Sympathetic nerves to skin arterioles and motor neurons to skeletal muscles and sympathetic nerves to sweat glands.
How many neurons are in the efferent pathway?Two neurons make up the ANS's efferent pathways, which carry impulses from the CNS to the effector tissue. The preganglionic neuron has its cell body in the brainstem or the anterior horn of the grey matter of the spinal cord, where it develops in the central nervous system.
What role does the efferent pathway play?Efferent channels are used by the nervous system to discharge signals. In short, they are instructions from your brain to your body, like blinking. Afferent impulses, which communicate how your brain feels things like temperature, come from outside stimuli.
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The complete question is: Which efferent pathways are part of the body temperature control reflex?
an unresponsive trauma patient has a large open abdominal wound with massive external bleeding. you should
Apply direct pressure to the wound.
Hold the margins of the wound together if necessary to stop bleeding. The patient's position can occasionally be slightly altered to aid in the healing process.
Avoid touching or attempting to replace the intestines if they are visible. To prevent organ damage, cover a gaping wound with sterile dressings moistened with warm water.
Treatment:
1.Dress loosely.
2.Lay the victim down.
3.Kneel down, raise your legs, or assume the fetal posture.
4.Ask a doctor for advice.
5.The casualty may lie with their legs extended if it makes them more comfortable.
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The nurse has just received report on 4 clients. Which client should the nurse see first? O 1 Client 2 days post hip replacement who is reporting intense itching at the incision site 2. Client receiving normal saline IV at 250 ml/hr who is reporting puffy legs and a new cough 3. Client who is becoming increasingly angry due to a 2-hour delay in being discharged 04. Client with a potassium level of 5.0 mEq/L (5.0 mmol/L) receiving NS with 20 mEq/L (20 mmol/L) potassium chlorid - > End Suspend FI
The nurse should see first the Client receiving normal saline IV at 250 ml/hr who is reporting puffy legs and a new cough. The correct option is 2 client.
Who is a nurse?A nurse is someone who has completed a basic, generalized nursing education program and is licensed to practice nursing in their country by the appropriate regulatory authority.
Nurse take care of the medicines of the patient, he/she take care of the patient's mental health, and his checkups and needs.
Thus, the correct option is 2 client.
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a nurse is caring for a 4-week-old infant who is 2 weeks postoperative following surgical correction of biliary atresia. What activities should the nurse recommend for this age group?
The activities should the nurse recommend for this age group is as seen in the section below.
What is Biliary atresia?Biliary atresia is a rare condition in which the bile ducts between the liver and the small intestine are blocked or absent. It is a serious condition that leads to liver damage, jaundice, and can be life threatening if not treated. It is the most common cause of liver disease in infants. Treatment for biliary atresia typically involves surgery to create an alternate pathway for bile to flow out of the liver.
The recommendations for this age group are
Encourage plenty of rest in between periods of activity. Provide plenty of skin-to-skin contact with the infant.Allow for plenty of time for breast or bottle-feeding.Provide a safe and comfortable environment with minimal stimulation.Talk, sing, and read to the infant. Place the infant in different positions to help develop motor skills.Provide opportunities for tummy time when the infant is awake and alert.Monitor the infant's temperature and activity level closely. Provide opportunities for sensory exploration.Follow all post-operative instructions as provided by the physician.Learn more about Biliary atresia here:
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If too much glucose were administered to Skyler Hansen while the health care team was trying to correct his blood glucose level, what could occur
Answer:
if you apply to much sugar to the body a person could do in a diabetic shock and go into a coma
preindopril mechanism of action ?
Answer:
inhibition of ACE activity.
Explanation:
The mechanism through which perindoprilat lowers blood pressure. ACE is a peptidyl dipeptidase that catalyzes conversion of the inactive decapepetide, angiotensin i, to the vasoconstrictor, angiotensin ii.
