A bone fragment has 10% of the parent Pb-210 remaining. The half-life of Pb-210 is 22 years.

How old is the bone fragment?

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

16x4=64 that’s your answer

The number of hours one would spend doing homework now would be; 2.88 hours.

As evident in the task content; One spends 8% doing homework, if one adds 4% more.

The total percent of time spent doing homework is; 12%.

Since there are 24 hours in a day; it follows that the number of hours spent doing one's homework is;

= 12% of 24 = 0.12 × 24.

= 2.88 hours.

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Answer:

7d +d +d=45

Step-by-step explanation:

The length shown for the green line is shown as 45 therefore the black line also has 45

to prove your answer:

7d + d + d = 45

9d = 45

you need to get the letter d on its own so you

9d ÷9 = 45 ÷ 9 (what you do on the one side,you do on the other)

d = 5

*substitute

5 + 7(5) + 5

= 5+ 35 + 5

= 40 +5

= 45

Answer:

12

Step-by-step explanation:

\(We\ know\ that\ distance\ between\ two\ points\ on\ a\ graph\ is\ given\ by\\\\sqrt{(x_2-x_1)^2+(y_2-y_1)^2} \\Here,\\x_1=0\\x_2=1\\y_1=-5\\y_2=7\\Substituting\ them\ in\ our\ formula,\ we\ get:\\\sqrt{(1-0)^2+(7-(-5))^2}\\=\sqrt{1+(7+5)^2} \\=\sqrt{1+144}\\=\sqrt{145}\\=12.04\\Hence\ it\ rounds\ off\ to\ 12.\\\)

The given statement "Every division algebra A has no idempotents other than 0 and 1A; deduce that if A has dimension > I then A cannot be isomorphic to the path algebra of a quiver and this applies to the R-algebra H of quaternions." is true. Because A has no other idempotent other tahn 1A and 0.

Suppose that there exists an idempotent element e in a division algebra A that is not equal to 0 or 1A. Then, we have:

e^2 = e

Multiplying both sides by e^-1 (which exists since A is a division algebra), we obtain:

e = 1A

which is a contradiction. Therefore, A has no idempotent elements other than 0 and 1A.

Now, suppose that A has dimension greater than 1 and is isomorphic to the path algebra of quiver Q. Let {e_i} be a basis of A as a vector space over the base field, indexed by the vertices of Q. Since A is a division algebra, each e_i is nonzero. Moreover, since A has no nonzero idempotent elements other than 1A, we have:

e_ie_j = 0 for i ≠ j

But this means that the multiplication in A does not satisfy the relations of the quiver Q, and therefore A cannot be isomorphic to the path algebra of Q. Hence, we have shown that if A has dimension greater than 1, it cannot be isomorphic to the path algebra of any quiver.

In particular, this applies to the R-algebra H of quaternions, since H has dimension 4 and is a division algebra. Therefore, H cannot be isomorphic to the path algebra of any quiver.

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Answer

56 i think sorry if this doesnt help:(

Step-by-step explanation:

i calculated

Answer:

hola es 553586;(8)5-?+&5%€3-+(?))%-!++533++&€3€-((+%6544-++86

(a) The problem relates to an ordinary annuity since the contributions are made at the end of each quarter.

(b) Sam deposits $900 at the end of every 6 months in an account that pays 6%, compounded semiannually, he'll have $ 7974 at the end of 4 years.

The interest rate refers to the percentage of the principal amount that a lender charges as interest on a loan or credit. It is typically expressed as an annual percentage rate (APR), although the actual frequency of interest calculation and compounding can vary depending on the loan terms.

(a) To solve the problem, we can use the formula for the future value of an ordinary annuity:

\(\[FV = P \times \left( \left(1 + \frac{r}{n}\right)^{n \times t} - 1 \right) \times \frac{1}{\left(\frac{r}{n}\right)}\]\\\)
Where:
FV = Future value of the annuity
P = Payment amount
r = Annual interest rate (in decimal form)
n = Number of compounding periods per year
t = Number of years
In this case, the desired future value is $160,000, the interest rate is 7.7% (or 0.077 as a decimal), the compounding is done quarterly (so n = 4), and the time is 18 years (or 72 quarters).
Plugging in the values into the formula, we have:

\(\[160,000 = P \times \left( \left(1 + \frac{0.077}{4}\right)^{4 \times 18} - 1 \right) \times \frac{1}{\left(\frac{0.077}{4}\right)}\]\\\)
P = $ 1021.38

