braincells = lost can someone fill in the blank

The area of triangle EFG, to the nearest square inch, is approximately 1061 square inches.

To find the area of triangle EFG, we can use the formula:

\(Area = (1/2) \times base \times height\)

In this case, the base of the triangle is FG, and the height is the perpendicular distance from vertex E to side FG.

First, let's find the length of FG. We can use the law of cosines:

FG² = EF² + EG² - 2 * EF * EG * cos(∠F)

EF = 72 inches

EG = 34 inches

∠F = 21°

Plugging these values into the equation:

FG² = 72² + 34² - 2 * 72 * 34 * cos(21°)

Solving for FG, we get:

FG ≈ 83.02 inches

Next, we need to find the height. We can use the formula:

height = \(EF \times sin( \angle F)\)

Plugging in the values:

height = 72 * sin(21°)

height ≈ 25.52 inches

Now we can calculate the area:

\(Area = (1/2) \times FG \times height\\Area = (1/2)\times 83.02 \times 25.52\)

Area ≈ 1060.78 square inches

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Answer:

Yes you do 4*3 =12 and 12* 10 = 120:)

Step-by-step explanation:

Based on the concept of measurement, the decimal equivalent is 0.75.

To start, it is important to understand that time is a form of measurement that can be expressed in a variety of ways, including hours, minutes, seconds, and even fractions of seconds. Decimals are also a common way to express time, especially in situations where precision and accuracy are important.

To convert 45 minutes into a decimal, you need to first understand the relationship between minutes and hours.

There are 60 minutes in one hour, which means that 45 minutes is equivalent to 0.75 hours

=> (45/60 = 0.75).

Once you have this decimal equivalent, you can express it in a variety of ways, depending on the context.

If you were measuring time in terms of a workday (i.e. 8 hours), 0.75 hours would be equal to 45 minutes. On the other hand, if you were measuring time in terms of a percentage of an hour (i.e. 100%), 0.75 hours would be equal to 75%.

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To the nearest ten dollars, there would be approximately $81,329 in the account after 11 years.

To calculate the future value of an investment with compound interest, we can use the formula:

FV = P(1 + r/n)^(nt)

Where:

FV = Future value

P = Principal amount (initial investment)

r = Annual interest rate (as a decimal)

n = Number of times interest is compounded per year

t = Number of years

In this case:

P = $60,000

r = 3.4% = 0.034 (as a decimal)

n = 365 (daily compounding)

t = 11 years

Plugging in these values, we can calculate the future value (FV):

FV = $60,000 * (1 + 0.034/365)^(365*11)

Calculating this expression, we find:

FV ≈ $60,000 * (1.000093835)^40015 ≈ $81,329.20

Therefore, to the nearest ten dollars, there would be approximately $81,329 in the account after 11 years.

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well, since the y-intercept is at -5, or namely when the line hits the y-axis is at -5, that's when x = 0, so the point is really (0 , -5), and we also know another point on the line, that is (-1 ,6), to get the equation of any straight line, we simply need two points off of it, so let's use those two

\(\stackrel{y-intercept}{(\stackrel{x_1}{0}~,~\stackrel{y_1}{-5})}\qquad (\stackrel{x_2}{-1}~,~\stackrel{y_2}{6}) \\\\\\ \stackrel{slope}{m}\implies \cfrac{\stackrel{rise} {\stackrel{y_2}{6}-\stackrel{y1}{(-5)}}}{\underset{run} {\underset{x_2}{-1}-\underset{x_1}{0}}} \implies \cfrac{6 +5}{-1} \implies \cfrac{ 11 }{ -1 } \implies - 11\)

\(\begin{array}{|c|ll} \cline{1-1} \textit{point-slope form}\\ \cline{1-1} \\ y-y_1=m(x-x_1) \\\\ \cline{1-1} \end{array}\implies y-\stackrel{y_1}{(-5)}=\stackrel{m}{- 11}(x-\stackrel{x_1}{0}) \implies y +5 = - 11 ( x -0) \\\\\\ y+5=-11x\implies {\Large \begin{array}{llll} y=-11x-5 \end{array}}\)

Answer:

Not happy with it! :)

Step-by-step explanation:

I dont get the point. its a pain to change the time on the clock and i hate getting up early!! Not a early lol

Have an amazing day!!

PLEASE RATE!

