Deficiency of this trace mineral causes a delay in sexual maturation & growth.

Answers

Answer 1

A deficiency of Zinc trace mineral causes a delay in sexual maturation & growth

The body needs zinc, an essential trace mineral, for several physiological functions, including development and sexual maturation. These elements of development can be impacted by a zinc deficit. It has a role in the creation and control of hormones, particularly those necessary for growth and sexual development. Hence, it is required for production of proteins and DNA, both of which are crucial for cell division, tissue growth, and all other processes involved in physical development.

A zinc deficiency can cause growth delays as well as delayed sexual development in kids and teenagers. This is because of reason that zinc is essential for bone and muscular growth, as well as for the proper development and operation of the reproductive system.

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Related Questions

its a song...........

its a song...........

Answers

Explanation:

correct me if I'm wrong but isn't that falling down by lil peep and xxxtentacion

Falling down by lil peep and Xxxtentacion released in September 19 2018 and recorded in 2017

A man takes an SSRI (Prozac) for 2 weeks without any effect and wants to know what he should do. The man should:

Answers

If a man takes an SSRI medication such as Prozac for two weeks without experiencing any positive effects, it is important for him to consult his prescribing healthcare provider.

The healthcare provider may recommend adjusting the dosage or switching to a different medication to find the most effective treatment. It is important for the man to be honest with his healthcare provider about any side effects or lack of improvement in symptoms. It is not recommended for the man to stop taking the medication abruptly without consulting his healthcare provider as this can lead to withdrawal symptoms. Finding the right medication and dosage can take time and patience, but it is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to ensure the best treatment outcomes.
The man taking the SSRI (Prozac) for two weeks without noticing any effect should be patient, as these medications often require time to produce noticeable improvements. It is common for SSRIs to take 4-6 weeks to achieve their full therapeutic effect. The man should consult with his healthcare provider to discuss his concerns, dosage adjustments, and the possibility of supplementing with additional therapies if needed. Regular follow-ups are crucial for monitoring progress and ensuring the treatment's effectiveness. It is essential not to discontinue the medication abruptly without professional guidance, as this may cause withdrawal symptoms.

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autografts and homografts are scheduled for a burn patient after debridement. what additional furniture does the technologist need to bring into the standard operating room?

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The additional furniture that the technologist needs to bring into the standard operating room are back table, Mayo stand, warming basin.

Debridement/excision, grafting, and reconstruction are the three main surgical methods used to treat patients with thermal burns. This activity discusses burn treatment and emphasises the part played by the medical staff in caring for patients who have burn surgery. The best indicators of morbidity and mortality are the total body surface area (TBSA) of the burn and the depth of the burn, which also dictates the course of treatment. Other than autografts and homograft, other furniture like back table, Mayo stand, and Warming basin is also used for operation.

Burns to the epidermis are referred to as superficial (first-degree) burns and typically result in minimal damage and no blisters. As keratinocytes rebuild, the damaged epidermis sloughs off in 3 to 4 days. Partial-thickness burns (second-degree) are burns that have penetrated the dermis, and depending on the depth of penetration, partial-thickness burns can also be classified as superficial or deep.

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What is the most important nursing action involved in caring for a client using medications to manage disease?

- Administering the medications
- Teaching about the medications
- Ensuring adherence to the medication regimen
- Evaluating the client's ability to self-administer medications

Answers

Ensuring adherence to the medication regimen is the most important nursing action involved in caring for a client using medications to manage the disease.

While all of the aforementioned choices are significant, maintaining medication adherence is crucial to the client's overall therapy and disease management. The capacity of the patient to take prescriptions as directed, including the proper amount, timing, and frequency, is referred to as adherence. Ineffective treatment outcomes, illness progression, comorbidities, and higher healthcare expenses might result from noncompliance with pharmaceutical regimens.

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which of the following is the least preferable way to refuse when someone offers you drugs at a patty?

Answers

Answer:

B."What? Drugs are illegal and you know it. If you ask me to try it again, I'll call the police."

