what are disorders of salivary gland?
Answer:
VirusesCancerous and noncancerous tumors Sjögren's syndrome -Sialolithiasis and sialadenitisAnswer:
there are many disorders of the salivary gland
Explanation:
These include:
Cancerous tumors Sjögren’s syndromeParotidSubmandibularSublingual glandsSialolithiasis SialadenitisPsychology
An example of a hidden variable would be:
A. hindsight bias.
B. infants drink more milk than adults.
C. bald people who wear diapers tend to cry more often than other
people.
D. teens usually get their licenses at 16.
Value: 1
When caring for a resident, it is best to avoid the use of restraints whenever possible. If a restraint is ordered and
must be used, which practice is not recommended?
O a. Observe the resident frequently.
O b. Maintain a calm environment.
O c. Approach care with a gentleness, kindness and respect.
O d. Determine effectiveness by testing out a different restraint on the resident.
The weird option that sounds is the statement number 4. Option 4 is the correct answer.
What is the best thing that is done in this situation ?In this situation the best things that is done to keep calm and handle the situation peacefully.
Observe the resident again and again to check the response that is given by the body so that a problem has not occured in the fractions of the time. Maintaining a calm and peaceful environment is very important as the haste makes up the waste.
Approach care with a gentleness, kindness and respect to avoid any kind of panic situations that can happen. Determine effectiveness by testing out a different restraint on the resident sounds wrong because it is not wise to directly experiment without having much of the ideas.
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Please help me with these questions! Lots of points! I already asked Biology and nobody answered me after 2 hours...
A man with type A blood is married to a woman with type O blood. What are ALL of the possible blood types of their children?
A man with type AB blood is married to a woman with type O blood. What are all the possible blood types of their children?
A man with type A blood whose mother was type O is married to a woman with type AB blood. What are the possible blood types of their children and in what proportion?
Answer:
AB +
Explanation:
because you are expected to attempt any five questions from section is provided with four possible options for the following lamina I and III only I and III only one I got a new one is a good night girl is the work I have to praise and glory to the completion of examination time to get some rest baby I just want to do that to my house I will be going there for you guys have to
ACTIVE LEARNING TEMPLATE: Basic Concept STUDENT NAME CONCEPT REVIEW MODULE CHAPTER Related Content Underlying Principles Nursing Interventions WHO? WHEN? WHY? HOW? (E.G., DELEGATION, LEVELS OF PREVENTION, ADVANCE DIRECTIVES) ACTIVE FARNING TEMPLATES
Nursing interventions are taken by the nurses for the treatment of the patients, and the interventions include a wide range of functions such as planning, evaluation of the care, etc.
What exactly are nursing interventions and nursing care?Nursing interventions and nursing care include a wide range of activities, such as treatment planning, providing proper care, and properly counseling patients' families etc. There are various guidelines to follow to improve patient safety and the quality of nursing care.
Hence, nursing interventions are taken by the nurses for the treatment of the patients, and the interventions include a wide range of functions such as planning, evaluation of the care, etc.
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After a laryngectomy, a client experiences frequent coughing episodes and copious production of secretions. the nurse would explain that the symptoms are the result of which condition?
The symptoms are the result of reaction of the mucous membrane to air that is dry and cool.
What is laryngectomy ?Laryngectomy is the careful evacuation of the larynx. The larynx is the piece of your throat that houses your vocal strings, which permit you to deliver sound. The larynx associates your nose and mouth to your lungs. It likewise safeguards your breathing framework by keeping the things you eat or savor your throat and out of your lungs.
In the event that you have a laryngectomy, it will influence your talking, gulping, and relaxing. You'll have to learn better approaches to play out each of the three undertakings after medical procedure.
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What are the key skills and qualities that you need to be an effective nursing associate in your clinical area?
Answer:
Qualities That Make a Great Nurse
High Standards of Professionalism. Nurses need to be professional in their approach towards their work. ...
Never-Ending Diligence. ...
Exceptional Communication Skills. ...
Effective Interpersonal Skills. ...
Attention to Detail. ...
Quick Problem-Solving Abilities. ...