Perindopril, and generally any medication ending in the suffix -pril, is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, meaning its mechanism of action is to block the conversion of blood hormone angiotensin 1 to vasoconstricting blood hormone angiotension 2, as well as increase increase plasma levels of enzyme renin and reduce levels of aldosterone, with the goal of causing systemic vasodilation which leads to a decrease in blood pressure in those with hypertension (HTN) and decreased risk of death from cardiovascular events in patients with coronary artery disease (CAD).
without autonomic nervous system input resting heart rate would be approximately:
a. 70-80 beats/min
b. 50-60 beats/min
c. 100-120 beats/min
d. 200-220 beats/min
self sufficiency, self-expression, work, education, leisure, health, and competition are classifications of physical activity experiences. what do these areas suggest? that there's a hierarchy of physical activity experiences that physical activity experiences are wide and varied that physical activity is largely sport participation the limited involvement in physical activity there's some people have
Experiences with physical activities not simply restricted to playing sports. It provides opportunity for people to engage in activities that they like and that also satisfy their needs and objectives.
Self-sufficiency refers to physical activities related to everyday tasks, such as gardening or housework, which promote independence and self-reliance. Self-expression includes physical activities that allow individuals to express themselves creatively, such as dancing or performing arts. Work-related physical activities are those that are necessary for job performance, such as manual labor or skilled trades.
Education-related physical activities include those that are part of a formal or informal learning process, such as physical education classes or outdoor education programs. Leisure activities involve physical activities that are pursued for enjoyment and relaxation, such as hiking or swimming. Health-related physical activities include those that are done specifically for health and fitness purposes, such as exercise or physical therapy.
Finally, competition-related physical activities are those that involve competing with others, such as in sports or athletics. These classifications suggest that physical activity experiences can encompass a broad range of activities, and that individuals may engage in physical activity for different reasons and with different goals in mind.
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Note- The correct question would be as below
Self-sufficiency, self-expression, work, education, leisure, health, and competition reflect physical activity experiences. What do these areas suggest?
How do the circulatory and respiratory system work together to circulate blood and oxygen throughhout the body
Answer:
The circulatory and respiratory systems work together to circulate blood and oxygen throughout the body. Air moves in and out of the lungs through the trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles. Blood moves in and out of the lungs through the pulmonary arteries and veins that connect to the heart.
Explanation:
OK I WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST TO THE FIRST PERSON WHO ANSWERS BECAUSE THIS SITUATION ACTUALLY HAPPENED!!!
I take care of a beutiful white and black spotted cat and I noticed something red and sticky on his ear. It was a huge gash. What should I use to clean it properly without having to take him to an animal hospital??
Answer:
Ear cleaning is not usually necessary in cats. Most cats are fine without it, but for those who are prone to wax build-up and/or ear infections, ear cleaning is a very important part of your cat’s hygiene needs.It is highly recommended to use a good quality ear cleaner. Cleaners with hydrogen peroxide or alcohol can cause irritation within the ear canal, especially if the canal is inflamed or ulcerated. Some ear cleaners have antibacterial or antifungal ingredients to help prevent ear infections. Certain cleaners are better at removing wax build-up. Your veterinarian can help you decide which ear cleaning solution is best for your pet.DO NOT use cotton tip applicators (Q-tips) due to the risk of perforating the ear drum or causing trauma to the ear canal. In addition, the use of cotton tip applicators can push debris further into the canal.
Explanation:
Name
momory
1
Section
Date
4 You are riding with an ambulance crew who is called to the scene of a motor vehicle accident caused by texting
while driving. As the paramedics are loading one of the victims into the ambulance, you are asked to describe
his most serious wounds to the emergency department so they can be prepared for his arrival. Describe the
location of his wounds, indicated on Figure 1. 20 by three X marks, using at least three correct regional and
directional terms.
A
C
Х
XB
Based on Figure 1, it appears that the victim has three wounds marked by X's on the body. The wound marked by XA is located on the left side of the head, above the ear. The wound marked by XB is located on the right side of the chest, near the armpit. The wound marked by XC is located on the right leg, near the knee.
Some additional regional and directional terms that could be used to describe the location of these wounds include:
XA: anterior, superior, lateral
XB: posterior, superior, medial
XC: posterior, inferior, medial
Vitamins a and d are unlikely to cause toxicities unless taken in amounts ___________ times greater than the dri.
Base on some findings, it is discovered that vitamins a and d are unlikely to cause toxicities unless taken in amounts 5 to 10 times greater than the RDA.
What are vitamins?Vitamins are organic compounds that are gotten from plants which cannot be synthesized by the body but it is needed in small amount for body growth and wellness.
