Describe the hypersensitive response that occurs during pathogen infections. What chemicals mediate the response and how are they generated? . 2. What is programmed cell death? Describe two functions of programmed cell death in plant development 3. Explain how different classes of organ identity genes control the patterns of floral organ formation. How were these genes identified?

Answers

Answer 1

1) The chemicals that mediate this response include reactive oxygen species, nitric oxide, and various enzymes.

2) Two functions of programmed cell death in plant development are the formation of tracheary elements, which are important for water transport in plants, and the formation of lateral roots, which enable plants to expand their root systems.

3) The A and C class genes control the development of sepals and carpels, respectively, while the B and E class genes control the development of petals and stamens and the combination of these genes in different floral whorls determines the specific identity of each floral organ.

1. The hypersensitive response is a type of defense mechanism that plants use in response to pathogen infections. This response involves the rapid death of plant cells surrounding the site of infection, which restricts the pathogen's ability to spread further. The chemicals that mediate this response include reactive oxygen species, nitric oxide, and various enzymes. These chemicals are generated by the plant cells themselves as part of the defense response.

2. Programmed cell death, also known as apoptosis, is a genetically regulated process of cell death. In plants, programmed cell death plays a vital role in development by controlling cell numbers and tissue differentiation. Two functions of programmed cell death in plant development are the formation of tracheary elements, which are important for water transport in plants, and the formation of lateral roots, which enable plants to expand their root systems.

3. Different classes of organ identity genes control the patterns of floral organ formation in plants. These genes include the A, B, C, and E class genes. They were identified through genetic studies that involved analyzing the phenotypes of mutant plants that lacked specific floral organs. The A and C class genes control the development of sepals and carpels, respectively, while the B and E class genes control the development of petals and stamens. The combination of these genes in different floral whorls determines the specific identity of each floral organ.

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Related Questions

which legislation governs nursing registration in nursing?​

Answers

Answer:

The Nurse Practice act it is known as your nursing rulebook.

Explanation:

The Nurse Practice Act ensures that all registered nurses are qualified and competent of doing their job to the best.

"The Nurse Practice Act that you must learn, know and live by when working as a registered nurse in the USA."

9. What is the best treatment for diabetic coma?

Answers

Answer:

According to Mayo Clinic (n.d) Diabetic coma requires emergency medical treatment. The type of treatment depends on whether your blood sugar level is too high or too low.

High blood sugar

If your blood sugar level is too high, you may need:

Intravenous fluids to restore water to your tissues

Potassium, sodium or phosphate supplements to help your cells function correctly

Insulin to help your tissues absorb the glucose in your blood

Treatment for any underlying infections

Low blood sugar

If your blood sugar level is too low, you may be given a glucagon injection, which will cause your blood sugar level to quickly rise. Intravenous dextrose also may be given to raise blood glucose levels.

Analyzing Teamwork

Two pharmacy technicians have been thinking about the best way to organize empty bottles and labels in the pharmacy. They_________ and come up with a solution.
During the process, each technician listened to the other's ideas, demonstrating _______ for a coworker.

Answers

Answer:

1. Collaborate

2. Respect

Explanation:

I calculated it logically

research that was identified as an experimental design in psychology might be called what other synonymous term if it were work testing a new treatment in medicine?
Participant independent trial
Correlation design
Medical standart design
Randomied control trial

Answers

The research that was identified as an experimental design in psychology might be called what other synonymous term if it were work testing a new treatment in medicine is Randomised control trial. The correct answer is D.

In a randomised controlled trial (RCT), the effectiveness of a digital health product is evaluated in comparison to a control group. The alternative can be nothing, the industry standard, or a different iteration of the product. After being enrolled in the trial, participants are randomly assigned to one of two or more experimental groups.

If the study had been investigating a new medical therapy, it might have been referred to as a Randomised control trial, which is another phrase that might be used to describe it.