Action-Oriented. ...
A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving ferrous sulfate. the nurse instructs the client that which finding is a common side/adverse effect associated with this medication?
Constipation is a frequent adverse effect or reaction to this medication.
Ferrous sulfateAnemia is treated with the iron supplement ferrous sulfate. Constipation is a common and unpleasant side effect brought on by taking oral iron supplements.Constipation is frequently treated with the prescription of stool softeners.chronic kidney diseaseWhen kidney function is compromised by a disease or condition, chronic kidney disease develops. The kidney damage worsens over a period of months or years.Diabetes, whether type 1 or type 2, is one of the illnesses and disorders that can lead to chronic renal disease. elevated blood pressureCan kidney illness be cured over time?Chronic kidney disease (CKD) has no known cure, however treatment can help manage the condition's symptoms and prevent further deterioration. Your CKD stage will determine your course of treatment. Changes in lifestyle are the key treatments, which can help you maintain your health.learn more about Chronic kidney disease here
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I. Inquiring Patients Want to Know You are working in a general practice medical office. Your patients ask you the following questions. In the space provided, indicate how you would respond to each question in terms the patient would understand. Use your textbook and Internet resources to develop your responses.
1. What causes an optical illusion?
2. How does LASIK surgery improve vision?
3. How does loud music damage hearing?
4. What is the reason for putting tubes in the eardrum?
5. What causes eye floaters?
6. Why do my ears get plugged when I am on an airplane?
7. What can cause an eardrum to rupture?
8. Why does a dog have a better sense of smell than a human?
9. Why can you not taste food when you have a bad cold?
10. Why do you feel dizzy when you spin around?
Internal controls in a hospital consist of the control environment, risk assessment, control activities, information and communication, and monitoring. Steps to increase internal controls include assessing the environment, implementing risk assessment, developing control activities, enhancing information and communication, establishing monitoring systems, providing training, fostering accountability, and reviewing procedures.
1. An optical illusion occurs when our eyes perceive something differently than what is actually present. This can happen due to the way our brain interprets the visual information received by the eyes.
2. LASIK surgery improves vision by reshaping the cornea, which is the clear front surface of the eye. This allows light to properly focus on the retina, leading to clearer vision.
3. Loud music can damage hearing because it can cause the hair cells in the inner ear to become overloaded with sound vibrations. Over time, this can lead to permanent damage to these cells, resulting in hearing loss.
4. Tubes are placed in the eardrum to treat conditions such as chronic ear infections or fluid buildup in the middle ear. The tubes help equalize pressure, improve ventilation, and prevent the accumulation of fluid.
5. Eye floaters are caused by tiny specks of debris or clumps of protein inside the gel-like substance called the vitreous humor, which fills the back of the eye. These cast shadows on the retina, leading to the perception of floaters.
6. Ears can get plugged on an airplane due to changes in air pressure. As the plane ascends or descends, the air pressure outside the ears changes, which can cause the eustachian tubes to temporarily close. This results in a feeling of ear fullness or being plugged.
7. An eardrum can rupture due to factors like severe ear infection, sudden loud noise, changes in air pressure, or injury. When the pressure in the middle ear becomes too high, it can cause the eardrum to tear or burst.
8. Dogs have a better sense of smell than humans because they have a larger olfactory bulb in their brain, which is responsible for processing smells. They also have more olfactory receptor cells in their nose, allowing them to detect and distinguish a wider range of smells.
9. When you have a bad cold, the congestion in the nasal passages can interfere with the sense of taste. Smell and taste are closely connected, and if the olfactory receptors in the nose are blocked, it can affect the ability to perceive flavors.
10. Feeling dizzy when spinning around is due to the vestibular system in the inner ear. This system helps us maintain balance and orientation. When we spin, the fluid in the inner ear continues to move even after we stop, causing confusion in the brain and resulting in the sensation of dizziness.
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Which of the following statements comparing elite sprinters to average sprinters is correct? Elite sprinters...