Answer:

58, 76, 64, 198

Step-by-step explanation:

Using the triangle midsegment theorem, \(JK=58, LK=76\), and \(LJ=64\).

So, the perimeter of \(\triangle JLK=58+76+64=198\)

A small p-value provides strong evidence against the null hypothesis. The null hypothesis is the hypothesis that there is no significant difference or relationship between two variables.

The p-value is the probability of obtaining a result as extreme or more extreme than the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true.
If the p-value is small, typically less than 0.05, it means that the observed result is unlikely to have occurred by chance alone if the null hypothesis is true. This suggests that there is strong evidence against the null hypothesis and that we should reject it in favor of the alternative hypothesis. .
For example, if we conduct a hypothesis test to determine whether a new drug is more effective than a placebo, a small p-value would indicate that the drug is indeed more effective. This is because the observed results are highly unlikely to occur if the drug is not effective.
In summary, a small p-value provides strong evidence against the null hypothesis and supports the alternative hypothesis. It suggests that the observed results are not due to chance and that there is a significant difference or relationship between the variables being studied.

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The rate at which the top of the ladder is moving down the wall = 9 feet/second.

This is a problem of right triangle similarity.

We can use the Pythagorean theorem to find the height of the ladder, which is the hypotenuse of a right triangle.

We can use the relationship between similar triangles to find the rate at which the top of the ladder is moving down the wall.

Let x be the distance of the base of the ladder from the wall.

We know that the ladder is 26 feet long, so the height of the ladder is the square root of (26^2 - x^2).

We know that the base of the ladder is moving away from the wall at a rate of 3 feet per second.

So, the rate at which the top of the ladder is moving down the wall is (3 feet/second) * (height of ladder / x)

When x = 10 feet, the height of the ladder is the square root of (26^2 - 10^2) = the square root of (676) = 26 feet.

So, the rate at which the top of the ladder is moving down the wall is (3 feet/second) * (26 feet / 10 feet) = 9 feet/second.

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The mean would be 83.583 and median would be 84.684.

To find out which value is mean and which value is a median we need to first understand the definitions of both the terms. Mean is defined as the sum of all the terms divided by the number of total number of terms present in the list. Median is defined as the middle term of the list when the terms is arranged in the ascending or descending order.

So, according to the values given, mean would be 83.583degrees . Since, we were to calculate the sum of all the values in the list and divide it by the total number of values, we would obtain an average. While when the list is arranged in ascending or descending order, the value in the middle comes out as 84.6degrees .

Therefore, in this case the mean would be 83.583 and median would be 84.684.

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Answer:

I'm Pretty sure B, I am not that good at math but i hope i got it correct!

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The answer is B, my darling.

Given

Formula

Substitute the given into the formula

The final balance is ₦2,180.94

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

11q + 5 <= 49

11q <= 44

q <= 4

answer is B

The minimum possible value of the European call option is approximately 2.8752.

Given the parameters S = 52 (current stock price), K = 50 (strike price), r = 24% (annual interest rate), and a time to maturity of 3 months, we can calculate the minimum call option value.

The Black-Scholes formula for European call option pricing is as follows:

C = S * N(d1) - K * e^(-r*T) * N(d2)

Where:

C = Call option price

S = Current stock price

N = Cumulative standard normal distribution function

d1 = (ln(S/K) + (r + σ^2/2) * T) / (σ * sqrt(T))

d2 = d1 - σ * sqrt(T)

K = Strike price

r = Annual interest rate

T = Time to maturity (in years)

e = Euler's number (approximately 2.71828)

σ = Implied volatility of the underlying asset

Using the provided values, we can calculate the minimum call option value as follows:

d1 = (ln(52/50) + (0.24 + 0^2/2) * (3/12)) / (0.24 * sqrt(3/12))

   = (ln(1.04) + 0.12 * 0.25) / (0.24 * 0.1443)

   = (0.0392 + 0.03) / 0.0346

   = 1.7507

d2 = 1.7507 - 0.24 * sqrt(3/12)

   = 1.7507 - 0.24 * 0.1443

   = 1.7507 - 0.0346

   = 1.7161

N(d1) = N(1.7507) ≈ 0.9599 (using standard normal distribution table)

N(d2) = N(1.7161) ≈ 0.9569 (using standard normal distribution table)

C = 52 * 0.9599 - 50 * e^(-0.24 * (3/12)) * 0.9569

 = 49.9152 - 50 * e^(-0.06) * 0.9569

 ≈ 49.9152 - 50 * 0.9408

 ≈ 49.9152 - 47.040

 ≈ 2.8752

Therefore, the minimum possible value of the European call option is approximately 2.8752.

