each of the following hypothetical syllogisms is missing its second premise. which of them commits the fallacy of denying the antecedent?
Answers
Out of these syllogisms, the only one that commits the fallacy of denying the antecedent is the second one. This is because the second premise negates the antecedent of the first premise ("it is raining"), which leads to the invalid conclusion that the streets are not wet. In reality, the streets could still be wet for other reasons, even if it is not currently raining. The other two syllogisms are valid and do not commit this fallacy.
To determine which syllogism commits the fallacy of denying the antecedent, we need to first understand what that fallacy means. The fallacy of denying the antecedent occurs when the second premise of a syllogism negates the antecedent of the first premise, leading to an invalid conclusion.
Here are the hypothetical syllogisms:
1. All dogs are mammals. If something is not a dog, then it is not a mammal.
2. If it is raining, the streets will be wet. It is not raining. Therefore, the streets are not wet.
3. If I eat too much ice cream, I will get a stomachache. I did not eat too much ice cream. Therefore, I will not get a stomachache.
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If the man in the hat were a lawyer, then I would need his advice. So I do not need his advice to commit the fallacy of denying the antecedent.
A pure hypothetical Syllogism represents a syllogism with conditional premises and conclusions. For a conditional claim to be legitimate, the antecedent for one premise must coincide with the resulting result of the other. As a result, conditionals include stayed antecedent as precedent and stayed consequent as consequent.
We will look at three different types of propositional syllogisms here. The type of connective that provides the link between the assertions determines the kind: Conjunction, Disjunction, and The consequences (in theoretical propositions).
A Hypothetical Syllogism has an Imaginary Major Premise, a Classification Minor Premise, and a Categories Conclusion. There are two well-accepted moods: the Modus ponens, where the prior state of the hypothetical significant premise is confirmed, and the Modus tollens, which its consequent is confirmed.
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Related Questions
Which is true of genes?
They are sections of DNAthat produce the proteins that control an organism's characteristics.
They are proteins that produce sections of DNAwhich control the cell's activities.
They are features that can be observed rather than measured.
They are the same as traits which show up in an organism if they are dominant.
Answers
Answer:
A. Sections of DNA that produce proteins that control an organism's characteristics
Explanation:
The other cells need these proteins in order to have a job, but they need to start from genes. Besides human traits, other organelles' dependence on them makes it vital to the life of a cell.
Answer:
Sections of DNA that produce proteins that control an organism's characteristics
Explanation:
What are the reproductive structures and main characteristic of angiosperms?
a) leaves
b) flowers
c) seeds
d) roots
Answers
Answer:
flowers
Explanation:
Although there is a tremendous variation among flowers, the reproductive parts are similar.
The reproductive structures and main characteristic of angiosperms are flowers. The correct option is b.
What are angiosperms?Angiosperms are called flowering plants. Angiosperms are plants that blossom and produce fruits that contain their seeds. With around 300,000 species, they are the most numerous and diverse group within the kingdom Plantae.
Gymnosperms are woody trees that resemble cones. They only produce seeds instead of flowers or fruits. The absence of the fruit wall leaves the seeds exposed. Gymnosperms generate unadorned seeds (a seed not enclosed in an ovary).
The reproductive organs in angiosperms are the blooms, which can be unisexual or bisexual. A triploid (3n) endosperm and a diploid (2n) zygote are produced by multiple fertilization in angiosperms.
Therefore, the correct option is b) flowers.
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Durante la explosión de una planta nuclear como la ocurrida en Chernóbyl en 1986, una persona se expone por un tiempo a esta radiación ¿qué daños a nivel molecular (ADN O ARN) podría sufrir? Y ¿cómo afectaría esto su salud y a la de su descendencia?