Question 6 options:
reposition the legs during flight only slightly faster than average sprinters
hit the ground harder than average sprinters
apply GRF faster than average sprinters
All of the above are correct
Answer:
reposition the legs during flight only slightly faster than average sprinters
Explanation:
The main difference between elite sprinters and average sprinters is the ability of elite sprinters to make longer, more impactful strides. This allows them to have a greater boost.
This boost is a result of the muscle fibers in your legs, which allow them to make strides that have little contact with the ground, but propel them forward faster than average sprinters. In short, elite sprinters are able to reposition their legs during flight just a little faster than the average sprinter.
why is it important for children to learn the healthful practices that lead to wellness during the early childhood years?
It is important for children to learn the healthful practices that lead to wellness during the early childhood years as it improves children's ability to attain optimal development and establishes the capacity to learn.
Everyone desires for their child to be in good physical and mental health and to feel good about themselves. Your child's health, both now and in the future, will be impacted by taking nutrition into account during their development, particularly during the first five years of growth. When growth and development are happening quickly, the kind of foods you feed your child will prepare them for a healthy and balanced life.
Even as an adult, it can be difficult to maintain a balanced diet, much less help our children choose the correct meals. Constantly reminding yourself of the advantages is one of the best methods to help you stay on track with developing healthy habits.
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Hospitals are very concerned about the spread of germs in a hospital environment. For patient and guest safety, infection rates in any hospital are carefully monitored. Continuous efforts are made to
Hospitals aim to create a safe environment that minimizes the risk of infections. It is important to note that each hospital may have specific protocols in place based on their patient population and infection control needs.
Hospitals prioritize the prevention of germ spread in their environment to ensure the safety of patients and guests. To achieve this, they carefully monitor infection rates and continuously implement measures to mitigate risks. Here are some key steps taken by hospitals to combat the spread of germs:
1. Strict Hand Hygiene: Handwashing is one of the most effective ways to prevent the transmission of germs. Healthcare professionals, patients, and visitors are encouraged to wash their hands regularly with soap and water or use hand sanitizers.
2. Isolation Precautions: Hospitals may implement isolation precautions to separate patients with contagious diseases from others. This helps to limit the spread of infections and protect vulnerable individuals.
3. Cleaning and Disinfection: Hospital surfaces and equipment are regularly cleaned and disinfected to eliminate harmful germs. High-touch areas such as doorknobs, bedrails, and medical devices are given special attention to reduce the risk of contamination.
4. Proper Waste Disposal: Medical waste, including used needles and contaminated materials, is disposed of in accordance with strict guidelines to prevent exposure to infectious agents.
5. Vaccinations: Healthcare workers are encouraged to receive appropriate vaccinations to protect themselves and patients from vaccine-preventable diseases, such as influenza.
6. Education and Training: Hospitals provide comprehensive education and training programs to staff members regarding infection control practices. This ensures that everyone is well-informed and follows proper protocols.
7. Surveillance and Monitoring: Infection rates are carefully monitored and analyzed. Hospitals use various surveillance systems to identify trends, detect outbreaks, and implement interventions promptly.
By following these measures, hospitals aim to create a safe environment that minimizes the risk of infections. It is important to note that each hospital may have specific protocols in place based on their patient population and infection control needs.
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can a vial with multiple doses be used for more than one patient? yes or no
Answer:
no
Explanation:
thats very unsanitary
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MATCHING 2-1: KEY TERMS AND DESCRIPTIONS
Match each key term with the best description
Key Terms
Descriptions
1
Assalt
Compare current issults with
2.
for the same test on the me patient
Battery
Developo voluntary standards and also
3
Breach of confidentiality
the Laboratory
Cine portal of lacte either by words or by
4 • CAP
5 CAPA
Failure to be privileged medical informatie
private
6
Civil actions
Implies voluntary and competent permis
7
CLIAC
medical test or procedure
lotentional offensive touching or use of for
CISI
without consent or legal justification
9. I cow
G Legal action in which the alleged med
10. K
sue for monetary damage
COI
Legal term for an act or threat caning another
11
Defendant
be in fear of media battery
Level of care a sensible pension provides de
12.
