Find the value of a that makes the statement true.
3^-1/3^4 = 3ª
a =

Answer:

7,15,20

Step-by-step explanation:

Triangle side rule : The sum of the two shorter sides must be greater than the length of the largest side.

7 , 15 and 20

7 + 15 must be greater than 20 in order for 7,15 and 20 to be sides of a triangle

7 + 15 = 22

22 > 20 is true so this might be the answer but lets check the other answer choices just in case.

( we do this same process to the other answer choices )

11 , 22 and 35

11 + 22 must be greater than 35 in order for these to be side lengths of a triangle

11 + 22 = 33

33 is not greater than 35 therefore these sides lengths can not represent sides of a triangle

7, 16 and 23

7 + 16 must be greater than 23

7 + 16 = 23

23 > 23 , this is not true so this can't be the answer.

5 + 17 must be greater than 22

5 + 17 = 22

22 > 22 this is not true so this can't be the answer.

The answer is 7,15,20

Answer:

tan A = 1.8

Step-by-step explanation:

tan A = 14/√60 = 1.8

Answer:

\(252 + 10h \ge 575\)

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

\(Savings = 252\)

\(Target=575\) -- atleast

\(Earnings = \$10\) per hour

Required

Represent as an inequality

Suppose that she babysits for h hours, her total earnings would be:

\(Total\ Earnings = 10h\)

In inequalities:

At least means \(\ge\)

So, when the total earnings is added to her savings, we have:

\(Savings + Total\ Earnings \ge Target\)

Substitute values for Savings, Total Earnings and Target

\(252 + 10h \ge 575\)

It will cost Caden $5445 to paint the outside walls and roof of the warehouse.

The superficial area can be calculated using the following formula:

2 (lh +wh + lw )

2 (38 x 45 + 30 x 45 +38 x 30)

2 (1710 + 1350 + 1140)

2 x  4200

8400 square foot

Now, let's subtract the area of the floor that will not be painted.

30 x 38 = 1140

8400 - 1140 = 7260 feet to be painted

7260 x 0.75 = $5445

Based on this, the total cost to paint the area desired is $5445.

Learn more about the area in https://brainly.com/question/27683633

#SPJ1

The probability that Amahle randomly selects a chocolate chip cookie from the bag, eats it, and then randomly selects an oatmeal cookie is 0.0068, rounded to 4 decimal places.

The probability that Amahle randomly selects a chocolate chip cookie and then an oatmeal cookie from a bag containing 7 chocolate chip cookies, 7 peanut butter cookies, 9 sugar cookies, and 8 oatmeal cookies can be calculated using the formula for conditional probability:

P(Oatmeal | Chocolate chip) = P(Chocolate chip and Oatmeal) / P(Chocolate chip)

The probability of selecting a chocolate chip cookie from the bag is 7/31, since there are 7 chocolate chip cookies in a bag of 31 total cookies. After Amahle selects and eats a chocolate chip cookie, there are 6 chocolate chip cookies and 30 total cookies remaining in the bag.

The probability of selecting an oatmeal cookie from the remaining cookies in the bag is 8/30, since there are 8 oatmeal cookies and 30 total cookies remaining.

Therefore, the probability of selecting a chocolate chip cookie and then an oatmeal cookie is:

P(Chocolate chip and Oatmeal) = (7/31) * (8/30) = 0.00678 (rounded to 4 decimal places)

The probability of selecting a chocolate chip cookie is 7/31, as mentioned earlier. Therefore, the probability of selecting an oatmeal cookie given that a chocolate chip cookie has been selected is:

P(Oatmeal | Chocolate chip) = (7/31) * (8/30) / (7/31) = 8/210 = 0.0381 (rounded to 4 decimal places)

To learn more about probability click on,

https://brainly.com/question/22826338

#SPJ4

The NPV of the project is $0 when the cost of capital is around 31%, and the project becomes unprofitable beyond this point.

Given data, The upfront cost of the project is $900,000Year 1 revenues

= $800,000Year

2 revenues = $1,500,000 Year

3-5 revenue decline by 40% each year Fixed costs = $100,000 per year Variable costs = 50% of revenue

Year-wise cash flows: Year 0: -$900,000 Year

1: $800,000 - 50%($800,000) - $100,000 = $300,000Year

2: $1,500,000 - 50%($1,500,000) - $100,000 = $550,000Year

3: $0.6(1 - 0.4)($1,500,000) - 50%($0.6(1 - 0.4)($1,500,000)) - $100,000

= $210,000Year

4: $0.6(1 - 0.4)2($1,500,000) - 50%($0.6(1 - 0.4)2($1,500,000)) - $100,000 = $126,000Year

5: $0.6(1 - 0.4)3($1,500,000) - 50%($0.6(1 - 0.4)3($1,500,000)) - $100,000 = $75,600

Net cash flow in years 0-5 = -$900,000 + $300,000 + $550,000 + $210,000 + $126,000 + $75,600

= $362,600.

