PLEASE HELP !! ILL GIVE BRAINLIEST *EXTRA POINTS*..
IM GIVING 40 POINTS !! DONT SKIP :((.

Answer:

a) A (8, 1)

b) A (2,8)

Step-by-step explanation:

Try drawing it its much easier

Answer:

5. 30km 6. sorry I forgot how to do these 1. 240m 2. 36cm 3. 64ft

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

I don't know what to do with it but I don't

Step-by-step explanation:

hahahaha

the length of side a is 91 ft (rounded to the nearest whole foot) and the length of side b is 132 ft (rounded to the nearest whole foot). The area of the triangle is approximately 6007 sq ft.

Given: The hypotenuse of the right triangle,

c = 159 ft; angle A = 34°

We know that, in a right-angled triangle:

\($$\sin\theta=\frac{\text{opposite}}\)

\({\text{hypotenuse}}$$$$\cos\theta=\frac{\text{adjacent}}\)

\({\text{hypotenuse}}$$\)

We know the value of the hypotenuse and angle A. Using trigonometric ratios, we can find the length of sides in the right triangle.We will use the following formulas:

\($$\sin\theta=\frac{\text{opposite}}\)

\({\text{hypotenuse}}$$$$\cos\theta=\frac{\text{adjacent}}\)

\({\text{hypotenuse}}$$$$\tan\theta=\frac{\text{opposite}}\)

\({\text{adjacent}}$$\) Length of side a is:

\($$\begin{aligned} \sin A &=\frac{a}{c}\\ a &=c \sin A\\ &= 159\sin 34°\\ &= 91.4 \text{ ft} \end{aligned}$$Length of side b is:$$\begin{aligned} \cos A &=\frac{b}{c}\\ b &=c \cos A\\ &= 159\cos 34°\\ &= 131.5 \text{ ft} \end{aligned}$$\)

Now, we have the values of all sides of the right triangle. We can calculate the area of the triangle by using the formula for the area of a right triangle:

\($$\text{Area} = \frac{1}{2}ab$$\)

Putting the values of a and b:

\($$\begin{aligned} \text{Area} &=\frac{1}{2}ab\\ &=\frac{1}{2}(91.4)(131.5)\\ &= 6006.55 \approx 6007 \text{ sq ft}\end{aligned}$$\)

Therefore, the length of side a is 91 ft (rounded to the nearest whole foot) and the length of side b is 132 ft (rounded to the nearest whole foot). The area of the triangle is approximately 6007 sq ft.

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THe value of the expression using BODMAS rule is 26

The abbreviation BODMAS, which stands for "Brackets, Order of powers or roots, Division, and Multiplication," is followed by the BODMAS rule. A stands for addition and S for subtraction. According to the BODMAS rule, multi-step mathematical statements must be solved in the BODMAS order from left to right.

The order of operations, or BODMAS, is a method for carrying out operations in an arithmetic statement. Math is all about logic, and there are several established laws that help us with our calculations. BODMAS is one of the established rules for consolidating multiple operator expressions.

An expression or equation in mathematics has two parts:

A character known as an operator joins two integers to form an expression or equation. The four most often used operators in mathematics are addition (+), subtraction (-), multiplication (*), and division (*/*). Finding the solution to mathematical statements or equations with just one operator is usually rather easy.

The expression is 14 + 2 + 3(4) - (6-1-3) = 14 + 2 + 12 - 2 = 26

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Answer:

3/16

Step-by-step explanation:

In order to get the amount of water to fill a bin, we just divide the amount of water by the fraction of the bin it fills. This makes the unit of the resulting answer as gallons/bin or gallons per bin.

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

The service tax that is given on the food each day is 9 %.

The government levies a service tax on particular service transactions carried out by the service provider. Suppose x% service tax is levied on a good on $n then the total amount that is to be paid is $(n(1+x/100)).

Let the percent service tax that is charged on food be x%.

The situation is The total expenditure is $280.74 which is $49 per day on the hotel bill for 3 days on which a 10% tip was given for the maid services each day.  

$32 was spent each day on food plus 15% of that amount was given as a tip each day.

And x% of $32 was given on tax.

Then, the equation that best represents the given situation is

280.74/3=49+(0.10)(49)+32+(0.15)(32)+(x/100)(32)

Then 93.58=90.7+(32)(x/100)

⇒32x=2.88×100

⇒x=288/32=9%

Thus, the service tax that is charged on the food each day is 9 %.

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The graph to the given function f(x) = x+1 is attached below.

Rewrite function f(x) as an equation,

y = x+1

Slope = 1

y-intercept = (0,1)

Any line can be graphed using two points. Select two x values, and plug them into the equation to find the corresponding y value

x    y

0    1

1     2

(x,y) = (0,1),(1,2)

Mark these points on graph and draw the line passing through them.