Vitamin A and D are fat soluble vitamins because they are soluble in organic solvent . The sources include potatoes, milk , spinach, cheese and so on. Vitamin A and D have low toxicities but if it is taken in large quantity greater than the daily requirement can be toxic to human health.
Therefore, fat soluble vitamin A and D can be toxic to human body if it is taken in large amount.
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yes i is going on a trip this
Answer:
I- thanks
Explanation:
The symptoms of drug abuse ...
A. are consistent for all drugs.
B. are the same as for alcohol abuse.
C. will vary from one drug to the next.
Answer:
C i think
Explanation:
The existence of savant syndromes such as calendar calculation, and prodigious drawing or musical ability has been used as evidence to support the idea of ____________.
People with various developmental anomalies, such as autism disorder, such as savant syndrome, demonstrate great talent and ability.
The name "savant," which is French for "knowledgeable person," was derived from the verb savoir, which means "to know," and in 1887, anyone with an IQ below 25 was referred to as poor. Down combined two phrases to create the term "poor savant," which throughout the course of the ensuing century came to be used to describe the condition.
The exceptional abilities linked to acquired savant syndrome usually surface following severe left hemispheric brain injury, most frequently a left anterior right temporal injury. In each and every case of savant syndrome, the right hemisphere compensates for the injured left hemisphere.
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____ is handing over a task to another person
what keeps the particles in a solid in this arrangement
Answer:
The particles of a solid are connected by strong forces, which pull the particles together. Although the particles can vibrate, they cannot move around easily. This arrangement explains why solids usually keep their shape.
Explanation:
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How would a separate procedure be explained if a coder was explaining the meaning of it?
(If that procedure is in the same anatomic area as a more comprehensive procedure.)
Explanation:If a code description includes the term “separate procedure”, if that procedure is in the same anatomic area as a more comprehensive procedure (for example, lyse of adhesions followed by a colectomy) only the more comprehensive procedure, the colectomy, is reported.
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11. Which is not suitable treatment for renal stone?
A. Conservative measures
B. Endourology
C. TURL
D. ESWL
E. Open surgery
12. After which kind of surgery, patient will no longer defecate by his anus?
A. Left hemicolectomy.
B. Dixon.
C. Right hemicolectomy
D. Miles operation
E. Transverse colon resection
13. A male patient,27-years-old,has sudden sharp pain in his upper abdomen for 4 hours. On examination, tenderness, muscular tension, rebound tenderness of the complete abdomen, the bowel sound is absent. The erect abdominal X-ray showed free air under diaphragm. Which is the most possible diagnosis?
A. Acute pancreatitis
B. Acute ileus
C. Gastric perforation
D. Acute cholecystitis
E. Acute appendicitis
14. Emergency treatment for tension pneumothorax should be done is:
A. Thoracocentesis
B. Blocking wound
C. Pneumonectomy
D. Thoracotomy
E. Antibiotics
15. Which of the following statements regarding kidney cancer is uncorrected?
A. The classic clear cell carcinoma accounts for approximately 85% of tumors.
B. CT is the most reliable method for detecting and staging renal cell carcinoma
C. The majority of patients present with the initial triad of hematuria, a palpable mass, and pain.
D. Tumors are radioresistant and unresponsive to traditional forms of chemotherapy
E. The tumor metastasizes commonly to the lungs and adjacent renal hilar lymph nodes.
16. Which examination is not used in diagnosis for urinary stone?
A. Ultrasound
B. KUB
C. CT
D. IVP
E. MRI
17. Of the five cardinal signs for compartment syndrome, the most important is:
A. Pallor
B. Pulselessness
C. Paresthesias
D. Pain
E. Paralysis
18. A 21-years-old patient presents in hospital after injuring her knee in a soccer game. She states that the knee clicks when she walks and has "locked" on several occasions. On examination there is an effusion and the knee is grossly stable. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Anterior cruciate ligament tear