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Which age group discussed in Chapter 5 have you communicated with the most?
Describe two communication techniques in Chapter 5 you can apply when communicating with this age group.
Explain the therapeutic responses the medical professionals used in the case study from the textbook about the age group you chose.

Answers

The communication techniques that are important when communicating with adults include seeking clarifications and listening.

What is communication?

It should be noted that communication simply means the exchange of information from a sender to a receiver through a medium.

The communication techniques that can be used to communicate with the age group include giving recognition, listening, seeking clarifications, etc.

Therapeutic responses are described as  to the actions and interventions undertaken by medical professionals in order to promote healing, alleviate symptoms, and improve the overall well-being of their patients and includes:

Providing medical treatmentOffering emotional support

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what causes an appendix to rapture??​

Answers

Answer:

A blockage in the lining of the appendix that results in infection is the likely cause of appendicitis. The bacteria multiply rapidly, causing the appendix to become inflamed, swollen and filled with pus. If not treated promptly, the appendix can rupture

Explanation:

mark me main brainliest plizz:)

Studies abbreviations used in text message to identify the author:
forensic linguist
forensic animator
forensic videographer
forensic artist

Answers

Answer:

forensic linguist

Explanation:

From the available options provided the only individual position that does this would be a forensic linguist. The responsibilities of this position include analyzing language on text or recorded documents. They do this in order to understand and uncover different details within the document that may help law enforcement solve a crime. This also involves studying abbreviations used in text messages to identify the author, what the abbreviation means, in what context it is being used, hidden meanings, etc. All of which can be highly valuable in a criminal case.

software for motion analysis abnormal motor movements diagnoses, inform prognosis, and track treatment response

Answers

Motion evaluation software program can help agencies implement aspects of movement evaluation with minimal effort.

Once connected to movement seize devices, the software can visually show object tracking information for further examination and manipulation.

What is atypical motor activity?

Symptoms of motor problems encompass ,tremor, , spasm,contractions, or gait problems.

Tremor is the uncontrollable shaking of an arm or a leg. movement of body components may additionally appear due to a startling sound or unexpected, surprising pain .

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While functioning at a large-scale terrorist incident, it is important for the emt to?

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When functioning at a large-scale terrorist incident, it is important for the EMT to do the following:

Firstly, the EMT should wear appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) and a visible identification badge that allows easy identification to law enforcement and other responders.

Secondly, the EMT should establish a triage zone that is separate from the cold, warm, and hot zones. The cold zone should serve as the area where EMS and non-essential responders can perform non-patient care tasks and wait for further instructions

Thirdly, the EMT should have a coordinated and efficient communication system with other responders, such as law enforcement and the incident commander.

Fourthly, the EMT should establish a transportation system that incorporates local hospitals and alternate care facilities.

Finally, the EMT should have a proper disaster response plan in place and establish a command post where planning, logistics, and the overall management of the incident can occur. These measures are essential in ensuring the safety of both the EMTs and patients.

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Is a blind person's sense of hearing or smell enhanced, or is a blind person just doing more with the same information than a sighted person does?

Answers

It’s enhanced Bc when you take away a since like close ur eyes and follow someone voice u can usually find them
it is enhanced because they rely on it more and use it more so they learn to be better at making the most of what they have

A 70-year-old female presented to the hospital with fever, myalgia, arthralgia, tachycardia, and dehydration and was believed to be septic. This patient has a history of hypertension, CHF, and migraines. Routine medications include Lasix 40 milligrams by mouth each morning, if needed, for significant pedal edema and Isordil 20 milligrams by mouth four times a day.

A variety of studies were obtained to further delineate the source of her problem. Urine cultures were negative. Blood cultures grew Escherichia coli. The blood urea nitrogen level was 22, and a random glucose was 149. An anterior-posterior film of the chest taken at the same time showed acute pulmonary edema.

The patient received intravenous fluids. The patient's routine medications were continued, and she received intravenous antibiotics. On the fourth day of her hospital stay, it was believed that the patient had reached maximal hospital benefit and was therefore switched to oral antibiotics and was discharged. The patient left the hospital in good condition.