Explanation:

Umm b/c u sound like a snitch if u say dis

What are similarities between vitamins and supplements?.

Answers

Supplements and vitamins, are the two types of nutrients present in a person's diet.

They both are important for normal bodily functions. They can also help cure and prevent certain diseases.

How do you differentiate between them?

Vitamins are organic substances. They are essential in little quantities in most plants and animals nutrition.

Supplements are the products that are taken orally. They have  one/more ingredients that help supplement a person’s diet.

Vitamins occur naturally in one’s body.

Supplements are either synthetic or natural.

Vitamins are a kind of supplements, whereas supplements themselves are things that add to the nutritional value to a person’s diet and adds to increase health.

Supplements and vitamins, are therefore the two types of nutrients present in a diet.

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A hospital is trying to implement a new patient assessment form. They want to first test the usability and efficacy of the form. The hospital has an English-speaking nurse (Nurse Moss) assess one English-speaking patient with the new form. It is a successful test and the improvement team wants to increase the scale of the next test. What should they do

Answers

When working on improvement, you should balance your confidence in succeeding against the possible repercussions of a test that does not result in improvement. Depending on your level of belief and the risks involved, you should scale back your initial PDSA cycle.

What is PDSA cycle?PDCA, also known as the Deming circle/cycle/wheel, the Shewhart cycle, the control circle/cycle, or plan-do-study-act, is an iterative design and management technique used in business for the control and continuous improvement of processes and products (PDSA).The PDCA cycle can also be expressed as OPDCA, where the extra "O" stands for observation or, in some versions, "Observe the current condition." This emphasis on observation and current condition is in line with the literature on lean manufacturing and the Toyota Production System. The PDCA cycle can be traced back to S with Ishikawa's modifications. Tokyo Institute of Technology's Mizuno in 1959.

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the okinawan dietary pattern has changed remarkably in the post-world war ii era. the adoption of westernized food practices has led to the production of highly processed foods and a marked increase in saturated fat intake. younger okinawans now have a higher risk of obesity and chronic disease than their parents and grandparents who ate in the traditional way. the dietary guidelines recommends limiting saturated fat intake to less than 10% of total calories. on the spreadsheet report, examine the column for calories (cals) and saturated fat (fat-s). approximately what percentage of calories came from saturated fat in elaine's dietary intake on this day?

Answers

To accurately determine the percentage of calories that came from saturated fat in Elaine's dietary intake, I would need access to the specific spreadsheet report you mentioned.

Without the actual data, I cannot provide an exact percentage. However, I can guide you on how to calculate it if you provide the values for calories and saturated fat from the spreadsheet.

To calculate the percentage of calories from saturated fat, you would follow these steps:

Locate the values for total calories (cals) and saturated fat (fat-s) in Elaine's dietary intake on the given day from the spreadsheet report.Divide the number of calories from saturated fat by the total calories consumed.Multiply the result by 100 to obtain the percentage.

Please provide the values from the spreadsheet, and I'll be happy to help you calculate the percentage.

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While taking a patient’s medical history, Susan asks about his social history. She asks whether he drinks alcohol. The patient immediately becomes defensive and accuses Susan of getting too personal about his affairs.

a. How might Susan explain her reasons for asking these questions? What options are available if the patient refuses to discuss his social history with Susan?

b. Could this opposition to questions about the social history raise suspicion in Susan’s mind? What might she suspect?

Answers

Answer:

okok so

Explanation:

a: explain that its simply for the records and not to judge or conifine him in anyway.

b: yes, she may suspect him to be a acoholic of somekind

It should be noted that Susan can explain to the patient that his social history is relevant to the case as it can be used to aid the treatment.  

The opposition to questions about the social history can not raise suspicion in Susan’s mind. By not providing his social history, the patient will not raise suspicion in the mind of Susan as some people as just defensive in their privacy.

It is Susan's responsibility because the doctor has very little amount of time. To answer the patient’s question, it is vital to tell the patient the reason behind the formality and why the doctor cannot do it.

