describe a woman pregnant for the theird time who lost one pregnancy and who carried two previous pregnanices to term

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

A woman pregnant for the theird time means she tried again after her loss and finally got pregnant again after her miscarriage despite the fact that the two previous pregnancies or she could have been infertile


Related Questions

What is the answer plz?

What is the answer plz?

Answers

answer is d // heart and kidney

Stacy, a physical therapy assistant, jokes about an Islamic patient’s religious garment. The patient overhears Stacy's comment and becomes visibly upset. Out of embarassment, the patient requests to work with Jim, another physical therapy assistant, and tells only Jim what happened. Jim reviews his company's code of conduct for guidance, and determines he has a moral obligation to report the situation to his superiors. Would you have done the same thing if you were in Jim's position?

Answers

Answer:

Hay

Explanation:

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I would have reported the situation. Stacey should have respected the patients garment and should have not questioned or joked about something regarding their religion. It was inappropriate and disrespectful. If you got told a patient overheard a comment from a physical therapist joking about their religious garment you should know that was unprofessional and report it.

HURRY
Which trait gained during childhood will help a young adult succeed?
A child’s increase in fine motor skills will allow for lasting friendships in adulthood.
A child’s sense of right and wrong will allow for a stronger memory in adulthood.
A child’s increase in gross motor skill will allow for vision acuity in adulthood.
A child’s decrease in dependency on his parents will allow for greater independence in adulthood.

Answers

Answer: B

A child's sence of rights and wrong will allow for a stronger memory in adulthood.

Answer:

the last one A child’s decrease in dependency on his parents will allow for greater independence in adulthood.

Explanation:

Cause and effect if a child is lease dependent on their parents, that will allow for more things without their parents like money.

Substance abuse service providers typically take a non-confrontational approach to the addiction. a. True b. False

Answers

The statement "Substance abuse service providers typically take a non-confrontational approach to the addiction" is false because substance abuse service providers do not typically take a non-confrontational approach to addiction. Thus, option B is correct.

In fact, many evidence-based approaches used in substance abuse treatment involve a confrontational or challenging stance towards addiction. These approaches recognize the need to address denial, resistance, and the harmful effects of addiction.

Therapeutic interventions such as motivational interviewing (MI) and cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) are commonly employed in substance abuse treatment.

While MI emphasizes empathy and collaboration, it also involves confronting ambivalence and helping individuals recognize the negative consequences of their substance use. CBT, on the other hand, challenges distorted thinking patterns and behaviors associated with addiction.

Moreover, interventions like community reinforcement approach and contingency management involve setting clear boundaries and consequences for substance use, which can be seen as a confrontational approach.

The goal of these confrontational approaches is to help individuals develop insight, motivation, and the necessary skills to overcome addiction. By addressing denial and challenging self-destructive beliefs and behaviors, substance abuse service providers can effectively support individuals on their path to recovery.

In conclusion, substance abuse service providers typically do not take a non-confrontational approach to addiction. Confrontational approaches are often employed in evidence-based treatments to address denial, resistance, and the underlying issues associated with substance abuse. Thus, option B is correct.

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Euthanasia is A term used when someone intentionally acts to terminate the life of a suffering individual

Answers

Answer:

Euthanasia

Explanation:

What you’re referring to is Euthanasia. It refers to deliberately ending someone's life, usually to relieve suffering and pain. Doctors sometimes perform euthanasia when requested by people who have a terminal illness and/or are in a lot of pain. It’s a complex process and involves weighing multiple factors.

Why is it important for an athletic trainer to check the athletic training student’s work periodically?

Answers

Answer:

To make sure they Ain't slaking off

Explanation:

Answer:

to make sure that the student isnt pushing herself to hard and to make sure that they do the excercise correctly so that they gain from it

Explanation:

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of visceral muscle? A. Fatigues easily B. Responds slowly C. May remain contracted for a long time D. Involuntarily controlled

Answers

Answer: A. Fatigues easily. Explanation: visceral muscles, or smooth muscles, are the muscles of organs (such as the stomach or intestines). These muscles do not fatigue most of the time, and run at a constant, steady pace to keep the body running smoothly.

what is the minimum garb a surgeon should wear to do aseptic surgery?