(b) To calculate how much Sam will have at the end of 4 years, we can use the formula for the future value of an ordinary annuity:
\(\[FV = P \times \left( \left(1 + \frac{r}{n}\right)^{n \times t} - 1 \right) \times \frac{1}{\left(\frac{r}{n}\right)}\]\)
Where:
FV = Future value of the annuity
P = Payment amount
r = Annual interest rate (in decimal form)
n = Number of compounding periods per year
t = Number of years
In this case, Sam deposits $900 at the end of every 6 months, which means there are 2 compounding periods per year (semiannually). The interest rate is 6% (or 0.06 as a decimal), and the time is 4 years.
Plugging in the values into the formula, we have:

\(\[FV = 900 \times \left( \left(1 + \frac{0.06}{2}\right)^{2 \times 4} - 1 \right) \times \frac{1}{\left(\frac{0.06}{2}\right)}\]\\\)

FV = $ 7974
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Answer:

4.5

Step-by-step explanation:

first you divide 36 from 8

then to check if its right then do 4.5 times 8

The slope of any line parallel to this line would be c) 3/7.

Parallel lines are those lines that are equal distances apart and often of the same length. So, for the given slope where we have parallel lines, we can expect to have lines of the same slope. Thus we can arrive at 3/7.  

Note that parallel lines have the same slope. So, since the first slope is 3/7, we can expect the second to be the same thing.

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Sue's estimate is best because she throws it more times than Eric. Regarding the probability of Aadi obtaining tails, Statement C is accurate.

The chances of an event occurring are defined by probability. Probability has several uses in games, and in business to create probability-based forecasts.

Ten biased coin throws are made by Eric. He is dealt 3 tails. Sue tosses a coin 50 times. I give her 20 tails.

Aadi will only toss the coin once. Regarding the probability of Aadi obtaining tails.

Sue's estimate is best because she throws it more times than Eric.

Hence option C is correct.

2)

An estimate for the likelihood that Aadi will receive tails using the findings of Eric and Sue. 3/20 will be the fraction of the form a/b.

The probability of the Aadi getting tails;

P(Aadi) = 3 / 360 = 1/120

P(Sue) = 20/50×36 = 1/90

Hence the fraction in the form of a/b willl be 4/3.

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

6x+4=52

    -4   -4

6x/6=48/6

x=8

Answer:

-4 -4

6x=48

Explanation

Answer:

(3,-4)

Step-by-step explanation:

The 3 is our x and the -4 is our y.

3 is on the x cordinate and -4 is on the y cordinate

Answer:

(3, -4)

(Over (x), Down (y))

\( \boxed{\bf{Surface\:Area\:of\:Cone}} \)

\( \begin{aligned}SA&=\pi \: r(s + r) \\&=3.14 \times 12 \times (26.8 + 12) \\ &=37.68 \times 38.8 \\&= \bold{ \underline{1461.984 \: ft ^{2} }} \end{aligned}\)

\( \small{\blue{\mathfrak{That's\:it\: :)}}} \)

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's assume the initial number of men at the exhibition is 10x, and the initial number of women is 3x.

After 110 men left, the number of men remaining is 10x - 110.

The total number of people remaining is (10x - 110) + (3x) = 13x - 110.

According to the given information, the number of men remaining (10x - 110) is 5/12 of the total number of people remaining (13x - 110). We can write this as an equation:

10x - 110 = (5/12)(13x - 110)

To solve this equation, we can start by simplifying both sides:

10x - 110 = (65/12)x - (55/6)

To get rid of the fractions, we can multiply both sides of the equation by 12:

12(10x - 110) = 65x - 110(2)

120x - 1320 = 65x - 220

Next, we can bring the x terms to one side and the constant terms to the other side:

120x - 65x = 1320 - 220

55x = 1100

Dividing both sides by 55, we find:

x = 20

Now, we can substitute the value of x back into the initial expressions to find the number of men and women:

Number of men = 10x = 10(20) = 200

Number of women = 3x = 3(20) = 60

Therefore, there were 60 women at the exhibition

Hope this answer your question

Please rate the answer and

mark me ask Brainliest it helps a lot

The value of the quantity d is 0.0462 m^2/s.

Here,

The quantities a=3.7m, b=3.7s, c=80m/s.

We have to find the value of d = a^3/cb^2

What is quantity?

A quantity is an amount, number, or measurement that answers the question 'how much?' Quantities can be expressed in numbers or non-standard units.

Now,

The quantities a=3.7m, b=3.7s, c=80m/s.

The value of d;

\(d = \frac{a^{3} }{cb^{2} }\)

\(d = \frac{3.7*3.7*3.7 }{80 * 3.7^{2} }\)

\(d = \frac{3.7}{80}\)

\(d = 0.0462\)

Hence, The value of the quantity d is 0.0462 m^2/s.

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1)The pdf of U is f(u) = (1/(2√u)) exp(-u/2) for u > 0 and f(u) = 0 otherwise.

