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NEED HELP WILL GIVE BRAINLISEST RN
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From punnett squares, we can get genotypic and phenotypic ratios and probabilities among the progenies. Cross 1: genotypic ratio 1:2:1. Phenotypic ratio 3:1. Cross 2: 75% probability of having a white horn.
What is a punnett square?
The Punnett square is a graphic representation that shows the different types of gamete combinations according to the alleles involved in a cross.
Punnett square shows the probabilities of getting offspring with different genotypes and their consequent phenotypes.
Cross 1:
Parentals) Ee x Ee
Gametes) E e E e
Punnett square) E e
E EE Ee
e Ee ee
F1) Genotype
25% = 1/4 of the progeny is expected to be homozygous dominant EE
50% = 2/4 of the progeny is expected to be heterozygous, Ee
25% = 1/4 of the progeny is expected to be homozygous recessive, ee
Phenotype
75% = 3/4 of the progeny is expected to express one eye (1/4 EE + 2/4 Ee)25% = 1/4 of the progeny is expected to express two eyes (ee)Genotypic ratio ⇒ 1:2:1 ⇒ 1/4 EE : 2/4 Ee : 1/4 ee
Phenotypic ratio ⇒ 3:1 ⇒ 3/4 one eye : 1/4 two eyes
Cross 2:
Parentals) Ww x Ww
Gametes) W w W w
Punnett square) W w
W WW Ww
w Ww ww
F1) Genotype
25% = 1/4 of the progeny is expected to be homozygous dominant WW
50% = 2/4 of the progeny is expected to be heterozygous, Ww
25% = 1/4 of the progeny is expected to be homozygous recessive, ww
Phenotype
75% = 3/4 of the progeny is expected to express white horn (1/4 WW + 2/4 Ww)25% = 1/4 of the progeny is expected to express brown horn (ww)Genotypic ratio ⇒ 1:2:1 ⇒ 1/4 WW : 2/4 Ww : 1/4 ww
Phenotypic ratio ⇒ 3:1 ⇒ 3/4 white horn : 1/4 brown horn
Offspring has 75% probability of having a white horn.
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A field biologist observed and recorded the ground squirrel population in a forest ecosystem over a 40 year period. During which
years is the squirrel's ecosystem most stable?
A)
years 1-9
B)
years 10-30
years 31-37
D)
years 38-42
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Years 10-30 covers a longer time period and thus might provide a better representation of the ecosystem's stability over time. The correct option is B.
What is ecosystem?An ecosystem is made up of all the organisms and the physical environment in which they live. These biotic and abiotic elements are linked by nutrient cycles and energy flows.
If the ground squirrel population is assumed to be relatively stable over time, the years with the least amount of change or variation in population size would indicate the most stable ecosystem.
Forest, desert, rain forest, grassland, tundra, savanna, and mountain ecosystems are the most common types of ecosystems.
Healthy ecosystems clean our water, purify our air, keep our soil in good condition, regulate the climate, recycle nutrients, and provide us with food.
They supply raw materials and resources for pharmaceuticals and other uses.
Thus, the correct option is B.
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What is the answer to this question?
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Answer:
DDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDDD
Answer:
The answer is C.
Explanation:
This is because for A, this statement says nothing about corundum being yellow which means that this doesn’t apply and is incorrect. For B is pretty much the same as A, this statement about corundum doesn’t say anything about it being able to flavor or being flavorful. Lastly for D, the fact that corundum is hard means it would be impractical and probably impossible to use it as pencil lead because, all lead it doing with a pencil is being crushes and ground into the paper as you write.
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How is energy related to the change of state
represented by the model?
O Atoms gain energy as a gas changes to a solid.
Atoms gain energy as a gas changes to a liquid.
Atoms lose energy as a gas changes to a solid.
Atoms lose energy as a gas changes to a liquid.
Answers
The energy is related to the change of state represented by the model by: D. Atoms lose energy as a gas changes to a liquid.
What is Atoms?A model of the transition from a gas to a liquid is shown in the accompanying image. It demonstrates how atoms or molecules change from being widely scattered as in a gas to being concentrated as in a liquid.
The atoms in this process move from a higher-energy state to a lower-energy state releasing or losing energy in the process. The most common kind of energy loss is heat.
Therefore the correct option is d.
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How would you explain the key concepts for the CWA in less than two minutes?
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Answer:
Explanation:
vPoint Source - a source of water discharged to surface water through a discrete point - generally through a pipe, ditch, or channel.