Answers

During aseptic surgery, surgeons and the surgical team take extensive precautions to maintain a sterile environment and minimize the risk of infection. The minimum garb a surgeon should typically wear includes:

Surgical Cap: A cap or hood is worn to cover the hair and prevent any shedding of contaminants.

Surgical Mask: A mask is used to cover the mouth and nose, reducing the risk of the surgeon exhaling or releasing any droplets that could contaminate the surgical field.

Sterile Gown: A sterile gown is worn to cover the surgeon's body, including the arms and torso. It acts as a barrier against microbial transmission from the surgeon to the patient.

Sterile Gloves: Sterile gloves are essential to maintain asepsis. They provide a protective barrier for the surgeon's hands and prevent direct contact with the surgical site.

Additional precautions may also include:

Shoe Covers: Surgeons may wear shoe covers to prevent contamination from footwear.

Protective Eyewear: To shield the eyes from potential splashes or contaminants, surgeons may wear protective eyewear, such as goggles or a face shield.

It's important to note that the specific requirements for surgical garb may vary depending on the institution, type of surgery, and specific protocols in place. These precautions are designed to minimize the introduction of microorganisms into the surgical area and help ensure a sterile environment for the patient's well-being.

A surgeon should wear a minimum of three layers of personal protective equipment (PPE) to do aseptic surgery. This includes a cap, a mask, and a gown. The purpose of the cap is to keep hair out of the sterile field and prevent airborne contamination. The mask is to protect the surgical site from droplets, which can contain bacteria and other contaminants. Lastly, the gown is to prevent any bodily fluids or contaminants from coming into contact with the surgeon's clothing and to maintain a sterile environment.

To avoid contamination during aseptic surgery, a surgeon should wear at least three layers of personal protective equipment. In a sterile operating room, maintaining a sterile environment is critical to prevent the spread of infections. Aseptic surgery is a process that uses aseptic techniques to minimize the risk of infections. This procedure aims to maintain a sterile environment by preventing contamination from both surgical staff and the patient's environment. Wearing a cap, a mask, and a gown is part of the standard aseptic technique used in surgery.The cap is worn to cover the hair and scalp, which is a common source of bacteria. Hair that is not covered can easily fall onto the surgical site, contaminating the area.

The mask, on the other hand, prevents the spread of droplets and airborne contaminants. During surgery, the patient's body is exposed, and any exposure to germs can result in infections. The mask filters the air inhaled and exhaled by the surgeon.

Lastly, the gown is used to prevent contact between the surgical staff and the patient's environment. The gown is also made of sterile materials that are non-permeable, making it an effective barrier for preventing the spread of bacteria and other contaminants.

A surgeon should wear a minimum of three layers of personal protective equipment (PPE) to perform aseptic surgery. The cap is to keep hair out of the sterile field and prevent airborne contamination. The mask is to protect the surgical site from droplets, which can contain bacteria and other contaminants. Finally, the gown is to prevent any bodily fluids or contaminants from coming into contact with the surgeon's clothing and to maintain a sterile environment.

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the nurse is teaching the student nurse the sequence for performing the assessment techniques during a physical examination. what is the appropriate order

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A recommended guideline for setting the tone of a physical examination for a school-age child is to include the child in all parts of the examination, speak directly to the child using age-appropriate language, and address the child by name.

It is also advised to speak to the caregiver before and after the examination and prioritize the most invasive parts of the Physical  examination last.

Option B accurately describes the recommended guideline for setting the tone of the examination for a school-age child. Including the child in all parts of the examination helps foster their sense of autonomy and involvement in their own healthcare.

Speaking directly to the child using age-appropriate language acknowledges their growing maturity and appeal to their desire for self-care. Addressing the child by name creates a personal connection and helps establish trust. Additionally, speaking to the caregiver before and after the examination ensures their involvement and addresses any concerns they may have.

Lastly, prioritizing the most invasive parts of the examination last helps reduce anxiety and discomfort for the child, allowing them to gradually adjust to the examination process.

Complete Question:

The nurse is teaching the student nurse how to perform a physical assessment based on the child's developmental stage. Which statements accurately describes a recommended guideline for setting the tone of the examination for a school-age child?