B. Meniscal tear
C. Osteoarthritis
D. Bursitis
E. Medial collateral ligament tear
19. Which of the following is the most common malignant lesion of the bone?
A. Chondroblastoma
B. Fibrosarcoma
C. Ewing’s sarcoma
D. Osteosarcoma
E. Myeloma
20. Which fracture may easily combine injury to brachial artery??
A. Fracture of surgical neck of humerus
B. Fracture of shaft of humerus
C. Intercondylar fracture of humerus
D. Extension type of supracondylar fracture
E. Flexion type supracondylar fracture
11. The answer is E. Open surgery is not a suitable treatment for renal stone.
12. The answer is D. Miles operation is the surgery after which a patient will no longer defecate by his anus.
13. The most possible diagnosis is C. Gastric perforation.
14. The emergency treatment for tension pneumothorax should be A. Thoracocentesis.
15. The uncorrected statement regarding kidney cancer is C. The majority of patients present with the initial triad of hematuria, a palpable mass, and pain.
16. The examination not used in the diagnosis of urinary stone is E. MRI. As all other options (Ultrasound, KUB, CT, and IVP) are used for urinary stone examination.
17. Of the five cardinal signs for compartment syndrome, the most important is D. Pain.
18. The most likely diagnosis for the patient with a clicking knee, effusion, and gross stability is B. Meniscal tear.
19. The most common malignant lesion of the bone is D. Osteosarcoma.
20. The fracture that may easily combine injury to the brachial artery is D. Extension type of supracondylar fracture.
11. Renal stones are commonly treated with various techniques, including conservative measures, endourology, transurethral resection of the bladder (TURL), extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL), and sometimes open surgery. However, open surgery is generally considered a more invasive and less preferred option compared to the other treatment modalities, especially for uncomplicated renal stones.
12. Miles operation is a surgical procedure performed for rectal cancer in which the rectum and anus are removed. As a result, the patient will no longer defecate through the anus and will require a permanent colostomy.
13. The clinical presentation of sudden sharp pain in the upper abdomen, tenderness, muscular tension, rebound tenderness of the complete abdomen, absent bowel sounds, and the presence of free air under the diaphragm on an erect abdominal X-ray strongly suggest gastric perforation. This condition requires prompt surgical intervention to repair the perforation and prevent further complications.
14. In cases of tension pneumothorax, which is a life-threatening condition caused by the buildup of air in the pleural space under pressure, the immediate emergency treatment is thoracocentesis. This procedure involves inserting a needle into the pleural space to remove the trapped air and relieve the pressure on the affected lung.
15. The uncorrected statement is C. The initial triad of hematuria, palpable mass, and pain is not commonly seen in kidney cancer. Instead, kidney cancer often presents with nonspecific symptoms, such as blood in the urine, flank pain, weight loss, and fatigue. Imaging techniques like CT scan are essential for detecting and staging renal cell carcinoma.
16. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is not commonly used in the diagnosis of urinary stones. Instead, ultrasound, kidney-ureter-bladder X-ray (KUB), computed tomography (CT), and intravenous pyelography (IVP) are frequently employed to visualize and assess the presence and characteristics of urinary stones.
MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging) is a medical imaging technique used for diagnosis, monitoring treatment, and research purposes. It provides detailed images of internal structures and organs, particularly soft tissues. MRI is non-invasive and commonly used to detect and evaluate various medical conditions, track disease progression, and study the effectiveness of treatments.
17. Among the five cardinal signs for compartment syndrome, pain is considered the most important indicator. The other signs include pallor, pulselessness, paresthesias (abnormal sensations), and paralysis. However, the presence of severe pain that is disproportionate to the injury is a key symptom indicating the need for urgent intervention to relieve pressure within the affected compartment.
18. The clinical presentation of a clicking knee, effusion, and gross stability suggests a meniscal tear. A meniscal tear is a common knee injury that can cause clicking or locking of the joint during movement. Other symptoms may include pain, swelling, and limited range of motion.
19. Osteosarcoma is the most common malignant lesion of the bone. It primarily affects children and young adults and often arises in the long bones, such as the femur or tibia. Osteosarcoma is an aggressive bone tumor that requires a multidisciplinary approach to treatment, including chemotherapy and surgical resection.
20. The fracture that may easily combine injury to the brachial artery is the extension type of supracondylar fracture. In this type of fracture, the displaced bone fragments can impinge on the brachial artery, causing vascular compromise. Immediate evaluation and management are necessary to prevent complications like compartment syndrome or ischemic injury to the arm.