2)U follows a gamma-distribution with parameter a = 3/2 or a = 1/2.

3)x = (y²/2) and dx = y dy using exponential distribution

We can rewrite the integral as:

I(1/2) = ∫₀^∞ y exp(-y²) dy

       = 1/2 ∫₀^∞ exp(-u/2) du

This is the same as the integral for f(u) when u = 1/2.

Therefore, we have:

I(1/2) = V1

(1) For U = Z², we can use the method of transformations.

Let g(z) be the transformation function such that

U = g(Z)

   = Z².

Then, the inverse function of g is given by h(u) = ±√u.

Thus, we can apply the transformation theorem as follows:

f(u) = |h'(u)| g(h(u)) f(u)

     = |1/(2√u)| exp(-u/2) for u > 0 f(u) = 0 otherwise

Therefore, the pdf of U is given by:

f(u) = (1/(2√u)) exp(-u/2) for u > 0 and f(u) = 0 otherwise.

(2) We are given that f(1/2) = VT, where V is a constant.

We can substitute u = 1/2 in the pdf of U and equate it to VT.

Then, we get:VT = (1/(2√(1/2))) exp(-1/4)VT

                            = √2 exp(-1/4)

This gives us the value of V.

Now, we can use the pdf of the gamma distribution to find the parameter a such that the gamma distribution matches the pdf of U.

The pdf of the gamma distribution is given by:

f(u) = (u^(a-1) exp(-u)/Γ(a)) for u > 0 where Γ(a) is the gamma function.

We can use the following relation between the gamma and the factorial function to simplify the expression for the gamma function:

Γ(a) = (a-1)!

Thus, we can rewrite the pdf of the gamma distribution as:

f(u) = (u^(a-1) exp(-u)/(a-1)!) for u > 0

We can now equate the pdf of U to the pdf of the gamma distribution and solve for a.

Then, we get:

(1/(2√u)) exp(-u/2) = (u^(a-1) exp(-u)/(a-1)!) for u > 0 a = 3/2

Therefore, U follows a gamma distribution with parameter

a = 3/2 or equivalently,

a = 1/2.

(3) We need to show that I(1/2) = V1.

Here, I(1) = ∫₀^∞ exp(-x) dx is the integral of the exponential distribution with rate parameter 1 and V is a constant.

We can use the change of variables y = √(2x) to simplify the expression for I(1/2) as follows:

I(1/2) = ∫₀^∞ exp(-√(2x)) dx

Now, we can substitute y²/2 = x to obtain:

x = (y²/2) and

dx = y dy

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Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

Proportional means that the values should be equal to each other:

15/21= 0.714...

20/25= 0.8

20/24=0.833...

15/18= 0.833...

16/20=0.8

20/24=0.8333...

5/6=0.8333...

6/5=1.2

Hope this helps!

Answer:

For 20 hours it would be $1,500.

Step-by-step explanation:

The equation for this problem would be Y = 50x + 500.

Y is the total charge and x is the number of hours.

Hope this helps! Sorry if it was not what you were looking for!

Answer: 1500

Step-by-step explanation: 50x20=1,000 plus the addition price of the supplies 1,000+500= $1500

Answer/Step-by-step explanation:

Since you know that the answer is x = 36, Then you can substitute it in the equation.

3/4(36) - 11 = 16          → Multiply 3/4 by 36

27 - 11 = 16                  → Subtract 11 from 27

16 = 16                        → They are equal

Hence as you can see, x = 36.

RevyBreeze

Answer:

(x+4)

Step-by-step explanation:

Solve by factoring. Think about what numbers multiply to be -36 (the last term) BUT also subtract/add up to be -5, which is the middle term. The answer to this is 4 and -9. Therefore, the two factors are (x-9)(x+4)

Answer:

b (x+4)

Step-by-step explanation:

edge

Jorge pays more money per mile, 0.42 dollars per mile compared to 0.31 dollars per mile for Samiyah. The difference in the cost per mile is 0.42 - 0.31 = 0.11 dollars per mile. Round to the nearest penny, this is 0.11 dollars per mile or 11 cents per mile.

What is a unit value?

When the expenditures or value of production of an item is divided by the quantity, the result is known as a unit value. The unit value of a set of homogeneous products is the total value of the purchases / sales divided by the sum of the quantities.

To find out who pays more money per mile, we need to calculate the cost per mile for each of them.

First, let's calculate the cost per mile for Samiyah. We know that she paid 3.50 dollars per gallon, and she drove 169 miles until the tank was empty. This means that she used 15 gallons of gas, and the total cost of the gas was 3.50 * 15 = 52.50 dollars. The cost per mile for Samiyah is therefore 52.50 / 169 = 0.31 dollars per mile.