A)Keep up a running dialogue with the caregiver, explaining each step as you do it.

B)Include the child in all parts of the examination; speak to the caregiver before and after the examination.

C)Speak to the child using mature language and appeal to his or her desire for self-care.

D)Address the child by name; speak to the caregiver and do the most invasive parts last.

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the henderson-hasselbalch equation; the limitations of this equation in drug absorption is_____

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The Henderson-Hasselbalch equation has numerous limitations in terms of drug absorption. Thus, it must be viewed in combination with other techniques to acquire a more complete picture of the absorption process.

The Henderson-Hasselbalch equation is an equation utilized to quantify the pH of a weak acid or base in a solution of known concentration. It is applied to study how certain drugs are absorbed in the human body. This equation is also useful to calculate the solubility of a drug within the body. A drug needs to pass through various barriers before being absorbed and subsequently delivered to the target organ or system.The limitations of the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation in drug absorption are listed below:

Drug absorption is a complex and multifaceted process. As a result, it is tough to apply the equation's assumptions to real-world scenarios. The permeability and the solubility of drugs are two significant properties that are highly dependent on the pH of the environment in which they are found. Drug absorption is governed by both active and passive transport, which the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation fails to consider. Additionally, the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation does not take into account the complexity of the physiological environment in which drug absorption occurs. The pH of the GI tract, for example, is highly dynamic and can fluctuate throughout the day. As a result, there are numerous factors that contribute to the rate of drug absorption, making it a challenging procedure to evaluate in terms of pH levels. Overall, the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation has numerous limitations in terms of drug absorption. Thus, it must be viewed in combination with other techniques to acquire a more complete picture of the absorption process.

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A nurse in an acute care facility is planning care for a client who has chosen to follow Islamic dietary laws during Ramadan. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
Place the client on NPO status during nighttime hours.
Provide a snack for the client after sunset.
Offer the client hot tea with daytime meals.
Allow the client to eat privately with their family each day at 1300.

Answers

After dusk, give the client a snack. A professional's services, recommendations, or support are provided to a client, which might be an individual or a company.

An individual or business that seeks the assistance of a professional, such as a nurse, attorney, or financial advisor, is referred to as a client. A patient who is receiving care and treatment from a healthcare professional is referred to as a customer in the healthcare industry. The relationship between the client and the provider is built on trust, open communication, and teamwork with the aim of enhancing the client's health and wellbeing. When planning and delivering care, the client's requirements and preferences are taken into account, and their participation and feedback are valued and incorporated into the care plan. The nurse is in charge of speaking up for the patient, ensuring that their rights and autonomy are upheld, and collaborating with them to meet their health objectives.

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a woman who has a history of cocaine use disorder gives birth to a newborn. which findings would the nurse expect to assess in the newborn?

Answers

When a woman with a history of cocaine use disorder gives birth, several findings that the nurse may expect to assess in the newborn are mentioned below:

1. Low birth weight: Cocaine use during pregnancy can lead to restricted blood flow to the fetus, resulting in poor growth and low birth weight.

2. Premature birth: Cocaine use can increase the risk of premature birth, meaning the baby is born before 37 weeks of gestation.

3. Neonatal abstinence syndrome (NAS): If the mother used cocaine throughout pregnancy, the baby may experience withdrawal symptoms, known as NAS. These symptoms can include irritability, tremors, high-pitched crying, feeding difficulties, and difficulty sleeping.

4. Developmental issues: Cocaine exposure in utero can potentially impact the baby's brain development and may lead to long-term developmental delays or behavioral issues.

5. Respiratory problems: Newborns exposed to cocaine may have respiratory issues such as rapid breathing or labored breathing.