Graph is as follows  :

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Answer:

Cash it at the issuing bank (this is the bank name that is pre-printed on the check)

Cash a check at a retailer that cashes checks (discount department store, grocery stores, etc.)

Cash the check at a check-cashing store.

Deposit at an ATM onto a pre-paid card account or checkless debit card account.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Amscot?

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

it’s c:)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

hope it helps

plz mark as brainliest

Answer:

43xgfsstib dhibfdhbkfvh

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

\(\sqrt{2} cos x-1=0\\cos x=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2} } =cos (\frac{\pi }{4} ),cos (2\pi -\frac{\pi }{4} )\\cos x=cos(2n\pi +\frac{\pi }{4} ),cos(2n\pi +\frac{7\pi }{4} )\\x=2n\pi +\frac{\pi }{4} ,2n\pi +\frac{7\pi }{4} \\n=0\\x=\frac{\pi }{4} ,\frac{7\pi }{4}\)

Answer:

1.5 thats the answer

Step-by-step explanation:

1.5

Answer:

A.

The graph shows trigonometric functions intercept the x-axis at minus 3, 0.2, and 3.5 units also pass parallel to the g of the x-axis.

Answer:

AC = 12

Step-by-step explanation:

If BC is parallel to DE then ∠D ≅ ∠B and ∠E ≅ ∠C. Therefore

ΔABC is similar to ΔADE.

The sides of smaller triangle are in proportion with sides of bigger triangle.

Therefore we have the equation:

AC/AE = AB/AD

Substitute the given numbers:

x/x+15 =8/18

18x= 8(x+15)

18x = 8x+120

10x = 120

x = 12

AC=12

Answer:

The exact value of the other leg is 10.

Step-by-step explanation:

Finding the exact value of x given a 45 degree angle and a side length of 10 can be done using trigonometry. In a 45-45-90 right triangle, the two legs are congruent and the hypotenuse is equal to the square root of 2 times the length of the legs.

Therefore, if one leg is 10, the hypotenuse is 10 times the square root of 2. To find the length of the other leg, we can use the Pythagorean theorem:

c^2 = a^2 + b^2, where c is the hypotenuse, a and b are the legs of the right triangle.

Substituting known values, we get:

(10√2)^2 = 10^2 + b^2

200 = 100 + b^2

b^2 = 100

b = 10

Therefore, the exact value of the other leg is 10.

Answer:

72°

Step-by-step explanation:

4+2+6+8=20

360÷20=18

AC=4x18=72

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

9. sin 18 = x/21

 x = 21* sin 18

  x = 6.5

10. tan 55 = 29/x

  x* tan 55 = 29

x = 29/tan 55

x = 20.3

11. sin 23 = x/25

  x = 25 * sin 23

  x = 9.8

12. sin 47 = 33/x

  x * sin 47 = 33

 x = 33/sin 47

  x = 45.1

The image point of the coordinate X after the rotation is (-1, 5).

When a point is rotated 90° clockwise around the origin, the new point will be formed by switching the x and y-coordinates and then negating the new x-coordinate.

So for point X (-5, -1), the new x-coordinate will be -1, and the new y-coordinate will be -(-5) = 5, giving the new point (-1, 5).

Therefore, after a rotation of 90° clockwise, point X (-5, -1) will be at the new location (-1, 5).

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After 300 trials, the experimental probabilities may not align perfectly with the theoretical probabilities. However, with more trials, the experimental probabilities tend to converge towards the theoretical probabilities for closer alignment.

To examine whether experimental probabilities after 300 trials align closely with theoretical probabilities, let's consider an example of flipping a fair coin.

Theoretical probability: When flipping a fair coin, the theoretical probability of obtaining heads or tails is 0.5 each. This assumes that the coin is unbiased and has an equal chance of landing on either side.

Experimental probability: After conducting 300 trials of flipping the coin, we record the outcomes and calculate the experimental probabilities. Let's assume that heads occurred 160 times and tails occurred 140 times.

Experimental probability of heads: 160/300 = 0.5333

Experimental probability of tails: 140/300 = 0.4667

Comparing the experimental probabilities to the theoretical probabilities, we can observe that the experimental probability of heads is slightly higher than the theoretical probability, while the experimental probability of tails is slightly lower.

In this particular example, the experimental probabilities after 300 trials do not align perfectly with the theoretical probabilities. However, it is important to note that these differences can be attributed to sampling variability, as the experimental outcomes are subject to random fluctuations.

To draw a more definitive conclusion about the alignment between experimental and theoretical probabilities, a larger number of trials would need to be conducted. As the number of trials increases, the experimental probabilities tend to converge towards the theoretical probabilities, providing a closer alignment between the two.

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The question probable may be:

Do experimental probabilities after 300 trials tend to align closely with theoretical probabilities? Consider an example scenario and calculate both the theoretical and experimental probabilities to determine if they are close.