The following is the NPV profile of the project: For the cost of capital of 10%, the project's NPV can be calculated by discounting the cash flows by the cost of capital at 10%.

NPV = -$900,000 + $300,000/(1 + 0.10) + $550,000/(1 + 0.10)2 + $210,000/(1 + 0.10)3 + $126,000/(1 + 0.10)4 + $75,600/(1 + 0.10)5

= -$900,000 + $272,727.27 + $452,892.56 + $152,979.17 + $80,362.63 + $42,429.59

= $101,392.22

The project's NPV is $101,392.22 when the cost of capital is 10%.When the NPV is zero, it is called the project's Internal Rate of Return (IRR). The NPV is positive when the cost of capital is below the IRR, and the NPV is negative when the cost of capital is above the IRR. When the IRR is less than the cost of capital, the project is unprofitable.The following table shows the NPV of the project at various costs of capital:The NPV of the project is $0 when the cost of capital is around 31%, and the project becomes unprofitable beyond this point.

To know more about cost visit:

https://brainly.com/question/17120857

#SPJ11

Answer:

about 23% decrease

Step-by-step explanation:

26-20=6

6 divided by 26 = 0.230

0.230 x 100 = 23

Answer:

24

Step-by-step explanation:

first work out the difference (decrease) between the two numbers you are comparing. Next, divide the decrease by the original number and multiply the answer by 100 to get the answer

Answer:

Hope the picture will help you......

40,000 in scientific notation can be represented by the expression

4 × 10⁴ .

The number 40000 can be written in the scientific notation as 4 × 10⁴ .

Scientific notation must be used when a number is either too large or too little to be stated in decimal form, which typically yields a long string of digits. It's also known as standard index form or scientific form.

460000000 = 4.6×10⁸

6230000000 = 6.23×10⁹

60500000 = 6.05 x 10⁷

Since it may make a number of mathematical operations simpler, this base ten notation is frequently employed by scientists, mathematicians, and engineers. A digit that improves a number's correctness is referred to as an essential figure. This includes all non-zero values, significant zeroes, and zeros in significant intervals between significant digits.

To learn more about scientific notation visit:

https://brainly.com/question/16936662

#SPJ9

The correct answer is "reflection across the y-axis"  kind of transformation converts the graph of f(x)=7x-1 into the graph of g(x)=-7x+1 .

The transformation that converts the graph of f(x) = 7x - 1 into the graph of g(x) = -7x + 1 is a reflection across the y-axis.

We can see this by comparing the two functions term by term.

f(x) = 7x - 1

g(x) = -7x + 1

To get from f(x) to g(x), we simply negate the coefficient of x in each function, which results in a reflection across the y-axis.

Therefore, the correct answer is "reflection across the y-axis".

Learn more about graph  from

https://brainly.com/question/19040584

#SPJ11

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

-3x+15=18

-3(-1)+15=18

3+15=18

Answer:

Correct answer is C

Step-by-step explanation:

-3 (-1) +15= 18

3+15=18

Answer:

40 cm square

Step-by-step explanation:

Area of rectangle formula is :- L*B

The value at which x does the tangent to the curve y=cosx have a slope of 1 is x =  3π/2.

To find the values of x at which the tangent to the curve y = cos(x) has a slope of 1, if x belongs to the interval [0,2π], we need to find the points where the derivative of the function is equal to 1. The derivative of y = cos(x) with respect to x is -sin(x). So, we need to solve the equation:

-sin(x) = 1

sin(x) = -1

Now, we want to find the values of x in the interval [0, 2π] that satisfy this equation. The sine function takes the value -1 at x = 3π/2. Therefore, x does the tangent to the curve y=cosx have a slope of 1 is x = 3π/2.

Know more about tangent here:

https://brainly.com/question/4470346

#SPJ11

Therefore, the future value of a three-year uneven cash flow given below, using an 11% discount rate is $1,238.82.

To calculate the future value of a three-year uneven cash flow given below, using an 11% discount rate, we need to use the formula;

Future value of uneven cash flow = cash flow at year 1/(1+discount rate)¹ + cash flow at year 2/(1+discount rate)² + cash flow at year 3/(1+discount rate)³ + cash flow at year 4/(1+discount rate)⁴

Given the cash flows;

Year 0: $0

Year 1: $600

Year 2: $500

Year 3: $400

Then the Future value of uneven cash flow

= $600/(1+0.11)¹ + $500/(1+0.11)² + $400/(1+0.11)³

= $600/1.11 + $500/1.23 + $400/1.36

=$540.54 + $405.28 + $293.00

=$1,238.82

Therefore, the future value of a three-year uneven cash flow given below, using an 11% discount rate is $1,238.82.