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In calculating the following dilution; 115ml of a 9% benzocaine solution must be diluted to a 4%

solution, you notice the final volume of 250ml was provided by a fellow technician. The final volume

should have been 258. 75ml. The technician states he wanted to pour an even volume.

a. How might this difference in volume affect the patient?

b. Explain whether or not you think this is appropriate

Answers

a. The difference in volume between the intended final volume of 258.75 ml and the actual final volume of 250 ml could potentially affect the patient if it results in a different concentration of the benzocaine solution being administered. For example, if the final concentration of the solution is less than 4% due to the reduction in volume, it may not provide the intended level of pain relief for the patient. On the other hand, if the final concentration is higher than 4% due to the reduction in volume, it may increase the risk of adverse reactions or toxicities for the patient.

b. It is not appropriate for the technician to intentionally pour an even volume of the diluted solution if it results in a deviation from the intended final concentration. The concentration of the medication should be carefully controlled to ensure that the patient receives the correct dosage and to minimize the risk of adverse reactions or toxicities. It is important for the technician to follow proper protocols and procedures for diluting medications, including accurately measuring and recording the final volume of the solution.

injuries from a disaster are a result of the magnitude of the agent, the location of the victim, the availability and performance of a safety structure, and the age/gender/health of the victim.

Answers

The statement "injuries from a disaster are a result of the magnitude of the agent, the location of the victim, the availability and performance of a safety structure, and the age/gender/health of the victim" is true.

The severity of the disaster's agent (such as the force of an earthquake or the intensity of a storm), the victim's location (close proximity to the disaster), the availability and effectiveness of safety structures (such as buildings, shelters, or evacuation plans), as well as the victim's age, gender, and state of health, can all contribute to injuries.

These factors play a significant role in determining the extent and severity of injuries sustained during a disaster. The vulnerability and resilience of individuals and communities also contribute to the outcome of injuries.

Assessing and addressing these factors is crucial in disaster preparedness, response, and recovery efforts.

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Complete question :

injuries from a disaster are a result of the magnitude of the agent, the location of the victim, the availability and performance of a safety structure, and the age/gender/health of the victim. T/F                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                

50-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after taking an overdose of propranolol. Which of the following describes the mechanism of action with this agent?
A Decreased membrane-stabilizing activity
B Increased production of cyclic adenosine monophosphate
C Inhibition of alpha-adrenoceptors
D Inhibition of beta-adrenoceptors
Answer: D. Beta adrenergic antagonists, more commonly referred to as beta-blockers, inhibit beta-adrenoceptors. They are used in the treatment of a number of disorders including hypertension, heart failure, arrhythmias, ischemic heart disease, migraine headaches, tremor, aortic dissection and portal hypertension. Beta-blockers competitively inhibit epinephrine and norepinephrine, which results in the blunting of multiple metabolic and cardiovascular effects normally regulated by these circulating catecholamines.
The MC seen clinical manifestations of beta-blocker overdose include hypotension and bradycardia.

Answers

50-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after taking an overdose of propranolol. Inhibition of beta-adrenoceptors describes the mechanism of action with this agent.

Beta adrenergic antagonists, also known as beta-blockers, inhibit beta-adrenoceptors. They're used to treat hypertension, heart failure, arrhythmias, ischemic heart disease, migraine headaches, tremor, aortic dissection, and portal hypertension, among other things. Beta-blockers hinder epinephrine and norepinephrine competitively, which dampens a variety of cardiovascular and metabolic effects ordinarily governed by these circulatory catecholamines.

Hypotension and bradycardia are the most common clinical manifestations of beta-blocker overdose.

An excessive intake of beta blockers can cause your heart rate to slow and make breathing difficult. It can also make you dizzy and tremble. A beta-blocker overdose is extremely dangerous. It has the potential to kill.

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What does HDA means? (I think that the abreviation it´s in spanish)

Answers

Answer:

HDA

Acronym Definition

HDA High Definition Audio

HDA Help Desk Analyst

HDA Health Development Agency (UK NHS)

HDA Hispanic Dental Association

Explanation:

either one of these have a nice day!

Answer:

Explanation:

HDA High Definition Audio

HDA Help Desk Analyst

HDA Health Development Agency (UK NHS)

HDA Hispanic Dental Association

The nursing instructor notices a client who is in pain yet does not have a pulse oximeter in use, and suggests to the student that one should be attached. why

Answers

Patients who are in pain frequently breathe more quickly, which raises the possibility of atelectasis.