Answers
Answer:
mediante mutaciones en el ADN
Explanation:
El desastre ecológico de Chernóbil estuvo asociado a la liberación de importantes cantidades de radiación en forma de radioisótopos hacia la atmósfera, como producto de la explosión de un reactor que contenía toneladas de uranio radiactivo. La exposición a este tipo de radiación aumenta las probabilidades de sufrir mutaciones en la molécula de ADN. Dicho de otro modo, la radiación incrementa las chances de sufrir cambios en el material genético hereditario. Las mutaciones generalmente son corregidas por los mecanismos de reparación del ADN; sin embargo, existen ocasiones donde las mutaciones no son reparadas. Por otro lado, las mutaciones a menudo tienen efectos deletéreos y por lo tanto están asociadas a enfermedades, ya que los cambios en la secuencia genética provocan consecuentemente también cambios en las proteínas codificadas por estos genes. Por ejemplo, las mutaciones sufridas por genes supresores de tumores se encuentran asociadas a la aparición de células cancerosas por el mal funcionamiento de dichos genes. El efecto de la mutación depende del tipo celular que sufre la mutación: aunque las mutaciones sufridas por células somáticas pueden afectar la salud, estos tipos de mutaciones no son heredadas (simplemente porque las células somáticas no se heredan), mientras que las mutaciones sufridas por células germinales, es decir, en las células encargadas de la formación de gametos, pueden ser transmitidas a la descendencia.
What percent of solar radiation is filtered by clouds and may cause sunburn on cloudy days?
O 3 percent
Answers
Percentage of solar radiation is filtered by clouds and may cause sunburn on cloudy days. 22 per cent of solar radiation is filtered by clouds and may cause sunburn on cloudy days.
The SCF estimates that up to 80% of the sun's UV radiation will taste clouds. This is the explanation for why people who have been outside without using sun protection frequently end up with severe sunburns on gloomy days.
The UV Index is directly correlated to the amount of radiation an individual will be exposed to at a given time of day and year. In periods of intense overcast, clouds can block up to 70–90% of these UV–B rays.
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Stage _____ of NREM sleep represents the beginning of actual sleep.
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Answers
Answer: B. Two
Explanation:
During the first stage, your body starts relaxing and falling into sleep. This is the lightest stage of sleep. You can wake easily during this stage, and are not "fully" asleep.
During the second stage, your body deepens into it's sleep, your heart rate decreases, your body temperature decreases, and more. This is the stage that "represents the beginning of actual sleep" which is the answer to your question.
During the third stage, your body is in a deeper state of sleep. Your muscles relax further, your breathing rate slows, and more.
During the fourth stage, your heart rate and body temperature rise again. Your brain is a bit more active, and your muscles start to "wake up" slowly again.
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Choose the evidence supporting Darwin’s theory of natural selection that demonstrates differential reproductive success in Magellanic penguins.
Researchers have studied Magellanic penguins in Punta Tombo, which is a stretch of coast in Argentina. They have determined that in years when resources are lacking
(A) larger males tended to beat out smaller males for food, (B) larger males were better suited to adjust to the change in environment, and (C) larger males survived over smaller males to continue mating.
Answers
Answer:
A
Explanation:
it is more realistic
Which of the following statements about eutrophication is true?
a. Eutrophication occurs when excess nutrients are present in aquatic ecosystems, resulting in
the increased production of plant life and the subsequent increase in the oxygen levels of the
water.
b. Eutrophication occurs when excess nutrients are present in aquatic ecosystems, resulting in
the increased production of plant life and the subsequent decrease in the oxygen levels of the
water.
Eutrophication involves the overpopulation of aquatic ecosystems with plant and animal life.
d. Eutrophication is rarely caused by human activity.
Answers
Answer:
b
Explanation:
Eutrophication occurs when excess nutrients like phosphorus from agricultural fertilizers are carried off into aquatic ecosystems. Since phosphorous is one of the limiting nutrients to plants, its excessive amounts result in a drastic increase in algal growth in the water system.
Step 2
As these plants decompose, a high amount of oxygen is used up resulting in a decrease in oxygen levels in the aquatic system. A very low level of oxygen in the water is detrimental to many aquatic organisms.