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Teach a patient some trick on how to cope with early demetia
Answer:
As dementia worsens over time, the person will find it more difficult to focus and struggle to learn new things. Having a routine in place early on helps give them structure that they find familiar. Additional benefits of having a routine that incorporates engaging activities for a loved one with dementia include: Stimulates Cognitive Function, Providing a Source of Focus, Build a Feeling of Productivity.
Try a board game, Test your trivia knowledge, Do a puzzle, Complete the crossword.`
Reilly is a nursing assistant working with Hunter. Reilly didn't get a chance to read Hunter's chart before entering
Hunter's room. Reilly introduces himself and says he is going to take Hunter's vitals. Hunter seems to understand but
is quiet. When Reilly turns away to get equipment, he keeps talking to Hunter to make him comfortable. He notices that
when he turns away from Hunter, Hunter waves his arms until Reilly is speaking directly face-to-face. Reilly looks at
Hunter's chart and brings in an interpreter for sign language. Which kind of communication barrier did Reilly
overcome?
Answer:
A language communication barrier
Explanation:
sign LANGUAGE :D
Damage to the heart valves produces lesions called ___________ that can break off into the bloodstream as ___________, material that travels through the blood.
Damage to the heart valves produces lesions called "vegetations" that can break off into the bloodstream as "emboli," material that travels through the blood.
When heart valves are damaged, such as in infective endocarditis or other conditions affecting the valves, abnormal growths called vegetations can form on the valve surfaces. These vegetations consist of a mixture of fibrin, platelets, bacteria, immune cells, and other debris. Over time, if left untreated, this vegetation can become larger and more friable.
The concern arises when this vegetation breaks off or fragments. These fragments, known as emboli, are then carried by the bloodstream to other parts of the body. Depending on their size and composition, these emboli can obstruct blood vessels in various organs, leading to tissue damage and potentially life-threatening complications.
Damage to heart valves can result in the formation of vegetation, which can break off as emboli and travel through the bloodstream. It is crucial to diagnose and treat valve lesions promptly to prevent the formation of emboli and minimize the risk of complications associated with their migration to vital organs.
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Explain the role of the dental auxiliary during an office emergency?
Please at least 100 words explaining
Emergency Responses. Diagnosis of a specific condition is not your job. As a dental assistant, your responsibility is to recognize the symptoms and signs of a significant medical complaint, communicate this information to the dentist, and then assist with appropriate support and transportation
You need to help the patients.
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what the statements regarding the cell cytotoxicity neutralization assay (ccna) for clostridiodes (formerly clostridium) difficile are correct?
The cell cytotoxicity (CCNA) is a method used to test the ability of a substance to neutralize the cytotoxicity (cell-killing ability) of Clostridiodes difficile toxins.
CCNA is a widely used assay for determining the effectiveness of potential therapeutics against C. difficile infections. The assay typically involves exposing a cell culture to a toxin from C. difficile and then adding a test substance to see if it can neutralize the toxicity of the toxin. The assay is used to test the efficacy of vaccines, antibodies, and other potential therapeutics against C. difficile. The CCNA is a well-established assay that is widely used in research and development of new treatments for C. difficile infections.
The answer is general, as no options are provided and no similar question was found.
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The principle of providing foods in proportion to one another and in proportion to the body’s needs is known as?
The principle of providing foods in proportion to one another and in proportion to the body’s needs is known as diet planning. Diet planning is the process of making a meal plan or daily diet that includes all of the necessary nutrients in the right quantities. It helps in maintaining a healthy weight and preventing various diseases.
Planning a balanced diet is important for overall health, fitness, and well-being. There are different diet plans available depending on one’s goals and requirements. The basic idea behind diet planning is to eat the right amounts of food from different food groups, such as fruits and vegetables, grains, dairy, and protein sources.
This helps in meeting the body’s nutritional requirements and maintaining a healthy weight. The main components of a balanced diet include carbohydrates, protein, fats, vitamins, minerals, and water. Each component plays a crucial role in maintaining good health and preventing various diseases.
A well-balanced diet can help to prevent chronic diseases, such as heart disease, diabetes, and obesity. Hence, it is important to plan a balanced diet that meets the body’s nutritional requirements.
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Trace a drop of CSF from a lateral ventricle to reabsorption at an arachnoid granulation.