The nursing instructor examines a client who is in pain but does not have a pulse oximeter in use and advises the student that the pulse oximeter should not be attached since people who are in pain often breathe more shallowly, which raises the risk of atelectasis. This refers to the total or partial collapse of a lung or lung lobe. Alveolar fluid may also fill the tiny air sacs within the lung, which causes it to deflate. One of the most frequent breathing (respiratory) side effects following surgery is atelectasis.

Hence, values of pulse oximeter fluctuates in stressful state of patient.

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d. instruct nap to notify you immediately if the insertion site appears swollen. 4. what is the best way to prevent infection and conserve resources when terminating an iv piggyback medication infusion in a patient who also has a primary fluid infusion? a. remove the tubing from the primary line y-site port, and cap the end. b. leave both the piggyback tubing and the bag attached to the primary line y-site port until the next scheduled dose. c. place an unopened secondary setup at the bedside, and discard the used one. d. change both the primary and secondary tubing upon terminating the piggyback infusion. 5. which nursing intervention is most important in ensuring safe infusion of a medication delivered by iv piggyback through a saline lock? a. use the most proximal insertion port on the primary tubing. b. hang the piggyback solution higher than the primary infusion solution. c. use a pump to regulate the infusion rate of the piggyback medication.

Answers

The best way to prevent infection and conserve resources when terminating an IV piggyback medication infusion in a patient who also has a primary fluid infusion is option A.

Which nursing intervention is most important in ensuring?Removing the tubing from the primary line Y-site port and capping the end will prevent contamination and conserve resources by allowing the remaining primary fluid infusion to continue without interruption.The nursing intervention that is most important in ensuring safe infusion of a medication delivered by IV piggyback through a saline lock is option C. Using a pump to regulate the infusion rate of the piggyback medication will ensure that the medication is infused at the correct rate and prevent complications such as medication overload or underdose. Option A and B are also important, but option C is the most crucial as it ensures the safety of the patient.

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The individual credit with the creation of vaccines and the eradication of polio is?

Answers

Answer:

In the early 1950s, two prominent medical researchers each found a way to protect the world from poliomyelitis, the paralysis-causing disease commonly known as polio. The vaccines created by Dr. Jonas Salk and Dr. Albert Sabin resulted in the near-global eradication of polio

Explanation:

Patricia owns a dog. The dog shows signs of Inflamed skin, itching, and hair loss. Her veterinarian tells her that her dog has a noninfectious
disorder. Which disorder does the dog have?
OA myxomatous valve degeneration
ОВ.
mammary tumors
Ос.
Cushing disease
OD. atopic dermatitis
O E
osteoarthritis
Reset
Next

Patricia owns a dog. The dog shows signs of Inflamed skin, itching, and hair loss. Her veterinarian tells

Answers

The dog most likely has atopic dermatitis

What are ways community programs can increase participation in early prenatal care services?

Answers

Answer:

The program data suggest that casefinding through cross-program referrals can also improve participation in prenatal care. Close ties between prenatal services and both pregnancy testing and WIG sites can lead to earlier enrollment in prenatal care.

Explanation:

hope it's helpful to you

2. Please choose all that apply. Which of the following are components of OSHA and CDC guidelines ?
a. Consider all patients to be potentially infectious
b. Hand hygiene should be performed before and after contact with each patient
c. Gloving and other PPEs are only necessary for invasive procedures
d. Plan for needle safe handling and disposal
e. Dispose of any used needle at your convenience

Answers

I believe the answer is b. Before and after touching someone a healthcare worker should wash their hands.

The one that best maintains Intestinal health

Answers

A fiber-rich diet is best for intestine health, so the option that says fiber is correct. In the intestine, there is a diverse microbiota that performs a lot of cellular activities and facilitates the digestion process.

What is the intestine?

The intestine is an organ located below the stomach that is divided into two sections: the small intestine and the large intestine. The small intestine is responsible for complete digestion, while the large intestine is responsible for minute digestion and the for removal of fecal materials (undigested food). Fiber-rich foods, such as beans, should be consumed in order for the intestinal system to function properly.

Hence, fiber is the correct answer because it is beneficial to the intestine.

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The question is incomplete; here is the complete question.

1) the one that best maintains the intestinal health

a)fiber

b)starch

c)vitamins

d)fats

what Is an effective treatment for dehydration?