Delta check
given circumstances
13
Deposition
1. Nonpeolit oganization focused on patient
Organization formed to assist in adming
14
Discovery
regulations
15
Due care
Organization that offers proficiency testing and
Yaboratory Inspection
Ib
Fraud
ent's actions suggesting consent to a proced
17
GLPs
Person against whom a complaint is tied
plan that describes corrective and preventative
18
ІНІ
actions needed to address a problem
19 Implied consent
P. Process in litigation in which both sides exchan
Information about witnesses and evidence
20
Informed consent
O Process in which one any questions anter
21. Invasion of privacy
under oath with a court reporter present
Program designed for conta monitoring
22
IQCP
and analyuting to identify processes that need
improvement
Wisk-based, objective approach to OC Bred to
testing in use at the Lab
Ten A recommendations for laboratories dog
SE
Standard of cam
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Tunt
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Answer:
no I have a great day of school and again and again 5555555gg have a great day of school and again and again and 5555555 but I have a great day of school and I am a very happy birthday party and again and I have to be in the world is the worldExplanation:
hThe results from research have been known to produce harms to members of the sampled population who do not actually participate in the research study. An example of the type of research that could result in group harms is
The results of research have been known to cause harm to members of the sampled population who do not involve themselves in the study of the genetic links between DNA samples found at a prehistoric central Asian archeological site and west coast Native American tribes.
What are the genetic studies?The genetics research shows the relationships between the genes of the current population and the genes of the ancestral population, such as here, where DNA samples from central Asia and DNA samples from a west coast tribe are compared, and in the study, any kind of irresponsibility may lead to any disease spread.
Hence, the results of research have been known to cause harm to members of the sampled population who do not involve themselves in the study of the genetic links between DNA samples found at a prehistoric central Asian archeological site and west coast Native American tribes.
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The question is incomplete and the complete question is the follow
The results from research have been known to produce harms to members of the sampled population who do not actually participate in the research study. An example of the type of research that could result in group harms is
(a) A study of the genetic links between DNA samples found at a prehistoric central Asian archeological site and west coast Native American tribes.
(b) Phase 3 clinical trial of a new anticancer agent in middle-aged women diagnosed with breast cancer
(c Treat the patient with the drug based on physician's best medical judgment)
(d) None of the above
what is the act math test do to you online
Answer:
Wait what...?
Explanation:
Why is bread made with refined flour considered less healthy than breads made with whole grains? a. Refining bread products only leaves the chaff in the bread. b. The refining process removes fiber and minerals in the bread. c. The bran that is kept in the refining process is harder to digest. d. The refining process creates products with higher levels of iron. e. The refining process calls for the addition of some added sugars.
Answer:
b. The refining process removes fiber and minerals in the bread.
Explanation:
The refined flour breads are considered less healthy than the whole grain breads because the refining process removes all the fibers and minerals from the bread. Thus, correct option is B.
What is refining process?Refining is a process by which natural foods are stripped which reduces the nutrient content of food. Refinement can even interfere with digestion.
The highly processed flour and additives in white bread are the refined foods. Consumption of too much of white bread can contribute to obesity, heart disease, and diabetes. Unrefined whole grains retain many of these vital nutrients and are rich in fiber, which helps your digestive system work well. Unprocessed foods contain fiber, vitamins, and minerals.
Processing food removes nutrients and results in refined carbs, which people also refer as empty carbs or empty calories. Refined carbs provide very few vitamins and minerals as compared to unrefined foods. Refined grains are milled to have the bran removed which is responsible for providing them a finer texture and extends the shelf life. Refined grains include white flour, white rice and white bread.
Therefore, correct option is B.
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Order: Thorazine 15 mg IM stat
Available: Thorazine 25 mg per mL
Answer:
yah its wright
Explanation:
Of the following, which is the most effective strategy that a nurse manager could employ to reduce unnecessary costs in specific healthcare settings?a. Training nurses on accurate documentation of supplies used for patient careb. Reducing the number of overtime hours worked by staffc. Reducing the number of staff on a unitd. Making decisions for patients about which care is important to their health
The most effective strategy that a nurse manager could employ to reduce unnecessary costs in specific healthcare settings is training nurses on accurate documentation of supplies used for patient care.