Result
B
Answer the question: Which is better at pollinating flowers: live bees or robotic bees?
Claim:
Evidence:
Reasoning:
Answers
Answer:
Live bees
Explanation:
don't be too lazy using Brainly it will help to do it yourself
What is lactose?
What is lacTASE?
Lactose is a _______
Lactase is a _______
Answers
Answer:
A lactose a sugar present in milk. It is a disaccharide containing glucose and galactose units.
A lactase an enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of lactose to glucose and galactose
I hope this helped you
put the following steps of bacterial translation in order. not all steps of translation are listed.
Answers
Translation is the process by which the information in RNA is converted into protein. It is divided into three stages: initiation, elongation, and termination.
The following steps of bacterial translation are listed in the correct order.
Step 1: Initiation: The ribosome binds to the mRNA, scanning along it until it reaches the start codon. This start codon (AUG) signals the start of the protein-encoding region of the mRNA. The initiation codon is recognized by an initiator tRNA, which carries the amino acid methionine. The small ribosomal subunit binds to the mRNA, and the initiator tRNA, carrying methionine, binds to the start codon. This complex is then joined by the large ribosomal subunit to form the functional ribosome.
Step 2: Elongation: Once the ribosome is assembled, the process of elongation begins. The first charged tRNA carrying the amino acid methionine enters the ribosome's P site. Then, the second tRNA enters the A site, bringing with it the next amino acid specified by the codon in the mRNA. Peptide bond formation occurs between the carboxyl group of the first amino acid and the amino group of the second amino acid, forming a dipeptide. This process continues as the ribosome moves along the mRNA in a 5' to 3' direction. The ribosome shifts down the mRNA in a process known as translocation, which moves the peptidyl-tRNA to the P site and the uncharged tRNA to the E site. The A site is now open to receive the next charged tRNA. The process of elongation continues until the ribosome encounters a stop codon.
Step 3: Termination: When the ribosome encounters a stop codon, a release factor enters the A site, causing the hydrolysis of the bond between the polypeptide chain and the tRNA in the P site. The completed polypeptide is released from the ribosome's P site, and the ribosome subunits separate. The newly synthesized protein can now undergo post-translational modifications to become a functional protein.
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how many feet of intestines does the average person have
Answers
describe matter flow through system. (Photosynthesis)
Answers
Answer:
ma
Explanation:
The process of photosynthesis converts light energy into stored chemical energy by converting carbon dioxide plus water into sugars plus released oxygen. ... As matter and energy flow through different organizational levels of living systems, chemical elements are recombined in different ways to form different products.
Answer:
Posting Visual picture for refrence!
Explanation:
Picture from Biology dictionary.
which are characteristic of somatosensory pathways? multiple choice question. the sensation of an itch and discriminative touch are transmitted in the same pathway. each pathway transmits information to different regions of the brain. they are all descending pathways.
Answers
The characteristic of somatosensory pathways is that the sensation of an itch and discriminative touch are transmitted in the same pathway. Hence option A and B are correct.
The medial lemniscal or posterior pathway and the spinothalamic or anterolateral pathway are the two primary paired pathways that carry somatosensory information to the brain.
All of them are rising routes. Each route carries information to various brain areas. The same channel is used to transmit both the itching sensation and discriminative touch.
Somatic senses are those that relate to the sensation of touch. The brain communicates with the nerves in the skin and organs via somatosensory pathways. Ascending routes, also known as afferent pathways, use a network of afferent nerves to carry somatosensory data from the body to the brain.
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Polymorphism is when ____ in a class hierarchy perform differently, depending upon which object performs the call.
Answers
Polymorphism is when member functions in a class hierarchy perform differently, depending upon which object performs the call.
What is polymorphism?Polymorphism refers to the fаct thаt different objects cаn respond to the sаme method in different wаys, depending on the аctuаl type of the object. This cаn occur becаuse а method cаn be overridden in а subclаss. In thаt cаse, objects belonging to the subclаss will respond to the method differently from objects belonging to the superclаss.