Answers

The best way to treat dehydration is to rehydrate the body by drinking plenty of fluids, such as water, diluted squash or diluted fruit juice. A sweet drink can help to replace lost sugar, and a salty snack can help to replace lost salt.

Patient: 8 year old male.
Mother and son moved from Florida to Ohio but were unable to secure a home and are now living in a homeless shelter. The child has been missing days in school due to frequent accidents (BM) in school. The patient (the child) is admitted to the hospital for Encopresis. An Abdominal x ray was performed and found that there was a moderate amount of stool in the colon. He has a past of encopresis due to anxiety, instability of home, parents separation. An NG tube was placed for the golytely cleanout two days ago. The patient has had several BM since then and is set to be discharged today.





List 5 nursing diagnosis fully written out with related to and as evidenced by for this patient specifically for the constipation.

list two goals for each of the 5 nursing diagnosis (one short term goal and one long term goal for each)

List five nursing intervention for each of the 5 nursing diagnosis.

Listen two evaluations for each of the 5 nursing diagnosis, one if the goal was met and the other as if the goal was not met.

Answers

Nursing diagnoses related to constipation in this patient with encopresis can include:

1. Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity related to prolonged contact of feces with the skin, as evidenced by frequent BM accidents in school.

- Short-term goal: The patient will have intact skin without signs of breakdown or irritation within one week.
- Long-term goal: The patient will maintain intact skin without signs of breakdown or irritation over the long term.

Nursing interventions:
- Encourage the use of barrier creams or ointments to protect the skin from fecal contact.
- Provide education to the mother and child on proper perineal care and hygiene.
- Assess the skin regularly for signs of redness, irritation, or breakdown.
- Promote regular toileting habits to minimize the risk of prolonged contact with feces.
- Collaborate with the healthcare team to develop an individualized care plan to address any underlying anxiety or instability contributing to the encopresis.

Evaluations:
- Goal met: The patient maintains intact skin without signs of breakdown or irritation.
- Goal not met: The patient develops skin breakdown or irritation despite interventions.

2. Risk for Disturbed Body Image related to soiling accidents in school and living in a homeless shelter.

- Short-term goal: The patient will verbalize understanding of the external factors contributing to the disturbed body image within one week.
- Long-term goal: The patient will develop a positive body image despite the external factors over the long term.

Nursing interventions:
- Provide a safe and non-judgmental environment for the patient to express feelings and concerns about body image.
- Engage in therapeutic communication to address the patient's self-perception and promote self-esteem.
- Encourage participation in activities that foster a positive body image, such as art therapy or sports.
- Collaborate with the school and shelter staff to ensure understanding and support for the patient's needs.
- Provide education to the mother on how to support the child's body image and self-esteem.


- Goal met: The patient verbalizes understanding of the external factors and shows signs of improved body image.
- Goal not met: The patient continues to exhibit signs of disturbed body image despite interventions.

Remember that nursing diagnoses, goals, interventions, and evaluations may vary depending on the specific needs and circumstances of the patient. These examples provide a starting point for addressing constipation in a child with encopresis. It is important for the healthcare team to assess and individualize the care plan accordingly.

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Define the two types of ASCs and the main differences between the billing procedures.

Answers

Answer:

The first difference is the rate. ASCs are reimbursed at roughly 60 percent of the rate of hospitals for a similar procedure, which was a primary motivating factor for hospitals in acquiring off-campus ASCs. The second major difference is the reimbursement methodology.

Addendum AA (Final ASC-covered Surgical Procedures) includes comments, payment indicators, and final payment amounts for covered surgical procedures. (See the Addendum AA example on the next page.) Addendum BB (Final Integral to Covered Surgical Procedures) covers included and separately billable ancillary services.

Explanation:

The two types of ASCs are hospital and independent Ambulatory Surgical Centers (ASCs).

What are Ambulatory Surgical Centers (ASCs)?

Ambulatory Surgical Center is an agency that functions exclusively to handles the outpatient surgical services of patients.

There are two types of Ambulatory Surgical Center which include:

Hospital Ambulatory Surgical Centers: This type is under common ownership, licensure or control of a hospital.

