Create your own equation

The name of every month ends in the letter y is the given statement. February is a counterexample to this statement. This is because February does not end with the letter 'y'. So the right  option is (c) February.

What is a counterexample?

In mathematics, a counterexample is an example that opposes or disproves a statement, proposition, or theorem. It is a scenario, an instance, or an example that goes against the given statement.

Therefore, a counterexample demonstrates that the given statement is false or invalid.In this case, the statement is: "The name of every month ends in the letter y." We have to find which of the months listed does not end in "y."February is the only month in the options listed that does not end in the letter "y."

Thus, it is a counterexample to the given statement. Therefore, the correct option is C, February.

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Answer:

-√32 < 59/11 < √30 < 5.49

6x + 2 and 3x + 1 are both equal to y, so they are both equal to each other.

6x + 2 = 3x + 1

3x = -1

x = -1/3

And plugging -1/3 in for x yields y = 0.

Answer:

d Because I just took the test and got it right

Answer: Both the mean and median decreased.

Step-by-step explanation:

The addition of the 500 lb baby elephant will have a huge impact on the mean, since you'll be finding the average (adding all numbers then dividing). So the only logical answer would be the chosen. The median will most likely either decrease or stay the same, but since staying the same isn't an option for the median, it's most likely going to be decrease.

[I do apologize in advance if it's wrong, and next time try submitting work on time :)) Hope I helped!]

Randy's loan, which uses continuous compounding, will never reach the same debt as Sam's loan, which compounds semi-annually, regardless of the time passed.



To solve this problem, we need to find the time it takes for Randy's loan to accumulate the same debt as Sam's loan after 79 months.For Sam's loan, we can use the formula for compound interest:

FV = PV * (1 + r/n)^(n*t)

Where FV is the future value, PV is the present value, r is the annual interest rate, n is the number of compounding periods per year, and t is the time in years.For Randy's loan, which uses continuous compounding, the formula is:FV = PV * e^(r*t)

Where e is Euler's number (approximately 2.71828).

We know that both loans have the same annual interest rate of 11.7%, so r = 0.117. Sam's loan compounds semi-annually, so n = 2. Randy's loan uses continuous compounding, so we can disregard n.

We need to solve for t when the future value (FV) of Randy's loan is equal to the future value of Sam's loan after 79 months, which is $8,084.Using the given formula and substituting the values:8084 = 8084 * e^(0.117*t)

Dividing both sides by 8084:1 = e^(0.117*t)

To solve for t, we take the natural logarithm (ln) of both sides:

ln(1) = ln(e^(0.117*t))

0 = 0.117*t

Dividing both sides by 0.117:t = 0

This implies that Randy's loan will never reach the same debt as Sam's loan, regardless of the time passed.

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Therefore,  The length of the hollow cylindrical pipe is approximately 55.48 meters.

To solve this problem, we will first find the volume of the solid iron rectangular block and then use it to find the length of the hollow cylindrical pipe. Here are the steps:

1. Find the volume of the rectangular block:
  Volume = Length × Width × Height
  Volume = 3.5m × 2.4m × 2m = 16.8 m³
2. Convert the internal radius and thickness to meters:
  Internal radius = 27 cm = 0.27 m
  Thickness = 4 cm = 0.04 m
3. Calculate the external radius of the pipe:
  External radius = Internal radius + Thickness
  External radius = 0.27m + 0.04m = 0.31m
4. Let L be the length of the pipe. We can write the volume of the hollow pipe as:
  Volume = π × (External radius² - Internal radius²) × Length
  16.8 m³ = π × (0.31² - 0.27²) × L
5. Solve for L:
  L = 16.8 m³ / [π × (0.31² - 0.27²)]
  L ≈ 55.48 meters
Therefore,  The length of the hollow cylindrical pipe is approximately 55.48 meters.

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Answer:

Yes

Step-by-step explanation:

2/2 can be simplified to 1. 8/8 can be simplified to 1. 1=1 so the fractions are equivalent.

Answer:

Yes

Step-by-step explanation:

2 is the same as 2 so it equals 1 same thing with 8/8because 8=8 and one and one are the same thing

Answer:

=64

Step-by-step explanation:

7(3+3+3)+1

=7(6+3)+1

=(7)(9)+1

=63+1

=64

50% or 1/6

Its because half the numbers would be even.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The ratio of males to females at a gym is 4:5. There are 20 females at the gym. How many males are in the gym?​

4 : 5 = x : 20

x = 4 * 20 : 5

x = 16

---------------------

check

4 : 5 = 16 : 20

4 : 5 = 4 : 5

the answer is good

Answer:

16÷5 is the division problem

Answer:3i

Step-by-step explanation:

A. The probability of selecting a defective component on the first attempt is 0.3 or 30%.

B. The probability of selecting a defective component on the second attempt, given that the first component selected was defective, is approximately 0.299 or 29.9%.