Polymorphism, in biology, а discontinuous genetic vаriаtion resulting in the occurrence of severаl different forms or types of individuаls аmong the members of а single species. А discontinuous genetic vаriаtion divides the individuаls of а populаtion into two or more shаrply distinct forms. The most obvious exаmple of this is the sepаrаtion of most higher orgаnisms into mаle аnd femаle sexes.
Your question is incomplete, but most probably your full options were
a. base class constructors
b. derived class constructors
c. member functions
d. derived class destructors
e. None of these
Thus, the correct answer is C
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how does a zygote from
Answers
Answer:
Formed when a male gamete (sperm) and a female gamete (egg) combine.
Explanation:
A zygote is formed when these two gametes come together. This initial phase is carried out in the Zygotic stage.
Hope this is correct. Have a wonderful day.
Devegetation affected a number of nutrient reservoirs and processes in the experimental watershed. Note that the rate of decomposition was not affected by devegetation because the decomposers were not affected by the treatments and because the plant remains contributed plenty of organic nutrients to the soil to sustain decomposition for the duration of the experiment. Drag the labels to indicate the change in the size of the reservoir or the change in the rate of the process as a result of devegetation. Labels may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Answers
Answer:
Devegetation affect the nutrient reservoir and watershed due to not using of nutrient and increases soil erosion.
Explanation:
Devegetation refers to no vegetation on a piece of land. If there is no vegetation present on land, the nutrient reservoir remain full because no plant is available for the absorption of nutrients from the reservoir. Devegetation also affect water quality of watershed. Erosion is the main problem of those areas where there is no vegetation and the upper layer of soil is washed by the rainfall.
The shape of the beaks of Darwin's finches, industrial melanism, and sickle-cell disease are often cited as examples of the process of _______________ leading to evolutionary change. Group of answer choices artificial selection natural selection coevolution
Answers
The given examples are of : Natural Selection.
Natural selection is the variation in individual survival and procreation brought on by phenotypic variances. The development of a population's heritable features across generations is a crucial process of evolution.
Darwin also proposed natural selection as a process for evolution, in which heritable features that aid organisms in surviving and procreating grow more prevalent in a population over time.
Darwin views natural selection as a protracted, complicated process involving several interrelated factors. Variation among the organisms in a population is necessary for natural selection. It must be heritable and transmitted in some way to the descendants of the organisms for the process to function.
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Which is the best date variety must be refrigerated after harvest because of its high sugar content? Tamar Zahidi Thoory Black Sphinx Question 2 2 pts Which of the following statements about dates is FALSE? Commercial dates palms are typically propagated from seed. Dates are members of the Arecaceae or palm family. Dates are dioecious with male and female plants. A mature female date palm can yield upwards of 100 to 200 pounds of fruit each year.
Answers
The date variety that must be refrigerated after harvest due to its high sugar content is the Zahidi date.
Dates are known for their sweet taste, and some varieties have a particularly high sugar content. Among the options provided, the Zahidi date variety is known for its high sugar content and is commonly refrigerated after harvest to maintain its quality.
Tamar dates, also known as Medjool dates, are known for their soft and chewy texture. Thoory dates are a dry variety and are typically consumed in a dried form without the need for refrigeration. Black Sphinx dates, also known as Black Abbada dates, are characterized by their dark color and are often enjoyed fresh.
Therefore, based on the options provided, the Zahidi date variety is the one that must be refrigerated after harvest due to its high sugar content. Refrigeration helps preserve the quality, texture, and taste of the Zahidi dates by slowing down enzymatic activity and inhibiting microbial growth.
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What continents match up to form Pangaea
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
Gondwana and Laurasia
Whiplash: Neural Injury- (sympathetic/parasympathetic) symptoms may also be an epiphenomenon that arises in response to the stress of the injury
Answers
Whiplash injuries can cause both sympathetic and parasympathetic symptoms, but sympathetic symptoms are more common in this type of injury.