Nonpoint Source - Nonpoint sources, such as parking lots or athletic fields, discharge runoff water to groundwater or surface water; runoff does not come from a pipe, ditch, or channel. These sources may contain pollutants such as pesticides, motor oil, and soaps.
Navigable Waters of the United States For the purposes of the Clean Water Act, the term "navigable waters" includes:
all waters used in commerce, including groundwater;
all interstate waters including wetlands, mudflats, and sand-flats; and
all other waters such as lakes, rivers, streams, wetlands and sloughs.
EPA policy states, "The majority of facilities in the U.S. have the potential to discharge to navigable waters." The Supreme Court decision in (2006) requires the Army Corps of Engineers and the EPA to determine whether there is a "significant nexus" between a navigable waterway and an area a spill might affect. In June of 2007, EPA and the Army Corps of Engineers released provisional interpretive guidance regarding the "significant nexus” question. According to this guidance, the agencies will assert jurisdiction over traditional navigable waters, wetlands adjacent thereto, and relatively permanent tributaries thereof. The agencies will generally not assert jurisdiction over swales and ditches that lack routine water flow. Finally, the agencies will apply the "significant nexus" requirement and make a case-by-case, fact-specific analysis on impermanent tributaries and other wetlands.
Additional executive orders were issued 2015 in 2019. Under the 2019 proposal, traditional navigable waters, tributaries to those waters, certain ditches, certain lakes and ponds, impoundments of jurisdictional waters, and wetlands adjacent to jurisdictional waters would be federally regulated. It also details what are not "waters of the United States," such as features that only contain water during or in response to rainfall (e.g., ephemeral features); groundwater; many ditches, including most roadside or farm ditches; prior converted cropland; stormwater control features; and waste treatment systems.
Could the requirement for one or more NPDES Discharge Permit apply to my campus?
If your campus discharges pollutants directly to navigable waters of the United States through a point source, you must obtain an NPDES permit or redirect the flow of the waste.
Stormwater releases from certain activities require an NPDES permit. The most common activities on college campuses requiring NPDES permits for stormwater are construction activities disturbing more than 1 acre, hazardous waste storage areas operating under the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act permit system, steam-generating power plants, and airports. See Stormwater section below.
Regulations issued by local water authorities, or Publicly Owned Treatment Works (POTWs), not NPDES permits, govern discharges into sanitary sewer systems. See Sewer Use (POTW) section below for more information about requirements for using POTWs for commercial or industrial waste disposal.
What do I have to do related to NPDES Discharge Permits?
Determine where wastewater flows from buildings and processes on your campus. Any industrial or commercial operation (e.g., ice rink melt pits, floor drains, and vehicle wash stations) that discharge into a water of the United States may require an NPDES permit. If required, you must obtain such a permit from the appropriate regulatory agency, probably your state environmental agency.
French drains, dry wells, and septic system leach fields are different from point source discharges because they do not immediately affect surface water. Some state and federal environmental agencies manage these systems under the Underground Injection Control program, part of the Safe Drinking Water Act. See Safe Drinking Water Act for more information.
Details of NPDES
Use this graph to distinguish between causation and correlation. Make sure to explain what each is and why it is important to understand the difference.
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The fact that the correlation is high as shown by the high value of r only connotes a possible relationship.
What is the difference between causation and correlation?Causation and correlation are two terms that are often used in statistics and research. Correlation refers to a relationship between two variables where a change in one variable is associated with a change in the other variable. However, this does not necessarily mean that one variable causes the other.
Causation, on the other hand, implies that one variable directly causes a change in the other variable. In other words, there is a cause-and-effect relationship between the two variables.
While correlation can provide useful information, it is important to remember that correlation does not necessarily imply causation. In order to establish causation, further research is needed to rule out other potential factors that may be responsible for the observed relationship.
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Causation and correlation are two terms that are often used in statistics and research. Correlation refers to a relationship between two variables where a change in one variable is associated with a change in the other variable. However, this does not necessarily mean that one variable causes the other.
Causation, on the other hand, implies that one variable directly causes a change in the other variable. In other words, there is a cause-and-effect relationship between the two variables.
QUESTION 4
2 poin
4. What are the three areas in which a communication disorder may occur?
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Answer:
Speech, fluency, articulation.
What happens to cells during differentiation
A. They gain the ability to build entire organisms
B. They develop specific structures and organelles
C. They become stem cells and divide into Zygotes
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Answer:
B
Explanation:
the plant can change its form
In eukaryotes, miR-5 is a microRNA with sequence complementarity to the 3’UTR of the mRNA transcript encoded by the UCD gene. The UCD gene encodes for a protein that acts as an allosteric activator of the protein p101. The p101 protein is a DNA methyltransferase (DNMT) which is an enzyme that methylates DNA when the protein is in its active form.