DISCHARGE DIAGNOSES:

Sepsis due to Escherichia coli:

Dehydration:

Hypertensive heart disease:

Left ventricular failure:

Answers

Escherichia coli-related septicaemia equals A.41.51, E86.0 Dehydration heart failure and hypertension together equal to 11.0 is the discharge diagnosis.

What does septic mean?

The body's severe response to an infection is sepsis. It's a medical emergency that could endanger life. When an infection you already have sets off a series of events throughout your body, it results in sepsis. Sepsis-causing infections typically begin in the gastrointestinal tract, urinary tract, skin, or lungs.

What triggers septicaemia in a person?

The most frequent cause of sepsis is bacterial infections. Infections with viruses, parasites, or fungi can also result in sepsis. Any variety of locations throughout the body can serve as the infection's source.

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A 32 year old patient presents to the emergency room with pain and limited movement of his left wrist after being injured in a non traffic accident while driving a forklift what is the medical code

Answers

A 32 year old patient presents to the emergency room with pain and limited movement of his left wrist after being injured in a non traffic accident while driving a forklift therefore the medical code is M25. 532.

What is Medical coding?

This is defined as the process in which medical diagnosis, treatment etc are translated into numeric and alphanumeric characters in other to prevent ambiguity in the healthcare system.

This coding system helps to make work more efficient and faster as a result if the reduction in errors and stress used to find the necessary paperwork needed by different professionals.

The updated ICD-10 code for pain in left wrist is a medical classification as listed by WHO under the range called arthropathies and it is denoted as M25. 532 which is therefore the treason why it was chosen as the correct choice.

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Why does the blood pressure drop during a heavy bleeding episode?

Answers

Because the volume of fluid in your bloodstream is less your body can't adjust to position changes as well so your blood pressure drops
You are losing Blood so therefore there’s not as much in your body so there’s not as much pressure because of the whole therefore the blood is pushing out in the hole so the blood pressure goes down

Which of the following is a device for mounting disks and wheels into a hur shank?

Answers

To lock the wheel to the blaze

Explain the contribution of cholinergic system in controlling different levels of activities

Answers

Answer: Respiration is altered during different stages of the sleep-wake cycle. We review the contribution of cholinergic systems to this alteration, with particular reference to the role of muscarinic acetylcholine receptors (MAchRs) during rapid eye movement (REM) sleep. Available evidence demonstrates that MAchRs have potent excitatory effects on medullary respiratory neurones and respiratory motoneurones, and are likely to contribute to changes in central chemosensitive drive to the respiratory control system. These effects are likely to be most prominent during REM sleep, when cholinergic brainstem neurones show peak activity levels. It is possible that MAchR dysfunction is involved in sleep-disordered breathing, such as obstructive sleep apnea.

or

Cytokine production is necessary to protect against pathogens and promote tissue repair, but excessive cytokine release can lead to systemic inflammation, organ failure and death. Inflammatory responses are finely regulated to effectively guard from noxious stimuli. The central nervous system interacts dynamically with the immune system to modulate inflammation through humoral and neural pathways. The effect of glucocorticoids and other humoral mediators on inflammatory responses has been studied extensively in the past decades. In contrast, neural control of inflammation has only been recently described. We summarize autonomic regulation of local and systemic inflammation through the ‘cholinergic anti-inflammatory pathway’, a mechanism consisting of the vagus nerve and its major neurotransmitter, acetylcholine, a process dependent on the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor α7 subunit. We recapitulate additional sources of acetylcholine and their contribution to the inflammatory response, as well as acetylcholine regulation by acetylcholinesterase as a means to attenuate inflammation. We discuss potential therapeutic applications to treat diseases characterized by acute or chronic inflammation, including autoimmune diseases, and propose future research directions.