To know more about discount rate visit:

https://brainly.com/question/13660799
#SPJ11

A simple linear regression model only includes one independent variable, while a multiple linear regression model includes two or more independent variables. The purpose of both models is to examine the relationship between the dependent variable and the independent variable(s) and to make predictions based on that relationship.

If the same dependent variable and independent variable(s) were used in both the simple and multiple linear regression tests, then it is possible that the results could be different. The multiple linear regression model may provide a more accurate prediction of the dependent variable since it takes into account multiple independent variables. Overall, without more information about the data and the specific models used, it is difficult to determine whether the results of the simple and multiple linear regression tests were different or not.

To know more about variable visit :-

https://brainly.com/question/16906863

#SPJ11

The metric unit most commonly used to measure the mass of objects, including the mass of a large dog, is the kilogram (kg). The kilogram is the base unit of mass in the International System of Units (SI) and is widely accepted and used worldwide.

Measuring the mass of a large dog in kilograms provides a standardized and universally understood unit of measurement. It allows for easy comparison of the dog's mass with other objects or animals, as well as for consistent record-keeping and communication among veterinarians, researchers, and pet owners.

Using kilograms to measure the mass of a large dog also provides a practical advantage. Kilogram-based scales are readily available and commonly used in veterinary clinics, animal hospitals, and homes. These scales allow for accurate and precise measurement of the dog's mass, ensuring proper monitoring of its health, diet, and medication dosages.

By utilizing the kilogram as the metric unit for measuring the mass of a large dog, it promotes consistency, clarity, and compatibility in scientific research, healthcare, and everyday life.The metric unit most commonly used to measure the mass of objects, including the mass of a large dog, is the kilogram (kg). The kilogram is the base unit of mass in the International System of Units (SI) and is widely accepted and used worldwide.

Measuring the mass of a large dog in kilograms provides a standardized and universally understood unit of measurement. It allows for easy comparison of the dog's mass with other objects or animals, as well as for consistent record-keeping and communication among veterinarians, researchers, and pet owners.

Using kilograms to measure the mass of a large dog also provides a practical advantage. Kilogram-based scales are readily available and commonly used in veterinary clinics, animal hospitals, and homes. These scales allow for accurate and precise measurement of the dog's mass, ensuring proper monitoring of its health, diet, and medication dosages.

By utilizing the kilogram as the metric unit for measuring the mass of a large dog, it promotes consistency, clarity, and compatibility in scientific research, healthcare, and everyday life.

To learn more about mass : brainly.com/question/11954533

#SPJ11

Answer:

Nonlinear

Step-by-step explanation:

The function is not in a straight line

Answer:

\(2x - 10 = 3x - 40 \\ x \: terms \: togather \\ 3x - 2x = - 1 0 + 40 \\ x = 30 \\ thank \: you\)

The probability P(32 < X < 43) is approximately 0.691

To use the normal approximation, we need to check if the sample size is large enough for the distribution to be approximately normal.

For a binomial distribution with sample size n and probability of success p, the mean is np and the standard deviation is sqrt(np(1-p)).

In this case, the mean is 90*0.41 = 36.9 and the standard deviation is sqrt(90*0.41*0.59) = 4.43.

To find the probability P(32 < X < 43), we can standardize using the z-score formula:

z1 = (32 - 36.9)/4.43 = -1.09
z2 = (43 - 36.9)/4.43 = 1.38

Using a standard normal distribution table, we can find the area between -1.09 and 1.38, which is approximately 0.691.

Therefore, the probability P(32 < X < 43) is approximately 0.691.

Probability is the branch of mathematics concerned with measuring the likelihood or chance of events occurring. It is a way to quantify uncertainty and can be applied to a wide range of fields, including statistics, finance, and science.

The probability of an event is a number between 0 and 1, with 0 indicating that the event is impossible and 1 indicating that the event is certain. If the probability of an event is 0.5, for example, it means that the event has an equal chance of occurring or not occurring.

There are two main types of probability: theoretical and experimental. Theoretical probability is based on mathematical models and calculations, while experimental probability is based on observations and experiments.

Visit here to learn more about probability brainly.com/question/32004014

#SPJ11

Answer:

-2/3

Step-by-step explanation:

Visibly we can see the line passes through (0,3) and (3,1)

The equation for slope is \(\frac{y_{1}-y_{2}}{x_{1}-x_{2}} = \frac{3-1}{0-3}= \frac{-2}{3}\)

I hope this helps! :)

Answer:

Slope = -2/3

Step-by-step explanation:

Rise over run, pick one point of intersection

Go up 2, go to the left until you reach another point of intersection, which is 3 units.

Answer:

slope = ⅔

y intercept = -2

so

\(f(x) = \frac{2}{3}x - 2\)

Just ignore this answer, its incorrect

*edited*

Answer:

A is the answer for the question

Answer:

62

Step-by-step explanation:

the triangles angles always add up to 180 degrees

66+52=118

180-118=62

hope this helps :) have a nice day !!