C. The probability of selecting two defective components is approximately 0.09 or 9%.

D.  The probability of selecting a non-defective component on the first attempt and a defective component on the second attempt is approximately 0.21 or 21%.

E. The probability of selecting a defective component on the second attempt is approximately 0.329 or 32.9%.

F. The probability of the first component selected being defective, given that the second component selected was defective, is approximately 0.273 or 27.3%.

G. It is not reasonable to treat A and B as though they were independent

a) The probability of drawing a defective component on the first attempt can be calculated as follows:

P(A) = (number of defective components in the lot) / (total number of components in the lot)

P(A) = 300/1000

P(A) = 0.3

Therefore, the probability of selecting a defective component on the first attempt is 0.3 or 30%.

b) The probability of selecting a defective component on the second attempt, given that the first component selected was defective, can be calculated as follows:

P(B|A) = (number of defective components remaining in the lot) / (total number of components remaining in the lot after selecting a defective component on the first attempt)

P(B|A) = 299/999

P(B|A) ≈ 0.299

Therefore, the probability of selecting a defective component on the second attempt, given that the first component selected was defective, is approximately 0.299 or 29.9%.

c) The probability of selecting two defective components can be calculated as follows:

P(A^B) = P(A) * P(B|A)

P(A^B) = 0.3 * 0.299

P(A^B) ≈ 0.09

Therefore, the probability of selecting two defective components is approximately 0.09 or 9%.

d) The probability of selecting a non-defective component on the first attempt and a defective component on the second attempt can be calculated as follows:

P(AC^B) = P(AC) * P(B|AC)

P(AC^B) = (number of non-defective components in the lot / total number of components in the lot) * (number of defective components remaining in the lot after selecting a non-defective component on the first attempt / total number of components remaining in the lot after selecting a non-defective component on the first attempt)

P(AC^B) = (700/1000) * (300/999)

P(AC^B) ≈ 0.21

Therefore, the probability of selecting a non-defective component on the first attempt and a defective component on the second attempt is approximately 0.21 or 21%.

e) The probability of selecting a defective component on the second attempt can be calculated as follows:

P(B) = P(A)*P(B|A) + P(AC)*P(B|AC)

P(B) = 0.3 * 0.299 + 0.7 * 300/999

P(B) ≈ 0.329

Therefore, the probability of selecting a defective component on the second attempt is approximately 0.329 or 32.9%.

f) The probability of the first component selected being defective, given that the second component selected was defective, can be calculated as follows:

P(A|B) = P(A^B) / P(B)

P(A|B) = (0.3 * 0.299) / 0.329

P(A|B) ≈ 0.273

Therefore, the probability of the first component selected being defective, given that the second component selected was defective, is approximately 0.273 or 27.3%.

g) To determine if events A and B are independent, we need to check if the occurrence of one event affects the probability of the other event occurring.

If events A and B are independent, then P(B|A) = P(B). We found that P(B|A) ≈ 0.299 and P(B) ≈ 0.329, which are not equal. Therefore, events A and B are not independent.

It is not reasonable to treat

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The pdf of the kth order statistic X(k) can be found using the formula: f(k)(x) = n!/[ (k-1)! (n-k)! ] * [ F(x) ]^(k-1) * [ 1-F(x) ]^(n-k) * f(x) where F(x) is the cdf of the uniform distribution on [0,8] and f(x) is the pdf of the uniform distribution, which is 1/8 for x in [0,8]. The expected value of X is 4.

Using this formula, we can find the pdf of X(k) for any k between 1 and n.

For the expected value of X, we can use the formula:

E[X] = ∫₀⁸ x * f(x) dx

Since X is uniformly distributed on [0,8], the pdf f(x) is constant over this interval, equal to 1/8. Therefore, we have:

E[X] = ∫₀⁸ x * (1/8) dx = 1/16 * x^2 |_₀⁸ = 4

So the expected value of X is 4.

Regarding the hint given, it seems to be unrelated to the problem at hand and does not provide any additional information for solving it.

Let X1, X2, ..., Xn denote independent and uniformly distributed random variables on the interval [0, 8]. To find the pdf of the kth order statistic, X(k), where k is an integer between 1 to n, we can use the following formula:

pdf of X(k) = (n! / [(k-1)! * (n-k)!]) * (x^(k-1) * (8-x)^(n-k)) / (8^n)

For the expected value E[X(k)], we can use the provided hint:

∫(x * pdf of X(k)) dx from 0 to 8 = ∫[x * (n! / [(k-1)! * (n-k)!]) * (x^(k-1) * (8-x)^(n-k)) / (8^n)] dx from 0 to 8

The hint suggests that the integral can be simplified using a gamma function Γ(a+) with unknown parameters a and β:

∫(x^4-4 * (1 - x)^β-1) dx = Γ(a)(β)

To find E[X(k)], solve the integral with the appropriate parameters for a and β.

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Answer:

You can get the answer of 1,2,3,4,5 or 6. Each are 1/6 likely to be rolled.