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If an 1800-kcalorie diet contains 100 grams of fat, the percentage of kcal from the fat is: a. 20 %. b. 35 %. c. 50 %. d. 65 %.

Answers

Answer:

It should be about 5.4% which adds up to about 100.8 calories. None of these answer options appear to be consistent with that

Explanation:

1,800*0.20=360 kcals

1,800*0.35=630 kcals

Anything higher than those values is much too high for fat intake.

The Dietary Reference Intake for fat in adults is 20% to 35% of total calories from fat. The 100 grams of fat will produce a percentage of 50% of kcal.

Fats are the essential nutrient, which is required by humans. Carbohydrates, proteins, and fats yield calories or energy to carry out vital functions in the body.

Each gram of protein and carbohydrate yield 4 calories, whereas fats yield 9 calories per gram.

Given:

Kcal of diet = 1800

Fat in diet = 100 grams

We know that,

1 gram of fat = 9 calories

100 gram of fat =\(100 \times 9\) = 900 calories

The 900 calories are half of the total calorie intake of the diet. Thus, the 100 gram fat will yield 50% of the calories in the diet.

Thus, the correct answer is Option C.

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what is the correct medical term for a red blood cell?

Answers

Answer:

Erythrocytes

Explanation:

Erythrocytes are red blood cells

which musculoskeletal abnormality would the nurse suspect in a client who exhibits short steps and drags a foot? torticollis pes planus spastic gait steppage gait

Answers

In a client who takes small steps and drags a foot, the nurse detects a spastic gait.

An irregular walking pattern known as spastic gait results from increased muscular tone in one or more of the lower limbs. People with cerebral palsy, multiple sclerosis, stroke, and traumatic brain injury are frequently affected by it.

High stepping and scissoring of the legs, difficulties walking in a heel-to-toe pattern, dragging of the toes, and greater muscular effort to move the legs, resulting in short steps, are its defining characteristics. Increased hip and knee flexion as well as increased knee flexion on the afflicted side are additional indications and symptoms.

This musculoskeletal issue can be identified by the nurse by physical examination, imaging research, and gait analysis. Depending on the underlying reason, the course of treatment may involve physical therapy, medicine, orthotics, and assistive technology.

Complete Question:

Which musculoskeletal abnormality does the nurse suspect in a client who exhibits short steps and drags a foot?

1 Torticollis

2 Pes planus

3 Spastic gait

4 Steppage gait

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if a person takes 100 mg of Aspirin, he or she will

Answers

Answer:

to 100 milligrams, which is equal to three adult-strength aspirins, a safe dose for most people.

Explanation:

he/she/they will be fine it’s a safe dose

What is disease research

Answers

Disease research is when scientists research more about a dieasese.

Disease Research is when you sit down and specifically do research about disease.

D. O Disabled
9. In which of the following are the triceps considered the agonist?
A. O Bench press
B. O Preacher curl
C. O Overhead extension
D. O Chin-up
10. In order to calculate lean and fat mass, you must multiply the body fat

Answers

Answer:

a

Explanation:

is it true/false that Medical professionals may wear light cologne or perfume?

Answers

if it’s very soft and light then yes they can
Yes this is true ! Due to some patients who might have allergies and etc

A patient was in a car wreck and lost control over his left leg and left arm. He is admitted to a restorative care facility. In therapy, he is working on walking with a walker and strengthening his right arm. The nursing assistant suggests he participate in the bingo game at the care facility. She suggests that he brush his hair before going and places the brush in his right hand. The nursing assistant gives him his walker and leaves to attend other patients.

Which restorative care principle could the nursing assistant improve upon?

promote mobility
emphasize ability
prevent further disability
treat the whole person

Answers

Answer:

promote mobility

Explanation:

16. These structures keep the atrioventricular valves
from flipping back into the atria.
a. Chordae tendineae
b. Myocardial septa
c. Purkinje fibers
d. Semilunar cusps

Answers

Answer:

The structures that prevent the atrioventricular valves from reopening into the atria are called chordae tendineae (option a).