Increased heart rate, blood pressure, and respiratory rate, as well as sweating, dilated pupils, and anxiety or agitation, are all examples of sympathetic symptoms.
These symptoms are thought to be caused by the sympathetic nervous system, which is in charge of the body's "fight or flight" response to stress.
Thus, some of the symptoms associated with whiplash injury, both sympathetic and parasympathetic, may also be an epiphenomenon that arises in response to the injury's stress.
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which ergonomic principles should the nurse implement when assisting a client from a bed to a stretcher to prevent patient injury? select all that apply.
Answers
To prevent patient injury when assisting a client from a bed to a stretcher, the nurse should implement the following ergonomic principles:
Determine the client's ability to help, Evaluate the need for additional staff, Raise the head of the bed to high Fowler's position, Provide a sliding board
1. Determine the client's ability to help: Assess the patient's strength and mobility to determine the level of assistance needed.
2. Evaluate the need for additional staff: If the patient requires more assistance, having extra staff members can help distribute the load and ensure safety.
3. Raise the head of the bed to high Fowler's position: This makes it easier for the patient to move and reduces the risk of injury.
4. Provide a sliding board: Using a sliding board can help transfer the patient smoothly and reduce strain on both the patient and staff.
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The probable question may be:
Which ergonomic principles should the nurse implement when assisting a client from a bed to astretcher to prevent patient injury? Select all that apply.
Determine the client's ability to help
Evaluate the need for additional staff
Raise the head of the bed to high Fowler's position
Provide sliding board
Bob has brown hair and Sally has blonde hair. If brown hair is dominant and blonde hair is recessive, is it possible for Bob and Sally to have a blonde-haired child? Use the GENOTYPE of each parent to EXPLAIN your answer.
Answers
Answer:
Yes, it is possible.
Explanation:
Bob could either be h.o.m.ozygous (BB) for brown hair or h.e.terozygous (Bb) for brown hair. If Bob is h.e.t.erozygous for brown hair, this means he has a blonde hair allele. For a child to be blonde, the child needs one blonde allele from each parent and this is possible if Bob has a blonde hair allele. However, it is not possible if Bob is h.o.m.ozygous for brown hair.
In the image, there is a punnet square showing the possible genotypes of the children if Bob is h.e.t.erozygous for brown hair.
Your colleague has collected some sediments from a mangrove swamp and then grows the bacteria from those sediments on an agar plate to determine the concentration of bacteria in those sediments.
a) Describe why the resulting bacterial concentration is an underestimate of the actual concentration of bacteria in those sediments.
b) State what method they should have used instead to more accurately determine the bacterial concentration.
Answers
From the question;
1) It may have been underestimated sue to visibility bias
2) The method of direct microscopic count or direct cell count can be employed.
What about the bacteria?On the particular agar medium employed, not all bacteria contained in the sediments may be viable or able to grow. Some bacteria might no longer be culturable or in a dormant state, which limits their capacity to grow into colonies on the agar plate. This viability bias may lead to the underestimate of the bacterial population by excluding a sizable fraction of it.
A direct microscopic count entails using a microscope to directly observe and count bacterial cells. Without the bias imposed by culture-based approaches, it provides a more thorough count of bacterial cells, including viable and non-viable cells.
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Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
A scientist analyzes a fossil found in the limestone layer of Mountain A. By applying the technique of radiometric dating to the fossil, the scientist concludes that the limestone formed approximately 1.34 billion years ago.
Which two assumptions are necessary to support the scientist's conclusion? Select the two correct answers.
Question 3 options:
After the fossil formed, all of its radioactive isotopes decayed very quickly.
Radioactive isotopes decay at a constant rate over long spans of time.
The fossil formed at the same time as the limestone surrounding it.
The fossil formed from the same materials as the limestone surrounding it.
After the limestone formed, chemical and physical processes affected it only minimally.