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Answer:

0.42686626268 yeah that it

Answer:

60%of 850

60×850÷100

=510

Answer:

\(-4\)

Step-by-step explanation:

The formula for average rate of change (AROC) is:  \(\frac{f(b)-f(a)}{b-a}\)

\(\frac{f(2)-f(0)}{2-0}\) ⇒ \(\frac{-3-5}{2-0} =-4\)

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

2x-3

x=2

==========================================================

Explanation:

We can pick any two rows from the table to get the (x,y) points needed to find the slope.

Let's say we pick the second and third rows

Subtract the y values: 14-6 = 8

Subtract the x values in the same order: 1-3 = -2

Divide the differences: 8/(-2) = -4

The slope is -4

--------------------------------------------------

You can use the slope formula

Let's say the points are (x1,y1) = (1,14) and (3,6)

m = (y2-y1)/(x2-x1)

m = (6-14)/(3-1)

m = -8/2

m = -4

It's the same basic idea as the previous section. You subtract the y values together (y2-y1) and the x values together (x2-x1) and divide the differences to get m. The order of subtraction doesn't matter as long as you stay consistent. If you do something like y2-y1 and x1-x2, then you'll get the wrong slope value.

a) The GCD of 9 and 11 can be expressed as: 1 = 9 - 4(11) + 5(9).

b) The GCD of 33 and 44 can be expressed as: 11 = 44 - 1(33)

c) The GCD of 35 and 78 can be expressed as: 1 = 35 - 4(78) + 11(35) - 22(8).

d) The GCD of 21 and 55 can be expressed as: 1 = 21 - 2(55) + 3(21) - 4(13) + 7(8) - 11(5) + 18(3) - 29(2).

Using the technique used in Example 17, let's go through each pair of integers and determine their greatest common divisor (GCD) as a linear combination of the numbers.

a) Pair: 9, 11

We start by dividing the larger number by the smaller number:

11 ÷ 9 = 1 remainder 2

Next, we divide the smaller number (9) by the remainder (2):

9 ÷ 2 = 4 remainder 1

We continue this process until we obtain a remainder of 0:

2 ÷ 1 = 2 remainder 0

The last non-zero remainder is 1, which is the GCD of 9 and 11.

To express the GCD (1) as a linear combination of 9 and 11, we backtrack through the divisions:

1 = 9 - 4(2) + 1(1)

So, the GCD of 9 and 11 can be expressed as: 1 = 9 - 4(11) + 5(9)

b) Pair: 33, 44

44 ÷ 33 = 1 remainder 11

33 ÷ 11 = 3 remainder 0

The GCD of 33 and 44 is 11.

Expressing the GCD (11) as a linear combination:

11 = 44 - 1(33)

So, the GCD of 33 and 44 can be expressed as: 11 = 44 - 1(33)

c) Pair: 35, 78

78 ÷ 35 = 2 remainder 8

35 ÷ 8 = 4 remainder 3

8 ÷ 3 = 2 remainder 2

3 ÷ 2 = 1 remainder 1

2 ÷ 1 = 2 remainder 0

The GCD of 35 and 78 is 1.

Expressing the GCD (1) as a linear combination:

1 = 35 - 4(8) + 2(3) - 1(2)

So, the GCD of 35 and 78 can be expressed as: 1 = 35 - 4(78) + 11(35) - 22(8)

d) Pair: 21, 55

55 ÷ 21 = 2 remainder 13

21 ÷ 13 = 1 remainder 8

13 ÷ 8 = 1 remainder 5

8 ÷ 5 = 1 remainder 3

5 ÷ 3 = 1 remainder 2

3 ÷ 2 = 1 remainder 1

2 ÷ 1 = 2 remainder 0

The GCD of 21 and 55 is 1.

Expressing the GCD (1) as a linear combination:

1 = 21 - 1(13) + 1(8) - 1(5) + 1(3) - 1(2)

So, the GCD of 21 and 55 can be expressed as: 1 = 21 - 2(55) + 3(21) - 4(13) + 7(8) - 11(5) + 18(3) - 29(2)

These are the expressions of the greatest common divisors of each pair of integers as linear combinations of the integers.