Explanation:

Tendinous cords, or chordae tendineae, are structures in the form of fibrous filaments that connect the atrioventricular valves to the papillary muscles of the ventricles.

The function of the chordae tendineae is to prevent the mitral and tricuspid valves from opening during ventricular contraction, preventing backflow of blood from the ventricles to the atria.

The chordae tendineae are predominantly made up of collagen and elastin, in addition to a small percentage of endothelium.

The other options are not correct because:

    b. Myocardial septa is the division between the right and left ventricles.

    c. Purkinje fibers are fibers that transmit the nerve impulse that allows ventricular contraction.

    d. Semilunar cusps, correspond to the shape of the closed semilunar valves.

A. Chordae tendineae

The AV valves are anchored to the wall of the ventricle by chordae tendineae (heartstrings), small tendons that prevent backflow by stopping the valve leaflets from inverting. The chordae tendineae are inelastic and attached at one end to the papillary muscles and at the other end to the valve cusps.

The physician's office has set the information systems to automatically log out after 5 minutes of inactivity. This falls under?

Answers

The automatic log-out feature after 5 minutes of inactivity in the physician's office information systems falls under the category of security measures.

The automatic log-out feature is implemented as a security measure to protect patient information and maintain confidentiality. By automatically logging out users after a period of inactivity, the system helps prevent unauthorized access to sensitive data and reduces the risk of potential security breaches.

In healthcare settings, it is essential to safeguard patient health information and comply with privacy regulations such as the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) in the United States. These regulations require healthcare organizations to implement security measures to ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of patient data.

The automatic log-out feature helps mitigate the risk of unauthorized access if a user forgets to log out or steps away from the computer without manually closing the session. By automatically terminating the session after a specified period of inactivity, the system reduces the chances of someone else gaining access to the patient's electronic health records or other sensitive information.

It is important for healthcare providers and staff to be aware of these security measures and to follow best practices in protecting patient information. Regular training and education on data security protocols, including the proper use of automatic log-out features, can help reinforce good security practices and maintain the privacy of patient data.

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can you tell me how to look up a question wrong answer only lol

Answers

Answer:

Do something useful with your life

Explanation:

A registered nurse with an associate degree in nursing (adn) is found by the bon to have violated npa section 301.452(b)(5) after the bon obtains evidence that the nurse falsely claimed to have a master of science in nursing (msn) degree on an application for employment in a nursing position. this conduct by the rn would also be considered a violation of

Answers

The Position Statements, rules, and other publications in the portion of the BON website devoted to nursing practise are meant to direct nurses.

What of the following elements does the bon consider when deciding whether a nurse's prior criminal activity is relevant?

When considering eligibility for licensure and disciplinary cases involving criminal conduct, the Board will take the following factors into account, among others: The kind, gravity, and scope of the person's prior criminal behaviour.

What justification does a nurse's licence get revoked or suspended for the most frequently?

A nurse's licence may be revoked by the nursing board for a number of reasons. DUI convictions, poor patient care techniques, and egregious negligence, such as giving out medications without a legal prescription, are some of the most typical causes.

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The physician orders penicillin G procaine 400,000 units IM for syphilis. The medication is supplied in 1,200,000 units/2 mL. How many milliliters will the nurse administer?

Answers

Answer: 0.33ml

Explanation:

What you have: 1,200,000 units/2ml

What you need: 400,000 units/x

1,200,000/2ml   x 400,000/x =

400000/1,200,000 = 0.33ml

check answer: 0.33333333 x 1,200,000= 400,000 units

Identify the abilities that contribute to good planning skills.

(medical terminology plato)

Answers

Answer:

Some abilities that contribute to good planning skills is being organized, being very open minded, good multi-tasking skills, having very good social skills, and having good knowledge on what you're planning on.    