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Explanation:

Which is characteristic of abnormal healing of a primary wound?
A. Slough tissue in the wound base
B. A fruity, earthy, or putrid odor
C. A dry or moist granulation tissue bed
D. Drainage for more than 3 days after closure

Answers

Characteristics of abnormal healing of a primary wound may include slough tissue in the wound base.

Abnormal healing of a primary wound can be identified by the presence of slough tissue in the wound base. Slough is a yellowish or brownish soft tissue that adheres to the wound bed and hinders the healing process. It is often indicative of necrotic or non-viable tissue that needs to be removed to promote proper wound healing. Slough can delay the formation of granulation tissue and impede the closure of the wound.

Proper wound healing involves the formation of healthy granulation tissue, which is characterized by a moist and pinkish appearance. A fruity, earthy, or putrid odor (option B) is associated with wound infection and may indicate abnormal healing. A dry or moist granulation tissue bed (option C) can be a normal characteristic of wound healing, depending on the stage of healing. Drainage for more than 3 days after closure (option D) may suggest a complication such as infection or inadequate closure.

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If a drug that blocked the reabsorption of sodium were taken, what would happen to the reabsorption of water?

Answers

If a drug that blocked the reabsorption of sodium were taken, the reabsorption of water would decrease.

Sodium is actively reabsorbed from the filtrate in the proximal tubule of the kidney, and water passively follows sodium due to osmosis. When sodium reabsorption is blocked, there is less sodium in the blood, and therefore, less water reabsorption from the filtrate. As a result, more water remains in the urine and is excreted from the body, leading to increased urine output and potential dehydration if not compensated for by increased water intake.

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What features of EHRs are important to training specialists

Answers

Training specialists need to be well aware of the wide variety of information stored in electronic health records. For everyday practice, one needs to know how and when to pull up such documents such as patient demographics, medical diagnoses, and treatments. Knowing where different providers' orders are stored is also crucial, for knowing when a specific order will take effect. There's a lot more that goes into learning what an EHR does than just understanding its features - there's a whole science behind how these systems work.

Although the extent to which EHRs are beneficial for training specialists is still debated, it is known that they can help to minimize errors in clinical documentation and improve efficiency. This has been shown across multiple studies - some children hospitals have seen reduced medication discrepancies after implementing electronic health records. The completion of tasks, including filling laboratory orders and checking labs, also improved significantly when using modern technology during patient care rounds at a large research hospital in New York. At the same time, some experts argue that process-driven activities through these systems could reduce face-to-face interactions between doctors on team shifts with each other's patients on observation status, leading to

nancy walker, a medical assistant, ask a patient if he has been experiencing any pain,he says that he has not , but when he moves from the chair in to the examination room to the exam table nancy notices that he limps his facial mucsle are tense, and there is a light sweat on his forehead. What other nonverbal signals might indicate that the patient has not been completey honest

Answers

Answer:

Avoiding eye contact

renin release from the kidneys occurs when blood pressure or plasma volume drops, and when ecf levels of sodium fall.

Answers

When blood pressure or plasma volume drops, and when ECF levels of sodium fall, the kidneys release renin, which initiates a cascade of events involving angiotensin and aldosterone. This ultimately helps restore blood pressure and sodium balance in the body.

Renin release from the kidneys occurs when blood pressure or plasma volume drops, and when ECF levels of sodium fall."

1. A decrease in blood pressure or plasma volume is detected by the kidneys. This can happen due to various factors such as dehydration, blood loss, or low sodium intake.

2. The juxtaglomerular cells, located in the afferent arterioles of the kidney, are responsible for monitoring blood pressure and plasma volume.

3. When these cells sense a drop in blood pressure or plasma volume, they release an enzyme called renin.

4. Renin converts angiotensinogen, a protein produced by the liver, into angiotensin I.

5. Angiotensin I is then converted to angiotensin II by angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE), which is found in the lungs.

6. Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor that increases blood pressure by narrowing blood vessels. It also stimulates the release of aldosterone, a hormone that causes the kidneys to retain sodium and excrete potassium.