A) In a lung cancer cell line, the p101 protein is overly active leading to misregulation of gene expression. In these lung cancer cells which of the following would be a correct prediction in regards to miR-5? [choose ALL that apply, note that incorrect selections will deduct points]
A) The gene encoding miR-5 is in a region of chromatin with hypoacetylation
B) The gene encoding miR-5 is in a region of chromatin with hyperacetylation
C) The gene encoding miR-5 in a region of euchromatin
D) The gene encoding miR-5 in a region of heterochromatin
E) The miR-5 transcript is translated at high levels
F) The miR-5 transcript is activating translation of the UCD gene
B) A different lung cancer cell line is found to have significantly decreased amounts of DNA methylation. Which of the following could explain why there is decreased DNA methylation in this cell line? [choose ALL that apply, note that incorrect selections will deduct points]
A) increased amounts of the p101 protein due to low levels of miR-5
B) increased amounts of the UCD protein due to high levels of miR-5
C) decreased amounts of the UCD protein due to low levels of miR-5
D) the absence of the UCD protein due to miR-5 inhibiting translation of the UCD mRNA transcript
E) the absence of the p101 protein due to miR-5 inhibiting transcription of the p101 mRNA transcript
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Answer:
A) A) The gene encoding miR-5 is in a region of chromatin with hypoacetylation.
D) The gene encoding miR-5 in a region of heterochromatin.
B) D) the absence of the UCD protein due to miR-5 inhibiting translation of the UCD mRNA transcript
Explanation:
MicroRNAs (miRNAs) are small regulatory RNA sequences (approximately 20-24 nucleotides in length) that regulate gene expression by RNA interference (RNAi) mechanisms. These sequences (miRNAs) bind by base complementarity to messenger RNAs and thus inhibit protein translation and/or trigger mRNA degradation. In this case, miR-5 binds to the 3’UTR of the mRNA transcript of the UCD gene, thereby inhibiting/slowing protein UCD synthesis. The UCD protein is an allosteric regulator that binds and activates the expression of the p101 protein, thereby the miR-5 RNAi pathway also indirectly decreases the expression of the p101 gene. Moreover, hypoacetylation is an epigenetic mark generally associated with gene silencing (heterochromatin is a transcriptionally inactive state of chromatin).
Explain what happens to energy that is not used? 1 Unused energy is destroyed. 2 Lost energy is transferred as heat energy. 3 Unused energy is recycled. 4 Lost energy disappears. please help!
Answers
Answer:
3. Unused energy is recycled
2 examples of what resources that humans use and how they affect the hydrosphere
Answers
Answer:
Fossil Fuels and Water resources
Explanation:
Humans use fossil fuels for transportation and other industries, but their combustion releases greenhouse gases that cause climate change and pollution that can harm aquatic ecosystems. Freshwater resources are also used by humans, but overuse and pollution can cause water scarcity and harm aquatic life, and the construction of dams and other infrastructure can alter natural water flows and ecosystems.
4. The ATP yield from 2 moles of mitochondrial NADH under aerobic conditions in a eukaryotic cell would be: which option is correct a) 1 mole of ATP b) 2 moles of ATP c) 3 moles of ATP d) 4 moles of ATP e) 6 moles of ATP
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The ATP yield from 2 moles of mitochondrial NADH under aerobic conditions in a eukaryotic cell is approximately 4 moles of ATP.
During oxidative phosphorylation, each mole of NADH can generate around 2.5 to 3 moles of ATP. Therefore, for 2 moles of NADH, the total ATP production would be in the range of 4 to 6 moles of ATP. While the more precise estimate falls within the 4 to 6 moles range, the closest option provided is 4 moles of ATP. It is important to note that the exact ATP yield can vary depending on factors such as the efficiency of the electron transport chain and the specific conditions within the cell.Since there are 2 moles of mitochondrial NADH, the total ATP yield would be around 4 to 6 moles of ATP. However, the most accurate option among the given choices is 4 moles of ATP.
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Ocean waves are hitting a beach with a frequency of 0.100 Hz. Their
average wavelength is 15.0 m. What is their average speed?
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Answer:
7 MPH or 11.27 KPH
Explanation:
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Food safety is a risk based process true or false
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food safety is a risk based process is true
what is geological substratum
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Answer:
Explanation:
Geological substratum refers to the solid rock or layer of Earth's crust that lies beneath the soil, sediment, or other surface materials.