Step-by-step explanation:

The die has 6 sides. If you were to roll the die 6 times you have the chance to roll the side with 1. The chances of rolling a 1 are 1/6.

To discover the full sum of fuel required for 7 flights of a radio-controlled demonstrates plane that employments a cup of fuel for each flight, ready-to-utilize products by increasing the sum of fuel required for one flight by the number of flights.

In this case, one flight uses a glass of fuel, which is comparable to 8 liquid ounces. Subsequently, to discover the whole sum of fuel required for 7 flights, we will duplicate the sum of fuel needed for one flight by 7:

Add up to sum of fuel = 1 cup x 7 = 7 glasses

On the other hand, we are able to change over glasses to liquid ounces and after that utilize products. One container is identical to 8 liquid ounces, so we are able to utilize products by duplicating 8 liquid ounces by 7 flights:

Add up to sum of fuel = 8 liquid ounces x 7 = 56 liquid ounces

thus, we require an additional up to 7 mugs or 56 liquid ounces of fuel for 7 flights of the radio-controlled show plane. 

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The conjecture that describes the pattern in the sequence is current term is 2 added to the previous term and the next term is 10

The sequence is given as:

0, 2, 4, 6, 8

In the above sequence, we can see that each current term is 2 added to the previous term

i.e.

Tn = 2 + Tn-1

Using the above conjecture, we have

Next term = 8 + 2

Evaluate

Next term = 10

Hence, the conjecture that describes the pattern in the sequence is current term is 2 added to the previous term and the next term is 10

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The expected value in a binomial situation with n = 18 and π = 0.60 is E(X) = np = 18 * 0.60 = 10.8.

In a binomial situation, the expected value, denoted as E(X), represents the average or mean outcome of a random variable X. It is calculated by multiplying the number of trials, denoted as n, by the probability of success for each trial, denoted as π.

In this case, we are given n = 18 and π = 0.60. To find the expected value, we multiply the number of trials, 18, by the probability of success, 0.60.

n = 18 (number of trials)

π = 0.60 (probability of success for each trial)

To find the expected value:

E(X) = np

Substitute the given values:

E(X) = 18 * 0.60

Calculate the expected value:

E(X) = 10.8

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Answer:

20

Step-by-step explanation:

since for every 1 lemonade there is 4 cranberry you have 5 lemonade now so you need 4 cranberry for every one of the 5 lemonade, which gives you 20

Answer:

y = -1/3x + 10

Step-by-step explanation:

If the inflation rate is 180%, the average prices will double in less than one year.

This is because inflation measures the increase in the prices of goods and services over a period of time. Therefore, the formula for calculating how many years it will take for average prices to double at a given inflation rate is:Years to double = 70/inflation rate

In this case, the inflation rate is 180%.

Therefore:Years to double = 70/180%

Years to double = 0.389 years

This means that average prices will double in approximately 4.67 months (0.389 years multiplied by 12 months per year).

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The implicit function : \(e^{-y}\)(-y + 8) *5 -  \(e^{5x}\) = c

Given

dx/dt = y - 9

dy/dt = \(e^{5x+y}\)

Now,

Divide both the equations,

dx/dt = y - 9

dy/dt = \(e^{5x+y}\)

Thus,

dy/dx =    \(e^{5x+y}\) / y -9

dy/dx = \(e^{5x} * e^{y}\)/y - 9

Combine the terms with variable x and y,

(y-9)dy/\(e^{y}\) = \(e^{5x}\)dx

(y-9)\(e^{-y}\) dy = \(e^{5x}\) dx

(y\(e^{-y}\) - 9y)dy =   \(e^{5x}\)dx

Take integral on both sides,

\(e^{-y}\)(-y -1 + 9) = \(e^{5x}\)/5 + c

\(e^{-y}\)(-y -1 + 9) *5 = \(e^{5x}\) + c

\(e^{-y}\)(-y + 8) *5 -  \(e^{5x}\) = c

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Answer:

x = 7

Step-by-step explanation:

Compare the ratios of the longer side length to the shorter side length:

8 : 10 = (3x - 9) : 15

8*(3/2) : 15 = (3x - 9) : 15

Then, form an equation.

8 * (3/2) = 3x - 9

12 = 3x - 9

21 = 3x

7 = x

Number of cans that will be needed is 331

First, we need to find the area of the triangle. We can use Heron's formula to do this

s = (65 + 67 + 72) / 2 = 102

Area = √(102(102-65)(102-67)(102-72)) ≈ 2147.38 square meters

Now we need to convert this area to square feet since the coverage of the paint can is given in square feet.

1 meter = 3.28084 feet

2147.38 square meters ≈ 23124.64 square feet

Next, we need to find out how many cans of paint we need to cover this area

1 can of paint = 70 square feet

Number of cans = 23124.64 square feet / 70 square feet per can

= 330.35

= 331 cans

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