Now let's calculate the cost per mile for Jorge. We know that he paid 3.10 dollars per gallon, and he drove 110 miles until the tank was empty. This means that he used 15 gallons of gas, and the total cost of the gas was 3.10 * 15 = 46.50 dollars. The cost per mile for Jorge is therefore 46.50 / 110 = 0.42 dollars per mile.

Therefore, Jorge pays more money per mile, 0.42 dollars per mile compared to 0.31 dollars per mile for Samiyah. The difference in the cost per mile is 0.42 - 0.31 = 0.11 dollars per mile. Round to the nearest penny, this is 0.11 dollars per mile or 11 cents per mile.

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Answer:

36,000

Step-by-step explanation:

google

Answer:

3600

Step-by-step explanation:

because that's how you write it so yes do it please this is the answer s itch wi guy if i.p.o fallacy hallmark plz upload pda fool jsa xxl la all pda all jazz dlp jazz all

When a report card shows that a student has earned 21 points on a test with a total of 25 points, it can be concluded to state that the student has secured 84 percentage of the total points of the test.

The computation of the percentage of points secured by the student out of the total available points in a test can be done using the generalized formula and the use of provided information into the same as below,

Percentage = Scored Secured / Total Points x 100

Percentage = 21 / 25 × 100

Percentage = 0.84 × 100

Percentage = 84 percentage.

Therefore, the student has earned 84 percentage of total points on a test.

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The two populations will be in the single-digit ratio of approximately 5 spotted owl(s) to every thousand flying squirrels.

Given that the predator-prey matrix for the two populations in A is 04:07 and any initial vector x has an eigenvector decomposition -p 17 such that c, D.

We are supposed to show that if the predation parameter p is 0.375, both populations grow.

We are also supposed to estimate the long-term growth rate and the eventual ratio of owls to flying squirrels.

#p-0.375, the eigenvalues of A are -0.125 and 0.625.

The given matrix is 04:07 and the eigenvalues of the given matrix A are -0.125 and 0.625.

For a stable population, all the eigenvalues of A must be positive.

However, since -0.125 is negative, the population is not stable.

Since the population is not stable, there is no steady state.

Hence, the populations of owls and squirrels will grow or shrink indefinitely.

The long-term growth rate of both populations is about 0.625.

Eventually, the two populations will be in the single-digit ratio of approximately 5 spotted owl(s) to every thousand flying squirrels.

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Jaden can complete 144 laps in 18 minutes if he maintains the same rate.

If Jaden completes 40 laps in 5 minutes, we can calculate his lap rate by dividing the number of laps by the time taken:

Lap rate = Number of laps / Time

Lap rate = 40 laps / 5 minutes

Lap rate = 8 laps/minute

Now, let's calculate how many laps Jaden can complete in 12 minutes:

Number of laps = Lap rate * Time

Number of laps = 8 laps/minute * 12 minutes

Number of laps = 96 laps

Jaden can complete 96 laps in 12 minutes if he maintains the same rate.

Similarly, let's calculate how many laps Jaden can complete in 18 minutes:

Number of laps = Lap rate * Time

Number of laps = 8 laps/minute * 18 minutes

Number of laps = 144 laps

Jaden can complete 144 laps in 18 minutes if he maintains the same rate.

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Answer:

22

Step-by-step explanation:

6^2=36

36*2=72

6*8=48

72-48=24

24-2=22

I hope this is right

Answer:

130 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

We know (x-10)+(2x+10) is 180 degrees.

So first we need to find x. (x-10)+(2x+10)=3x

3x=180

x=60

Angle TRV is 2x+10.

If we input 60 in the place of x, it is 2(60)+10=120+10=130.

The answer is 130 degrees.

The required canoeist's paddling rate in calm water is 3 mph.

Let's denote the canoeist's paddling rate in calm water as "x" mph.

When the canoeist paddles upstream against the current, their effective speed is the difference between their paddling rate and the current's rate, or (x - 3) mph. The distance traveled upstream is also 8 miles.

Using the formula:

distance = rate x time

We can set up two equations based on the distance traveled and the effective speed for each leg of the trip:

Downstream leg: 8 = (x + 3) * t1

Upstream leg: 8 = (x - 3) * t2

Since the total time for the round trip is 2 hours, we know that:

t1 + t2 = 2

Now we can solve for x by substituting t1 = 8/(x+3) and t2 = 8/(x-3) into the equation above:

8/(x+3) + 8/(x-3) = 2

Multiplying both sides by (x+3)(x-3) gives:

8(x-3) + 8(x+3) = 2(x+3)(x-3)

Simplifying this expression gives:

16x = 48

x = 3

Therefore, the canoeist's paddling rate in calm water is 3 mph.

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