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Answer:

$71766

Step-by-step explanation:

Cash price = 897060

10% deposit = 89706

Total 36 monthly payments = 24420 × 36 = 879120

monthly payment + deposit

879120 + 89706 = 968826

968826 - 897070

= 71766

The saving when paying in cash is $71766.

A ratio or value that may be stated as a fraction of 100 is called a percentage. And it is represented by the symbol '%'.

Given:

The cash price of a car is $897060.

To pay by hire purchase requires a 10% deposit.

That means,

10% of 897060,

= 89706

And total 36 monthly payments = 24420 × 36 = 879120

Now,

Monthly payment + deposit

= 879120 + 89706

= 968826

The saving when paying in the cash,

= 968826 - 897070

= 71766

Therefore, $71766 is the saving in the cash.

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Answer:

10x<2x+12

-2x    -2x  

8x<12

--  --

8    8

x<1.5

Answer:

x = - 3.5

Step-by-step explanation:

32 - 6x = 53 ( subtract 32 from both sides )

- 6x = 21 ( divide both sides by - 6 )

x = \(\frac{21}{-6}\) = - \(\frac{7}{2}\) = - 3.5

\(\large\boxed{x=-\frac{7}{2}}\)

To solve for \(x\), we need to isolate it on one side of the equation.

The most important part of this is knowing that whatever we do to one side of the equation, we must also do to the other.

Subtract 32 from both sides of the equation.

\(\begin{aligned}32-32-6x&=53-32\\-6x&=21\end{aligned}\)

Divide both sides of the equation by \(-6\).

\(\begin{aligned}\frac{-6x}{-6}&=\frac{21}{-6}\\x&=\boxed{-\frac{7}{2}}\end{aligned}\)

Answer:

The correct option is;

C. She should go back and remeasure all of her specimens again to find the error. If she can't do this, she should eliminate the outlier from the analysis, because this is an error in recording

Step-by-step explanation:

In order to minimize error in measurement, some valuable steps includes;

1) Perform a double check on all measurements to ensure that the measurements recorded are accurate

2) Ensure proper training before taking measurements

3) Measurements should only be taken under controlled conditions

4) Separate the entire population into smaller groups for proper recording

5) Have a second observer double check the records

Elena should remove the outlier of 122 centimeters (about 4 feet) from her dataset during data analysis due to its significant deviation from the typical lengths of beetles.

When analyzing her data, Elena should consider removing the outlier of 122 centimeters (about 4 feet) from her dataset. The Outlier is defined as a "data-point" which significantly deviates from the overall-pattern of the data.

In this case, the recorded length of 122 centimeters is likely an error or anomaly, as it is much larger than the typical lengths of beetles. Removing the outlier will help ensure that her analysis and conclusions accurately reflect the majority of the data and the actual behavior of the beetles.

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Answer:

m<1=88

Step-by-step explanation:

The two inside angles add up to the outside angle, so 44+44=88

Answer:

I would be 3 8/10

Step-by-step explanation:

hope this helps

Answer:

what is the answer

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

4x10^12, or the 4th one

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1. Intersecting lines are always coplanar

2. Two planes never intersect in exactly one point

3. Three points are always coplanar

4. A plane containing two points of a line always contains the entire line

5. Four points are sometimes coplanar

6. Two lines never meet in more than one point.

7. Two skew lines are never coplanar

8. Line TQ and Line QT are always the same line.

Step-by-step explanation:

Note: Coplanar means "In the same plane"

1. Each line exist in many planes. But different lines must share at least one plane for them to intersect. That is why intersecting lines are always coplanar.

2. Two planes never intersect at exactly one point because only lines intersect at a point. Planes can only intersect along a line.

3.Three points are always coplanar because in geometry, a group of points are coplanar because there is a geometric plane that they all lie on.

4. A plane containing two points of a line always contains the entire line. Yes

5. Four points are only sometimes coplanar because there is a probability that they may all not lie on the same plane

6. Two lines never meet in more than one point because lines are basically straight and cannot bend over to intersect at another point

7. Two skew lines are never coplanar because skews lines are lines that do not intersect and are never parallel.

8. Line TQ and Line QT are always the same line because a line is straight and extends from one point to the other. So, if a line is labelled TQ calling it QT means the same thing