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A researcher wants to examine the effect of fertilizer and the effect of sunlight on the yield of tomatoes. She bought 60 tomato plants at local garden store. She randomly assigned 30 tomato plants to be planted on the sunny side of the hill and 30 to be planted on the shady side. The 30 plants which are planted on the shady side are randomly assigned to one of three groups. The first group are grown with no fertilizer, the second group with a small amount of fertilizer, and the third group with a large amount of fertilizer. The 30 plants which are planted on the sunny side are likewise randomly assigned to one of three group. The first group are grown with no fertilizer, the second group with a small amount of fertilizer and the third group with a large amount of fertilizer. All tomato plants are planed at the same time and are all treated alike (in terms of how they are watered, weeded etc.). Each plant is grown to maturity. The total weight of tomatoes obtained from each plant is recorded. Identify the factor(s) and the number of levels for each. a) Sunny, shady (2 levels) b) No fertilizer, small amount of fertilizer, large amount of fertilizer (3 levels) c) No fertilizer and sunny, small amount of fertilizer and sunny, large amount of fertilizer and sunny, no fertilizer and shady, small amount of fertilizer and shady, large amount of fertilizer and shady (6 levels) d) Fertilizer (3 levels), location (2 levels) e) Fertilizer (3 levels), blocking variable – location (2 levels)
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In this experiment, the fourth tomato plants—the group of tomatoes that do not get any fertilizers—serves as the control group.
Fertilizer is any substance, whether chemical or natural, applied to the soil with the intention of boosting productivity. Tomato groups behave as a reference group when fertilizer is added, whereas tomato groups that have no fertilizer added behave as a control group. The aforementioned description is true as a result. The group in which nothing is altered is known as the control group. To determine whether the changes you make in the experimental groups actually had an impact, use this as a foundation or baseline. In the absence of this, your experiment is worthless since there is no evidence that the adjustment you performed was the root cause of the result you observed.
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Which statement best describes why carbon can form a wide variety of organic compounds?
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Answer:10100101010101
Explanation:101010101010100100101010101110110100101001
Drag the tiles to the correct boxes to complete the pairs. Match the type of of evidence for evolution with the correct example.
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Fossil records, comparative anatomy, embryology, biogeography, and molecular biology are types of evidence for evolution with respective examples.
Various types of evidence support evolution, including:
1. Fossil records - preserved remains showing species' gradual change over time, e.g. transitional forms like Archaeopteryx.
2. Comparative anatomy - studying similarities and differences in species' structures, e.g. homologous structures like mammalian forelimbs.
3. Embryology - comparing early developmental stages across species, e.g. similarities in vertebrate embryos.
4. Biogeography - analyzing species distribution patterns, e.g. Darwin's finches across Galapagos islands.
5. Molecular biology - comparing DNA and protein sequences to determine relatedness, e.g. genetic similarities among primates.
These examples demonstrate how different lines of evidence contribute to our understanding of evolution.
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Where would a frameshift mutation cause the most damage?
Near the very end of the gene
Near the beginning of the gene
Near the center of the gene
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A frameshift mutation near the beginning or center of the gene is more likely to result in significant damage.
When nucleotides are either added or deleted in the DNA sequence, a frameshift mutation takes place. This form of genetic mutation results in a shift in the reading frame during protein synthesis.
The structure and function of the resultant protein may suffer as a result of this change. A frameshift mutation's impact on the gene's function depends on where it occurs.
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what are the morphological and production characteristics of hampshire swine/pig?
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Answer:
Hampshire hogs are black with a white belt. They have erect ears. The belt is a strip of white across the shoulders that covers the front legs around the body. The Hampshire, which is a heavily muscled, lean meat breed, is the fourth most recorded breed of the pigs in the United States.
Explanation:
The Hampshire pig is a medium sized breed of pig. It has erect ears and black body, with a whitish band around the middle, covering the front legs. Body of the animal is well built with long legs and noses, making the breed popular for meat production.
Species Characteristics
X Short canine teeth, small prey size
Y 1-foot-long canine teeth, large prey size
Which species will most likely survive if the prey population in the area decreases?
A- Species X because it is difficult to bring down a small prey
B- Species X because short canines are less likely to break
C- Species Y because long canines are less likely to break
D- Species Y because it is easy to bring down a large prey
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The species will most likely survive if the prey population in the area decreases (A). Species X because it is difficult to bring down a small prey is correct option.
