter involved in memory and cognitive function.- Medication Administration: The nurse administers the prescribed cholinesterase inhibitor according to the prescribed dosage and schedule. Close monitoring of the client's response to the medication, side effects, and potential drug interactions is essential.- Education and Support: The nurse educates the client and their family about the medication, its purpose, potential benefits, and possible side effects. The nurse also provides emotional support, encourages adherence to the medication regimen, and addresses any concerns or questions.

It is important to note that the specific medication and treatment plan may vary depending on the client's individual needs and healthcare provider's recommendations. Regular follow-up and ongoing assessment are essential to evaluate the client's response to treatment and adjust the plan accordingly.

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The __________ secrete(s) __________, which promotes Na+ and water retention.A. Adrenal medulla; epinephrineB. Pancreas; cortisolC. Kidneys; corticosteroneD. Adrenal cortex; aldosteroneE. Thyroid; calcitonin

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Why do you think it is important to invert the bottle and the syringe before filling the syringe

Answers

Answer:

so that there are no possible air bubbles or harmful problems

Explanation:

Rosita is excited about her first day at a physician's office as an administrative medial assistant. Which of the following should Rosita also keep in mind about her physical appearance while working at the office?

Answers

The options that should Rosita can also keep in mind about her physical appearance while working at the office is  option C: Facial or tongue piercings are unacceptable in most offices.

What is Workplace etiquette about?

How you come across to others at work matters whether you are beginning your first internship or have years of work experience under your belt. Building new relationships and ensuring you have a successful, happy experience at work require you to set a professional tone.

Note that In the majority of business and corporate settings, sandals and open-toed (and open-heel) shoes are not seen as appropriate attire Although open-toed shoes and a business suit can look fantastic together, they are nevertheless not accepted in a formal business atmosphere. Piercing of any kind that is visible on the face or body is not acceptable.

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See full question below

Which of the following should Rosita also keep in mind about her physical appearance while working at the office?

Shoes worn should be open-toed.

Name pins and tags need to be visible only when dealing with new patients.

Facial or tongue piercings are unacceptable in most offices.

What is the appropriate procedure for using an ice water bath with a student who is having a serious heat reaction?
Immediately immerse the player entirely into the ice bath.
Remove the student's equipment and shirt, and then submerge all but the head in the ice water bath.
Cool the student down before going to an ice bath to avoid shocking their system. Wait for EMS to arrive to determine if an ice bath is appropriate treatment.

Answers

I’d say waiting for EMS is the best bet. Especially cause this practice is done quiet often with football players but usually for physical shaping and workouts not for medical problems such as abnormal heat reactions

An ice water bath with a student suffering from heat reaction is used by removing the student's equipment and clothes and then submerging all but the head in the ice water bath. Thus, option b is correct.

What is an ice water bath?

An ice water bath is a method and cold therapy that reduces inflammation, soothes muscles, provides a boost, and enhances the breathing rate. It can be used for medical issues like heat reactions.

To use the ice bath the excess clothes of the person suffering must be removed so that the increased temperature is dealt with. The water in the tub must be about 35-58 degrees Fahrenheit in temperature.

Emerge the whole body except for the head of the person in the water for approximately 30 minutes. Add ice to maintain the cold temperature and then lift the person when the body temperature is reduced.

Therefore, the ice bath is given in case of heat reaction.

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In a patient who is showing signs and symptoms of respiratory compromise, you should provide the minimum level of supplemental oxygen needed to maintain an oxygen saturation of at least:
Select the correct answer to this question.

A)80%.
B)85%.
C)90%.
D) 94%.

Answers

In a patient who is showing signs and symptoms of respiratory compromise, you should provide the minimum level of supplemental oxygen needed to maintain an oxygen saturation of at least 90%.

Respiratory compromise occurs when the respiratory system cannot supply enough oxygen to maintain homeostasis in the body. The body's compensatory mechanisms eventually fail, resulting in respiratory failure, which is life-threatening.