If the reference angle is theta and, we are given;

Note that sin theta is negative.

Also, we have the following on the unit circle;

Where the value of y is negative, we would have a negative sin theta, that is;

This only occurs where y is negative, which is in the third and fourth quadrants. Therefore,

(a) The reference angle theta could be either in the third or fourth quadrants.

Note also that

To determine the value of the cosine of this angle, we shall take the given values, y and r.

Note that r is the hypotenuse, while y is the height. To find the base x,

Where the cosine is given as;

It would take Fran and Denise (working together) approximately \(\frac{24}{7}\) hours to paint the living room.

To solve this problem, we can use the concept of "work rates."

Let's find out how much work Fran and Denise can do individually in one hour.

If Fran takes 6 hours to paint the living room alone, her work rate is \(\frac{1}{6}\) of the room per hour \((\frac{1 room}{6 hours } = \frac{1}{6}room/hour )\).

Similarly, if Denise takes 8 hours to paint the living room alone, her work rate is \(\frac{1}{8}\) of the room per hour \((\frac{1 room}{8 hours } =\frac{1}{8}room/hour )\).

When they work together, their work rates are additive.

So, their combined work rate would be:

\(\frac{1}{6} room/hour+\frac{1}{8} room/hour\)

\(=(\frac{4}{24} )room/hour + (\frac{3}{24} )room/hour\)

\(=\frac{7}{24} room/hour\)

This means that working together, Fran and Denise can paint \(\frac{7}{24}\) of the living room in one hour.

To determine the total time required for them to paint the entire room, we can invert their combined work rate:

\(\frac{(1 room) }{(\frac{7}{24}room/hour) } =\frac{24}{7}hour\)

Therefore, it would take Fran and Denise (working together) approximately \(\frac{24}{7}\) hours to paint the living room.

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The solution (X = 8, Y = 16) represents a minimum because the second partial derivatives are both positive.

The quadratic equation's roots 32

+6x+8=0 utilises the quadratic formula to determine. x = is the quadratic formula.

where the quadratic equation's coefficients are a, b, and c. Here, an equals 1, b equals 6, and c equals 8. We obtain the quadratic formula's result by entering these values: x =

x = (-6 ± √(36 - 32)) 2 x = (-6 to 4) 2 x = (-6 to 2) 2 x = (-3 to 1) 1 x = (-2 to 4)

Generally, any quadratic equation of the form may be solved using the quadratic formula to get the roots.

Whereas a, b, and c are real numbers, + bx + c=0. One effective method for tackling a wide range of physics and maths issues is the quadratic formula.

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Answer:

3√5 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given the formula as;

d = √(3h/2)

Wyatt:

His eye level is 120 ft above sea level, so;

h = 120 ft

Hence;

d = √(3 × 120/2)

d = √180

d = √(36 × 5)

d = √36 × √5

d = 6√5 miles

Shawn:

His eye level is 270 ft above sea level, so;

h = 270 ft

d = √(3 × 270/2)

d = √405

d = √(81 × 5)

d = √81 × √5

d = 9√5 miles

So to find how much farther Shawn can see to the horizon, we'll subtract the value of d of wyatt from that of shawn.

Thus;

Shawn - Wyatt = 9√5 - 6√5 = 3√5 miles

Answer:

the answer  b

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Answer is 12/13 B

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The correct answer is A: 600 <= money <= 2822.4.

This represents the range of possible values that Pankaj's accumulated money could fall into, given the specified conditions of the 3% interest rate compounded weekly for a maximum of 2 years. The lower bound, 600, represents the initial deposit amount, while the upper bound, 2822.4, represents the maximum amount of money Pankaj could earn after 2 years, assuming that interest is compounded every week.

Answer:

0.96 in^3

Step-by-step explanation:

Are those the only three choices? Anyway, I hope this helps

Answer:

0.3085 = 30.85% probability that an individual man’s step length is less than 2.5 feet.

Step-by-step explanation:

Normal Probability Distribution:

Problems of normal distributions can be solved using the z-score formula.

In a set with mean \(\mu\) and standard deviation \(\sigma\), the z-score of a measure X is given by:

\(Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}\)

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X. Subtracting 1 by the p-value, we get the probability that the value of the measure is greater than X.

Mean of 2.7 feet and a standard deviation of 0.4 feet.

This means that \(\mu = 2.7, \sigma = 0.4\)

Find the probability that an individual man’s step length is less than 2.5 feet.

This is the p-value of Z when X = 2.5. So

\(Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}\)

\(Z = \frac{2.5 - 2.7}{0.4}\)

\(Z = -0.5\)

\(Z = -0.5\) has a p-value of 0.3085

0.3085 = 30.85% probability that an individual man’s step length is less than 2.5 feet.