7. The increase in sodium reabsorption and water retention helps to restore plasma volume, thereby increasing blood pressure and returning ECF sodium levels to normal.

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8. According to the National Center on Elder Abuse, family members
account for a small percentage of abuse against elders.
_True False

Answers

Answer:

True

Explanation:

True.
Many elders experience abuse from their family. This Can happen outside of nursing homes or inside when family visits

"The Nurse Practitioner is teaching a patient about the role of medications in the treatment of asthma. Which statement by the patient would require further teaching?"

Answers

Answer:

The treatment of asthma because...

Explanation:

You have to learn about the different ways to teach a patient about asthma. Before you can learn about  the Medication to cure the cause of the symptoms of asthma. If that makes sense

The technician is asked to make 8 oz of a 50% solution of Isopropyl Alcohol (IPA). ingredients available: Isopropyl Alcohol 70% and water. How many milliliters of water are needed?

Answers

Answer:

118.296 ml of water

Explanation:

Given that;

v/v% concentration = volume of solute/volume of solution * 100

volume of solution = 8 oz

v/v% concentration = 50%

50 = volume of solute/8 * 100

volume of solute = 50 * 8/100

volume of solute = 4 oz

Volume of water needed = Volume of solution - volume of solute

Hence

8 oz - 4 oz

Volume of water needed = 4 oz

1 oz = 29.574 ml

4oz = 4oz * 29.574 ml/1 oz

= 118.296 ml of water

what is included in fda approval of a drug for otc availability?

Answers

In order for an OTC drug in a specific therapeutic category (such as sunscreen or an antacid) to be generally recognized as safe and effective (GRASE) for its intended use, certain criteria must be met.

What are FDA criteria?These criteria include the active ingredients, uses (indications), doses, routes of administration, labeling, and testing.OTC or nonprescription drugs are other terms for over-the-counter medications. All of these terms apply to medications that are available over the counter. When used according to the label's instructions and the advice of your healthcare provider, they are both safe and efficient.There are professional labeled OTC drug monographs for the following drug classes: antacid. Antiflatulent. Antifungal cream.

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Help please!!! lystra eggert gretter replaced the one-year nursing ?? with a three-year training program that combined classroom instruction with clinical practice.

Answers

Lystra Eggert Gretter is credited with replacing the one-year nursing apprenticeship with a three-year training program that combined classroom instruction with clinical practice.

This program was introduced in the early 20th century and helped to establish nursing as a profession with a standardized education and training pathway.

Gretter was a pioneering nurse who advocated for higher standards of education and practice in nursing, and her work helped to lay the foundation for the modern nursing profession.

Gretter's contributions to nursing education and practice helped to improve the quality of care provided by nurses and raised the profile of the nursing profession.

Her legacy continues to be felt today, as nursing remains a vital and respected profession that plays a crucial role in healthcare delivery around the world.

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Which of the following is an example of experiential therapy? Equine therapy, Psychotherapy , Conflict therapy, Couples therapy

Answers

Equine therapy, I think

You have 500 mL of injectable methylprednisolone in the pharmacy stock. A typical dose is 1⅝ mL. How many complete doses can the stock render?

Answers

There are 500 mL of injectable methylprednisolone in the pharmacy stock and a typical dose is 1⅝ mL, so 307 complete doses can the stock render.

Methylprednisolone is accustomed treat variety of various conditions, like inflammation (swelling), severe allergies, adrenal issues, arthritis, asthma, blood or bone marrow issues, eye or vision issues, lupus, skin conditions, excretory organ issues, colitis, and flare-ups of multiple sclerosis.

The effects of the dose of methylprednisolone typically last up to a pair of months, however typically longer. The side-effects of methylprednisolone include aggression, fast, slow, pounding, or irregular heartbeat or pulse, mental depression, noisy, rattling breathing, agitation, headache, mood swings and decrease within the quantity of excrement.

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a food worker has nausea and diarrhea the night before she is scheduled to work the opening shift. if she feels better in the morning, what should she do?