The percentage of oxygen-saturated hemoglobin relative to total hemoglobin in the blood is referred to as oxygen saturation (SaO2). In other words, it measures the amount of oxygen that is being carried by the red blood cells.

Oxygen saturation can be measured using a non-invasive tool known as a pulse oximeter. It is a device that clips onto your finger, toe, or earlobe and measures your pulse rate and oxygen saturation. It emits light waves through the skin to measure the oxygen saturation of the blood.

According to the American Association for Respiratory Care, in a patient who is showing signs and symptoms of respiratory compromise, you should provide the minimum level of supplemental oxygen needed to maintain an oxygen saturation of at least 90%. Thus, option C is the correct answer.

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The purpose of this assignment is to evaluate the nutritional composition of a diet and the lab values from a patient with NAFLD, Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease. This will help you to make the connections between dietary intake, lab values, and liver disease to suggest practical recommendations for your future patients with this condition. The information gathered here will also provide a foundation for the final project (Patient Education Handout) that you will create at the end of the term.


Learning Outcome:

Students will:


Identify risk factors for NAFLD

Identify the dietary and lifestyle components to treat & prevent NAFLD.

Identify the differences between NAFLD and alcoholic-related liver disease.

Identify appropriate management of NAFLD


Step 2 Attach the Draft Patient Education Handout to a Post

Answers

It's important to work with a healthcare professional or registered dietitian to develop an individualized nutrition plan for patients with NAFLD.

What is Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease?

A healthy diet for patients with NAFLD should include:

High fiber: Consuming high-fiber foods can help to reduce inflammation and improve insulin sensitivity. Include foods like whole grains, fruits, and vegetables.

Lean protein: Choose lean protein sources like skinless chicken, fish, and legumes to reduce the intake of saturated and trans fats.

Healthy fats: Incorporate healthy fats like olive oil, avocado, nuts, and seeds to improve insulin sensitivity and reduce inflammation.

Low sugar: Limit intake of added sugars and high-glycemic index carbohydrates to help improve insulin sensitivity.

Limit alcohol: Avoid or limit alcohol intake as it can increase the risk of liver damage.

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A 37year-old male diagnosed with hypertension has been treated with a low sodium diet and hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) 50 mg qd for the past two months. He denies Family history of cardiovascular disease. At today's follow-up visit his BP=150/90 and T=I00 F. Physical examination reveals no bruits, clear chest, no atrial gallop, edema and tenderness of the left ankle, and an intact neurological system. Which laboratory values will provide the most useful follow-up information

Answers

Answer and explanation:

Laboratory analyses that are useful to assess the cardiovascular risk by evaluating the oxidative stress:

- To measure the 8-isoprostane concentration in plasma. It is possible to determine its level by using the ELISA (Enzyme-Linked ImmunoSorbent Assay) assay.  

- To measure the nitrite and nitrate concentrations, which may also be associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular disease. The Griess reaction is specific for nitrite (and thereby it can be used to determine its level), while deproteinization methods enable to calculate the nitrite concentration.

You can read the following publication with detailed information about the methodologies above described:  

P. S. Silva,  V. Fontana, A.C. Palei, J.T. Sertório, C. Biagi, & J. E. Tanus-Santos (2011). Antihypertensive effects exerted by enalapril in mild to moderate hypertension are not associated with changes in the circulating levels of nitric oxide-related markers. European journal of clinical pharmacology, 67(4), 365-370.

What are the requirements when checking in C3-5 products

Answers

Handwritten marks such as circles, checkmarks, slashes, and so on are required.

What are C3-5 and pse?

The C3-5 and Pse are certificates that give the products a grade. Using CFRX, all Cill-Vs should be checked into the electronic delivery check-in screen.

Each page of the invoice contains a signature. Each page of the invoice must include the date received.

The date when the Ciii-v and Pse products were obtained must be documented on each page of the invoice.