Answers
The two assumptions necessary to support the scientist's conclusion are:
Radioactive isotopes decay at a constant rate over long spans of time.The fossil formed from the same materials as the limestone surrounding it.What is Radiometric dating?Radiometric dating relies on the fact that radioactive isotopes decay at a constant rate over time, allowing scientists to determine the age of a material by measuring the amount of radioactive isotopes that remain. Therefore, the assumption that radioactive isotopes decay at a constant rate over long spans of time is necessary to support the conclusion drawn by the scientist.
Additionally, the assumption that the fossil formed from the same materials as the limestone surrounding it is also necessary because radiometric dating relies on the assumption that the material being dated was formed at the same time as the surrounding materials. If the fossil was formed from different materials than the surrounding limestone, radiometric dating would not accurately determine the age of the limestone layer.
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What do smooth muscle cells look like under a microscope?
Answers
One common hazard during a heat wave is too much sun
exposure.
Which two actions should you take to protect yourself from sun exposure?
A. Limit physical activity
B. Wear protective clothing
✓ C. Stay indoors between 10 a.m. and Dp.m.
D. Conserve water
Answers
Answer:
C & B.
Explanation:
What i the proper term for the repeated erie of event by which rock gradually and continuouly change from one type to another
Answers
The term "rock cycle" refers to the process by which molten magma cools and transforms into an igneous rock.
What do rocks become as a result of weathering and erosion?At or near the earth's surface, weathering (the process of breaking down rock) and erosion (the process of transferring rock material) reduce rocks to ever-tinier fragments. These more minute rock fragments, such as sand, silt, or mud, can be deposited as sediments, which then harden or lithify to form sedimentary rocks.
What kinds of weathering do rocks undergo?Weathering can be classified as biological, chemical, or mechanical. Chemical weathering is the process by which rain gradually eats away at rocks because rain is actually somewhat acidic. Animals and plants can also degrade rocks.
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describe the relationship between water velocity and water loss
Answers
Answer:
If the water velocity decreases, the rate of erosion increases.
The varicella zoster virus causing chicken pox can stay dormant in the sensory neurons in the dorsal root ganglion. it can get reactivated later on in life causing ________.
Answers
The varicella zoster virus causing chicken pox can stay dormant in the sensory neurons in the dorsal root ganglion. it can get reactivated later on in life causing Shingles.
What is shingles?Shingles is characterized by an excruciating rash that appears on one side of the face or torso.
The rash consisted mainly of pustules that clot over in 7 to 10 days and clear up completely in 2 to 4 weeks.
Just before symptoms appear, people frequently experience pain, itching, or tingling in the affected area.
Shingles is caused by reoccurrence of the varicella-zoster virus, which is also responsible for chickenpox.
Thus, shingles is the reactivation of varicella zoster virus.
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The depicted cells (each labeled with a letter below) were taken from an organism that has two types of chromosomes.
What is the ploidy of Cell C?
Answers
The ploidy of a cell refers to the number of sets of chromosomes it contains. In this case, the organism has two types of chromosomes. To determine the ploidy of Cell C, we need to analyze the number of sets of chromosomes it possesses. From the information given, we can see that Cell C contains two distinct chromosomes labeled as X and Y. Therefore, we can conclude that Cell C has two sets of chromosomes. The ploidy of Cell C is diploid, which means it contains two sets of chromosomes.
About ChromosomesA chromosome is a long DNA molecule that contains part or all of an organism's genetic material. Most of the chromosomes in eukaryotes have packaging proteins called histones which, assisted by chaperone proteins, bind and condense the DNA molecule to maintain its integrity. The most important function of chromosomes is to carry the basic genetic material DNA. DNA provides genetic information for various cellular functions. These functions are essential for the growth, survival, and reproduction of organisms. 2. Histones and other proteins cover the chromosomes. Inversion is the event of attaching a broken chromosome back to its original chromosome, but in an inverted position. Inversions are called silent mutations because they do not cause serious problems in the individual.
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