If the prey population declines, species X, which has short canine teeth and is specialized for small prey, would benefit. This is so because of how tough it is for them to take down a large prey due to their physical makeup. In contrast, due to their specialised traits, Species Y, with 1-foot-long canine teeth and an adaptation for huge food, may encounter difficulties when hunting smaller species. Therefore, in a scenario where the population of the prey drops, Species X has a higher chance of surviving.
Therefore the correct option is (A).
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18
In the second stanza, what does the speaker call "Mines of gold"?
A.nectar from the flowers
B.colors of the flowers
C.height of the flowers
D.smell of the flowers
Answers
The correct answer is B.
In the second stanza, the speaker calls "Mines of gold" to the colors of the flowers.
The second stanza in the poem 'To the Cuckoo' by William Wordsworth talks about the beauty of flowers and the way they provide nourishment and food to the bees. "The "Mines of precious stones" refer to the beauty of the flowers and how they contain nectar, which is like gold to the bees as it provides nourishment to them. Therefore, the speaker calls "Mines of gold" to the colors of the flowers.For such more questions on flowers
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The percentage of each muscle fiber type in any given muscle of your body is genetically determined. Also, physical activity can cause slight changes in muscle fiber type. Discuss the relative amount of each muscle type in the thigh muscles of Olympic athletes participating in the following events: marathon, weight lifting, 100-meter dash.
Answers
The percentage of muscle fiber types in a muscle is influenced by genetic factors, but physical activity and training can also cause adaptations and slight changes in muscle fiber type composition. The relative amount of each muscle fiber type can vary among individuals and can be different depending on the specific demands of their sport or event.
In the thigh muscles of Olympic athletes participating in different events like the marathon, weightlifting, and the 100-meter dash, we can expect to see variations in the distribution of muscle fiber types.
Marathon runners typically rely heavily on endurance and sustained effort, which requires a high aerobic capacity. Therefore, they often have a higher percentage of slow-twitch (Type I) muscle fibers. Slow-twitch fibers are fatigue-resistant and are well-suited for prolonged, low-intensity activities.
On the other hand, weightlifters need explosive strength and power for their sport. They typically have a higher proportion of fast-twitch (Type II) muscle fibers, particularly Type IIa and Type IIb. These fast-twitch fibers generate high force but fatigue more quickly than slow-twitch fibers. Weightlifters may have a higher proportion of Type IIb fibers, which are specialized for short, intense bursts of power.
Sprinters participating in the 100-meter dash require explosive speed and power. They also have a higher proportion of fast-twitch muscle fibers, including a significant percentage of Type IIb fibers. These fibers can generate rapid force production and are optimized for brief, intense activities.
It's important to note that while there are general trends in muscle fiber type distribution among athletes in specific sports, there can still be individual variation based on genetic factors, training history, and other factors. Athletes' training regimens and genetic predispositions can influence the specific percentages of muscle fiber types observed in their thigh muscles.
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if the temperature increases, then the dissolved oxygen level will _____________ because _______________
Answers
Answer: Lower levels of dissolved oxygen
Explanation:
it lowers the level of dissolved oxygen causing the molecules are moving faster * do to matter*
Identify the role that cholesterol plays in a human cell.
O forms the nuclear membrane
is used to increase the rate of cellular reactions
O is a precursor for forming DNA
O forms part of the cell's outer membrane
Answers
Answer:
forms part of the cell's outer membrane
Explanation:
Fish have a two chambered heart.
Please select the best answer from the choices provided
T
ОО
F.
Answers
Answer:
it is TRUE that they DO have a two chambered heart
Answer:
true hgtgfgcgfxsggddcfdddss
What are the calcium carbonate walls around the coral called? The walls surrounding the coral are called ______.
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A solution in which the concentration of solutes is the same inside and outside of a cell is a _______________________ solution: *
hypertonic
hypotonic
isotonic
None of the above
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It takes the Earth _______ to complete one revolution around the Sun.
Answers
Answer:
365 days
Explanation:
Earth to go around sun=365 days
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Which technique could be used to evaluate the primary amino acid sequence of a protein?
Answers
Answer:
Hundreds of proteins have been sequenced by Edman degradation of peptides derived from specific cleavages. Protein Mass Spectrometry is an analytical technique that measures the mass-to-charge ratio of charged particles for determining masses of particles and the elemental composition of a sample of molecules as well as for elucidating the chemical structure of molecules such as peptides. Protein mass spectrometry is an important method for the accurate mass determination and characterization of proteins, and a variety of methods and instrumentations have been developed for its many uses.