Normal route of CSF from production to clearance is the following: From the choroid PLEXUS , the CSF flows to the lateral ventricle, then to the interventricular FORAMEN of Monro, the third ventricle, the cerebral aqueduct of SYLVIUS , the fourth ventricle, the two lateral foramina of Luschka and one MEDIAL foramen.
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Answer:
The choroid plexus of the ventricles (70 percent of the volume) produces the majority of CSF; the choroid plexus of the lateral ventricles produces the rest. The remaining CSF is produced by transependymal flow from the brain to the ventricles.
Short Answer (1-3 sentences): What does the term DALY stand for, and how is it a better measure of disease impact than cause of death?
Answer:
The overall burden of disease is assessed using the disability-adjusted life year (DALY), a time-based measure that combines years of life lost due to premature mortality (YLLs) and years of life lost due to time lived in states of less than full health, or years of healthy life lost due to disability (YLDs).
Explanation:
A doctor diagnoses a patient with a disease called polymyositis. The patient tires quickly when walking, has difficulty swallowing, and struggles to raise his arms above his head. This disease primarily affects which type of tissue?
Polymyositis affects muscle tissue in the patients body
Many of the new atypical antipsychotics are known to cause?
Many of the new atypical antipsychotics are known to cause: C. significant weight gain and metabolic changes.
What is a drug?A drug can be defined as a chemical substance that is typically designed and developed to be ingested by a sick patient, so as to achieve any of the following:
Prevent or mitigate the occurrence of a disease.Treat or cure a disease.Diagnose a disease. Alleviate the symptoms of a disease.Provide sound health and wellness.What is an antipsychotic drug?An antipsychotic drug can be defined as a type of drug that's less likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms (side effects) and has been marketed in the past ten (10) years such as:
Zyprexa (olanzepine)Aripiprazole (Abilify)Lurasidone (Latuda)Cariprazine (Vraylar)Asenapine (Saphris)Clozapine (Clozaril)Based on medical research and records, we can infer and logically deduce that many of the new atypical antipsychotics commonly cause the following
Significant weight gain.Sexual side effects.Metabolic changes.Read more on antipsychotics here: https://brainly.com/question/7638304
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Complete Question:
Many of the new atypical antipsychotics are known to cause?
A. liver disorders
B. manic episodes
C. significant weight gain and metabolic changes
D. very few side effects
Which equation represents a line that is parallel to the line whose equation is 3x − 2y = 7? *
Answer:
\(y = \frac{3}{2}x - 5\)
Explanation:
Given
\(3x - 2y = 7\)
Required
Select the equation of a line, parallel to this
First, we make y the subject:
\(3x - 2y = 7\)
Subtract 3x from both sides
\(3x-3x - 2y = -3x+7\)
\(- 2y = -3x+7\)
Divide through by -2
\(\frac{- 2y}{-2} = \frac{-3x}{-2}+\frac{7}{-2}\)
\(y = \frac{-3x}{-2}+\frac{7}{-2}\)
\(y = \frac{3x}{2}-\frac{7}{2}\)
\(y = \frac{3}{2}x-\frac{7}{2}\)
The general form of an equation is:
\(y = mx + b\)
Where:
\(m = slope\)
So, we have:
\(m = \frac{3}{2}\)
For an equation to be parallel, the slope must also be:
\(m = \frac{3}{2}\)
From the list of given options (see attachment), only
\(y = \frac{3}{2}x - 5\)
has the same slope.
Hence:
\(y = \frac{3}{2}x - 5\) is parallel
5. Wilson discusses identifying problems and questions to help drive scientific research. Think about the health sciences and medicine. What is one problem or question that you would be interested in trying to solve
Answer:
Improving the survival chances of chronic Hepatitis B viral infection carrier and blocking the damages it cause to the liver.
Explanation:
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that affects the liver and it is capable of causing death as sufferer can experience liver cancer at chronic stage.
Hepatitis B is a potentially life-threatening global health problem I would like to solve.
The following steps to conduct a scientific research on the problem are:
1. To make an observation
2. Ask questions
3. Do necessary research to collect valuable information
4. Formulate hypothesis
5. Conduct experiment to test hypothesis
6. Analyze results and get conclusion
7. Publish result