9. What is the best treatment for diabetic coma?

Answers

Answer:

According to Mayo Clinic (n.d) Diabetic coma requires emergency medical treatment. The type of treatment depends on whether your blood sugar level is too high or too low.

High blood sugar

If your blood sugar level is too high, you may need:

Intravenous fluids to restore water to your tissues

Potassium, sodium or phosphate supplements to help your cells function correctly

Insulin to help your tissues absorb the glucose in your blood

Treatment for any underlying infections

Low blood sugar

If your blood sugar level is too low, you may be given a glucagon injection, which will cause your blood sugar level to quickly rise. Intravenous dextrose also may be given to raise blood glucose levels.

the emergency team suspects that alexandra may have sustained a neck injury during the accident. what should be done to protect the spinal cord

Answers

Answer:

okk plz mark brainlist 1

A narcotic analgesic tablet contains 5 mg of hydrocodone bitartrate and 500 mg of aspirin. How many grams of each ingredient needed to prepare 100 tablets?

Answers

Answer:

500 mg hydrocodone

5000 mg aspirin

Explanation:

1 tablet       -> 5 mg hydrocodone

100 tablets ->x

x=(100 tablets * 5 mg hydrocodone)/1 tablet      x=500 mg hydrocodone

1 tablet       ->500 mg aspirin

100 tablets ->x

x=(100 tablets*500 mg aspirin)/1 tablet         x=5000 mg aspirin

A stage of sleep characterized by almost pure delta waves, and our most restful sleep...
A. Stage I
B. Stage III
C. Stage IV
D. Stage V (REM)

Answers

Answer:

Stage III

Explanation:

Not stage 1, as you can wake up easily once you enter it

Not stage 2, as you're preparing for deep sleep

Stage 3, this is your deep sleep, your body repairs tissues at this stage

Not Rem, as rem fastens your heartbeat, you're brain is also very active in the rem stage

if cultural practices slow down the transmission rate of the hiv virus, it may help us to drive the fast killing (or virulent) strains out of circulation. true or false

Answers

The given statement, "If cultural practices slow down the transmission rate of the HIV virus, it may help us to drive the fast-killing (or virulent) strains out of circulation," is false because cultural practices alone cannot drive fast-killing or virulent strains of the HIV virus out of circulation.

HIV is a complex virus that primarily spreads through behaviors such as unprotected sexual contact, sharing needles, or mother-to-child transmission during childbirth or breastfeeding. While cultural practices can play a role in preventing the transmission of HIV, they are not sufficient to eliminate or control the specific strains of the virus.

The evolution and transmission dynamics of HIV are influenced by various factors, including viral mutations, host immune responses and individual behaviors. Fast-killing or virulent strains of the virus are not driven out of circulation solely by cultural practices but are influenced by multiple factors such as treatment accessibility, adherence to antiretroviral therapy, and comprehensive prevention strategies.

Effective prevention and control of HIV transmission require a comprehensive approach that includes access to testing, education, counseling, safe sexual practices, needle exchange programs, antiretroviral therapy, and addressing social and structural factors that contribute to the spread of the virus.

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A COTA® is preparing a client with T1 spinal cord injury for discharge to home alone. What is the BEST recommendation for required home assistance?

Answers

Answer:

A. Homemaking assistance for a few hours a daily

B. Attendant care 24 hours a day

C. Attendant care 12 hours a day

D. Homemaking assistance for several hours daily

The answer is D. Homemaking assistance for several hours daily

COTA® preparing a client with T1 spinal cord injury for discharge to home alone can choose to employ the use of BEST recommendation for required home assistance such as Homemaking assistance for several hours daily due to ensuring a degree of independence.

. Which test involves radioactive substance
injected into a vein and a gamma camera used
to take images of the blood flow; shows the
blood flow into the heart muscle during rest
and activity?
a. Exercise stress test
b. Implantable loop recorder
C. Nuclear stress test
d. Transtelephonic monitor

Answers

Explanation:

C. Nuclear stress test.

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