Answers

If a food worker has nausea and diarrhea the night before she is scheduled to work the opening shift, she should take the necessary precautions to ensure that she is healthy and able to work. Although it is understandable that she may want to go to work if she feels better in the morning, it is important to take into account the potential risks of food contamination.

The food worker should assess her current symptoms, and if she is still feeling ill in the morning, she should not go to work. Even if the symptoms are mild, she should inform her employer and seek medical advice, as food-borne illnesses can have serious consequences.

If the food worker’s symptoms have subsided, she should take the necessary precautions to prevent food contamination. She should avoid handling food directly and wear protective clothing, such as gloves and a hairnet. Additionally, she should wash her hands frequently and make sure to sanitize any surfaces she may come in contact with.

The food worker should also monitor her symptoms throughout the shift, and if they worsen or new symptoms arise, she should inform her supervisor and seek medical help. If the symptoms worsen while working, she should immediately stop what she is doing and take the necessary break from work.

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Explain how a patient's neurological symptoms may give an indication of where
in the brain an injury occurred.

Answers

Answer:

Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI) is a disruption in the normal function of the brain that can be caused by a blow, bump or jolt to the head, the head suddenly and violently hitting an object or when an object pierces the skull and enters brain tissue. Observing one of the following clinical signs constitutes alteration in the normal brain function:

Loss of or decreased consciousnessLoss of memory for events before or after the event (amnesia)Focal neurological deficits such as muscle weakness, loss of vision, change in speechAlteration in mental state such as disorientation, slow thinking or difficulty concentratingSymptoms of a TBI can be mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the extent of damage to the brain. Mild cases may result in a brief change in mental state or consciousness. Severe cases may result in extended periods of unconsciousness, coma, or even death.

Explanation: hope this helped you out !

The patient's neurological symptoms may give an indication of where in the brain an injury occurred the disease known as Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI).

What is Traumatic Brain Injury?

The disease known as Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI) is a disruption in the normal function of the brain that can be caused by a blow, bump or jolt to the head, the head suddenly and violently hitting an object or when an object pierces the skull and enters brain tissue.

Observing one of the following clinical signs constitutes alteration in the normal brain function is the loss of or decreased consciousness loss of memory for events before or after the event (amnesia). Focal neurological deficits such as muscle weakness, loss of vision, change in speech alteration in mental state such as disorientation, slow thinking or difficulty concentrating.

Symptoms of a TBI can be mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the extent of damage to the brain. Mild cases may result in a brief change in mental state or consciousness. Severe cases may result in extended periods of unconsciousness, coma, or even death.

Therefore, The patient's neurological symptoms may give an indication of where in the brain an injury occurred the disease known as Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI).

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6. Explain why a person would use accessory muscles when breathing and describe four types of
retractions.

Answers

Primary respiratory muscles during normal quiet breathing include the diaphragm and external intercostals. Accessory muscles of respiration assist the primary muscles when the chest is not expanding or contracting effectively to meet ventilation demands. The accessory expiratory muscles are the abdominal muscles: rectus abdominis, external oblique, internal oblique, and transversus abdominis.

There are several types of retractions that may occur when using accessory muscles for breathing, such as intercostal retractions, suprasternal retractions, subcostal retractions, and clavicular retractions.

What are breathing issues?

Intercostal retractions occur when the muscles between the ribs (intercostal muscles) are used to help lift the ribcage, making more room for air to enter the lungs, and suprasternal retractions occur when the muscles above the sternum are used to help lift the upper chest and expand the lungs. Subcostal retractions occur when the muscles below the ribcage (subcostal muscles) are used to help lift the abdomen and create more space for the diaphragm to move, and clavicular retractions occur when the muscles in the neck and shoulders (clavicular muscles) are used to help lift the shoulders and expand the upper chest.

Hence, there are several types of retractions that may occur when using accessory muscles for breathing, such as intercostal retractions, suprasternal retractions, subcostal retractions, and clavicular retractions.

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