This explanation is because accurate documentation helps to ensure that supplies are being used appropriately and efficiently, reducing waste and unnecessary expenses.
It also provides a record of what was used for each patient, which can be helpful for billing and inventory purposes.
Additionally, proper documentation is necessary for quality assurance and legal purposes. Therefore, investing in training and educating staff on accurate and thorough documentation practices is essential for effective and efficient healthcare management.
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The doctor prescribed 3 mg/kg twice daily for 5 days. The child weighs 35 pounds and the medication is available as 50 mg/mL. How many mL should be administered to the child for each dose? Round the answer to the hundredth place
Answer:
Each dose of the drug must contain 47.62 milligrams of it.
Explanation:
Given that the doctor prescribed 3 mg / kg twice daily for 5 days, the child weighs 35 pounds and the medication is available as 50 mg / mL, to determine how many mL should be administered to the child for each dose, the following should be done calculation:
1 pound = 0.453592 kilos
35 pounds = 0.453592 x 35 = 15.8757 kilos
15.8757 x 3 = 47.6271
Thus, each dose of the drug must contain 47.62 milligrams of it.
1 kg = 2.205 pound
Since the child weigh 35 pounds, hence:
35 pounds = 35 pounds * 1 kg per 2.205 pound = 15.88 kg
The doctor prescribed 3 mg/kg twice daily for 5 days. For each dose, the mg needed is:
mg = 3 mg/kg * 15.88 kg = 47.64 mg
Since the medication is available as 50 mg/mL, hence:
ml = 47.64 ml / 50 mg/mL = 0.95 ml
0.95 ml should be administered to the child for each dose
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Which of the four tissue types have intercellular junctions?
realizing that indwelling urinary catheters increase the risk of developing a urinary tract infection, which intervention should the nurse implement?
Realizing that indwelling urinary catheters increase the risk of developing a urinary tract infection, therefore the intervention which the nurse should implement is to wash perineal area with soap and water and is therefore denoted as option B.
What is a Catheter?This is referred to as a hollow, partially flexible tube that collects urine from the bladder and leads to a drainage bag. Nurses on the other hand are healthcare professionals who specializes in taking care of the sick and ensuring that adequate recovery is achieved.
The adult human urine is not sterile which therefore means that there is the possibility of the presence of various types of bacteria which may cause a urinary tract infection.
This is therefore the reason why it is best to wash perineal area with soap and water so as to eliminate the bacteria from that region thereby making it the correct choice.
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The options are;
gently insert and advance the catheterwash perineal area with soap and waterassemble the catheter,lub,drainage receptableadvance the catheter 1 more inchHow many essential minerals does your body need
what factor/factors influence(s) the duration of the effects of local anesthetics? group of answer choices degree of protein binding vascularity of injection site addition or absence of a vasoconstrictor all options listed
Factors influencing the duration of the effects of local anesthetics are the degree of protein binding, vascularity of the injection site, and addition or absence of a vasoconstrictor. (All of the above)
Local anesthesia is an attempt to temporarily eliminate various sensations such as pain that occur in several parts of the body without being followed by loss of consciousness.
Local anesthetics act by causing a reversible blockade of conduction along nerve fibers. The drugs used differ in terms of potency, toxicity, duration of action, stability, air solubility, and ability to penetrate mucous membranes. Local anesthetics are also used for postoperative pain relief, thereby reducing the need for analgesics such as opioids.
Local anesthetic agents suppress action potentials in excited tissues by blocking voltage-gated Na+ channels. Therefore, they inhibit action potentials in nociceptive fibers and block the transmission of pain impulses.
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When caring for a client who uses a protective device (restraint), the nurse aide Should
Answer:
(A) assess the client once every hour.
(B) assure the protective device is tight.
(C) check the client’s body alignment.
(D) release the protective device once a shift.
Explanation:
correct me if I'm wrong have a great day.
The nurse aide should prioritize the client's safety, ensure proper use of the protective device, and monitor the client closely.