Independent Ambulatory Surgical Centers: This type is not under any hospital facility or part of a provider of services.

Therefore the major difference between the two type of Ambulatory Surgical Centers is that the hospital type is owned and controlled by a hospital while the independent type is not under the control of a hospital.

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pregnant woman of 30 weeks' gestation is admitted to the maternity unit in preterm labor. the woman asks the nurse about the purpose of betamethasone, which has been prescribed by the primary health care provider (phcp). the nurse should tell the client that the medication will promote which action?

Answers

The nurse should inform the pregnant woman that betamethasone, prescribed by the primary health care provider, will promote lung maturation and improve respiratory outcomes in the preterm baby.

Betamethasone is a corticosteroid medication commonly given to pregnant women at risk of preterm labor. Its purpose is to accelerate lung maturation in the fetus, specifically by enhancing the production of surfactant. Surfactant is a substance that helps to keep the air sacs in the lungs open, allowing for proper oxygenation and respiratory function.

By promoting lung maturation, betamethasone can help reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) in preterm infants. RDS is a common complication in premature babies, characterized by immature lungs that struggle to function effectively. Betamethasone administration prior to delivery can improve the baby's lung function and decrease the severity of RDS.

The nurse should explain to the pregnant woman that betamethasone promotes lung maturation in the preterm baby, aiding in respiratory development and reducing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome.

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a client is preparing to leave the blood bank after donating a unit of blood. which teaching will the nurse provide to the client at this time?

Answers

Rest, drink fluids, eat iron-rich foods, keep bandages clean and dry, and seek help if reactions occur after blood donation.

After donating blood, the nurse would instruct the client to rest for a few minutes before leaving and to avoid strenuous activities for the remainder of the day. The client should also be advised to drink plenty of fluids and eat a healthy meal that includes iron-rich foods to help replenish fluids and replace the iron lost during the donation.

The nurse would also remind the client to keep the bandage on the needle site clean and dry for at least 4-6 hours after the donation to help prevent infection. Lastly, the client should be advised to contact the blood bank or seek medical attention if any signs of a reaction or infection occur, such as fever, chills, itching, rash, or swelling.

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Maria is complaining of redness and itching of both eyes. You consider differential diagnoses for her symptoms. Allergic conjunctivitis usually affects both eyes, has watery drainage, intense itching and diffuse redness.

Answers

The statement about allergic conjunctivitis is true.

Conjuctivitis, also known as pink eye, is an infection associated with conjuctiva present in eyes. Conjuctiva is present on white part of eyeball. The inflammation due to infection results in redness of eyes. The reasons for inflammation can be infection due to microorganisms like bacteria or virus or may happen due to allergies. The former ones are contagious while the latter is not. The allergy may occur due to chlorine, smoke, pollen etc.  

Allergic conjuctivitis is accompanied with all the symptoms mentioned in question like redness in both eyes and swelling which further leads to puffiness. Intense itching and burning also occur. Moreover, allergic conjuctivitis is common in both eyes. Allergic conjuctivitis can be treated via medications and frequent washing in case of issue due to chemicals.

The complete question is -

Maria is complaining of redness and itching of both eyes. You consider differential diagnoses for her symptoms. Allergic conjunctivitis usually affects both eyes, has watery drainage, intense itching and diffuse redness. True or False?

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2. Why is it important to insert the catheter an additional 1 inch before inflating the balloon?

Answers

When inserting a urinary catheter, it is important to insert the catheter an additional 1 inch before inflating the balloon in order to ensure that the balloon is properly positioned in the bladder.

If the balloon is inflated before the catheter is inserted to the correct depth, it can cause discomfort, pain, or even injury to the urethra or bladder. On the other hand, if the balloon is not inserted far enough into the bladder, it can cause the catheter to slip out or leak urine around the catheter.

By inserting the catheter an additional 1 inch before inflating the balloon, the tip of the catheter can reach the bladder, and the balloon can be properly positioned inside the bladder. This helps to ensure that the catheter remains in place and prevents urine from leaking or flowing back up the catheter.

Overall, inserting the catheter to the correct depth before inflating the balloon is an important step in ensuring that the catheterization procedure is safe, effective, and comfortable for the patient.

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