As a result, the prerequisites are handwritten marks such as circles, checkmarks, slashes, and so on.

Thus, these are the basic requirements when checking in C3-5 products.

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Trace the path of a sperm cell from the site of its maturation to the site where it leaves the male body. Include descriptions of fluids added along that path.

Answers

Sperm cells mature in the testes, move to the epididymis, mix with seminal fluid in the vas deferens, and are expelled through the urethra during ejaculation.

Sperm cells, the male reproductive cells, undergo maturation within the testes, specifically in the seminiferous tubules. The process of maturation is called spermatogenesis. Once the sperm cells are fully developed, they move into the epididymis, a tightly coiled tube located on the back of each testicle.

Within the epididymis, the sperm cells undergo further maturation and acquire motility. They are stored in the epididymal ducts until ejaculation. While in the epididymis, the sperm cells receive nourishment and are bathed in a fluid secreted by the epididymal cells. This fluid provides the necessary nutrients and proteins for sperm maturation.

During ejaculation, the sperm cells are propelled from the epididymis into the vas deferens, a muscular tube that connects the epididymis to the ejaculatory ducts. Along the vas deferens, the sperm cells mix with seminal fluid produced by the seminal vesicles, prostate gland, and bulbourethral glands. This seminal fluid provides energy, nutrients, and lubrication for the sperm cells.

The mixture of sperm cells and seminal fluid forms semen, which travels through the ejaculatory ducts and enters the urethra. Finally, during ejaculation, semen is expelled from the male body through the urethra, allowing the sperm cells to potentially fertilize an egg in the female reproductive system.

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Answer the statistical measures and create a box and whiskers plot for the following set of data.
6, 6, 7, 7, 7, 8, 8, 10, 11, 11, 12, 17, 19
6,6,7,7,7,8,8,10,11,11,12,17,19
Min:
Q1:
Med:
Q3:
Max:
Create the box plot by dragging the lines:

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

2,5,7,8,8, 10, 11, 12, 14, 14, 15, 16, 18, 18, 19

The formula for a ciprofloxacin otic drop
is given in the literature as follows:
Ciprofloxacin 1 g
Propylene Glycol 50 mL
Glycerin qs ad 100 mL
How many grams of ciprofloxacin s would be required to prepare 200 15-mL bottles of the ear drop?

Answers

Answer:

2 gm

Explanation:

Not positive, but here it goes:

1 gm Cipro per 150 ml

200 * 15 ml = 300 ml of soln

300/150 = 2 gm cipro needed

how to apply eardrops to a 2 year old

Answers

Push their head down and drop them in there

You are the nurse working in the Emergency Room at a local hospital. Patient D, 32 years of age comes

in complaining of “swollen legs” and lightheadedness. Patient verbalized that she is at her 24th week of

pregnancy, but did not go to any pre-natal checkups. Patient also complains of not being able to void

and states that her bladder feels full. Obstetric history reveals she is G1-T0-P0-A0-L0. She has a family

history of Diabetes from her grandparents down to her parents, but she did not have her blood glucose

levels checked, and her cousin has just had an Ectopic Pregnancy, nurses notes of this scenario?​

Answers

Answer:

she could have dieabtes or she has it because of being pregnant

Explanation:

Which body develops programs to control disease in food animals?

Introduction to Animal Care for Veterinary Technicians

Answers

Answer:

USDA, with FDA and the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)

Explanation:

administers the U.S. National Residue Program (NRP) to prevent residues that pose a potential threat to human health from entering the food supply.

Joes manager , Claire , has a very busy week at the warehouse. Joe has been places in finding a room to put all the new deliveries but he has some questions to ask Claire. Which shows he respects her time ? A. emailing clair a long list of questions. B. booking a 10 min meeting to ask the most urgent questions. C. booking a two hour meeting for tmr to discuss all the questions at once D. calling claire after work to discuss his questions

Answers

Answer:

B. booking a 10 minute meeting

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