When caring for a client who requires a protective device or restraint, the nurse aide's main responsibility is to prioritize the client's safety. This involves ensuring that the protective device is applied correctly and according to the healthcare provider's instructions. The nurse aide should have proper training and knowledge on how to properly use and secure the device to prevent harm to the client.
Additionally, the nurse aide should monitor the client closely and regularly assess their physical and emotional well-being. This includes checking for signs of discomfort, skin integrity, and circulation. The nurse aide should promptly respond to any concerns or changes in the client's condition.
It is crucial for the nurse aide to communicate effectively with the healthcare team, reporting any issues or observations related to the use of the protective device. Collaboration and teamwork are essential in providing appropriate care and ensuring the client's safety and well-being.
Overall, the nurse aide's main focus should be on providing compassionate care, maintaining the client's dignity, and promoting their comfort while adhering to the necessary precautions and guidelines related to the use of protective devices.
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a toothpaste with high abrasive is recommended to remove plaque. T/F
Answer:
T
Explanation:
False. A toothpaste with high abrasives is not recommended to remove plaque. In fact, using a toothpaste that is too abrasive can actually damage the enamel on your teeth.
Plaque is best removed through regular brushing and flossing, as well as regular dental cleanings. It is important to choose a toothpaste that contains fluoride, which helps to strengthen tooth enamel and prevent cavities. Additionally, some toothpastes may contain ingredients such as triclosan or hydrogen peroxide, which can help to reduce plaque and prevent gum disease. It is always best to consult with your dentist to determine the best toothpaste for your individual needs.
False. A toothpaste with high abrasiveness is not recommended to remove plaque. Abrasive toothpastes can damage tooth enamel and gum tissue, leading to dental problems. Instead, choose a toothpaste with a moderate level of abrasiveness and fluoride to effectively remove plaque while protecting your teeth and gums. Additionally, proper brushing technique and regular dental check-ups are essential for maintaining good oral hygiene.
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what’s an example of a body surface area formula
which of these clients in the vasuclar clinic would the nurse assess frist
The nurse in the vascular clinic would prioritize assessing a client with symptoms of acute limb ischemia as the first priority.
Acute limb ischemia is a serious condition that occurs when there is a sudden decrease in blood flow to a limb, typically caused by a blood clot or arterial blockage. This condition requires urgent medical attention to restore blood flow and prevent tissue damage or limb loss. Prompt assessment and intervention are crucial to ensure the best possible outcome.
Therefore, the nurse would prioritize assessing and attending to this client first to initiate appropriate treatment, such as anticoagulation therapy or surgical interventions, to restore blood flow and prevent further complications.
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a client asks her health care practitioner if there are any regulations concerning nonprescription medicines. the health care practitioner explains that nonprescription medicines are governed by which act?
The health care practitioner should explain that nonprescription medicines are governed by The Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
A federal statute passed by Congress is known as the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FD&C Act). It creates the governing framework for FDA operations, together with other federal statutes. The FD&C Act is contained in the United States Code, which starts at 21 U.S.C. 301 and includes all general and permanent U.S. laws.
A food carrying a pesticide residue is liable to government confiscation if there isn't a tolerance for it. Once a tolerance has been set, enforcement measures are sparked by the residual level inside the tolerance. That is, the commodity will be subject to seizure if residues are discovered above that level.
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What is the complementary strand of dna that is made during dna replication if the template/parent strand of dna reads atg ggc?.
TAC CCG GTA is the complementary strand of DNA that is made during DNA replication if the template/parent strand of DNA reads ATG GGC.
DNA replication is a type of biological process in which one original DNA molecule splits into two identical replicas. Before a cell divides, this procedure creates a copy of the DNA within the cell.
Both of the two chains combine to form a double helix of DNA when it comes to the complimentary strand, and equivalent places on the two chains are made up of a pair of complementary bases.
Adenine A, for instance, should be complementarily bonded to thymine and vice versa if it is present in the paternal DNA. Similarly to this, if cytosine is found in the paternal strand of DNA, guanine and vice versa should complementarily bind to it.
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