How many of these make a semi circle? (view picture) plss fast im being timed)

Please find attached photograph for your answer.

Answer:

15

Step-by-step explanation:

9 times 15+8+37=180

180 is a full line

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\((9s + 8)° + 37° = 180°\)

Because they make straight line.

\(9s + 8 + 37 = 180\)

\(9s + 45 = 180\)

Subtract sides 45

\(9s + 45 - 45 = 180 - 45\)

\(9s = 135\)

Divide sides by 9

\( \frac{9s}{9} = \frac{135}{9} \\ \)

\(s = 15\)

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CHECK :

\(9(15) + 45 = 180\)

\(135 + 45 = 180\)

\(180 = 180\)

Thus the solution is correct .

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Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

1/2 is the same as square root

the square of 8 is 2 root 2

then x squared is 2

and y is 2

16 is to the power of 1/4 is 2

Answer:

x = 18

Step-by-step explanation:

4x+4(x-6)=3(2x+4)

distribute

4x+4x-24=6x+12

combine like terms

8x-24=6x+12

carry across equal sign

2x-24=12

carry across equal sign

2x=36

divide

x=18

Answer:

X = 18

Step-by-step explanation:

4x + 4(x -6) = 3(2x + 4)

4x + 4x -24 = 6x + 12

8x -24 = 6x + 12

    +24         +24

8x = 6x + 36

-6x   -6x

2x = 36

Divide 2x and 36 by 2

X = 18

The RTS of the isoquant is 1000K, indicating the rate at which labor can be substituted for capital while maintaining constant production. The labor to capital cost ratio is 0.5. To minimize the cost of producing q units per hour, the specific value of q is needed to find the optimal combination of K and L along the expansion path, represented by the cost function C(K, L) = 40K + 20L.

The RTS (Rate of Technical Substitution) measures the rate at which one input can be substituted for another while keeping the production level constant. To determine the RTS, we need to calculate the derivative of the production function with respect to L, holding q constant.

Given the production function q = 1000KL, we can differentiate it with respect to L:

d(q)/d(L) = 1000K

Therefore, the RTS of the isoquant for production level q is 1000K.

The ratio of labor to capital cost can be calculated by dividing the labor cost by the capital cost.

Labor cost = $20/hour

Capital cost = $40/machine/hour

Ratio of labor to capital cost = Labor cost / Capital cost

                              = $20/hour / $40/machine/hour

                              = 0.5

The ratio of labor to capital cost is 0.5.

To find the combination of K and L that minimizes the cost of producing q units per hour, we need to set up the cost function and take its derivative with respect to both K and L.

Let C(K, L) be the total cost function.

The cost of capital is $40 per machine per hour, and the cost of labor is $20 per hour. Therefore, the total cost function can be expressed as:

C(K, L) = 40K + 20L

To produce q units per hour at minimal cost, we need to find the values of K and L that minimize the total cost function while satisfying the production constraint q = 1000KL.

The expansion path of the firm represents the combinations of K and L that minimize the cost at different production levels q.

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The value of sample mean for the data is \(\$99.37\)

\(\text{Sample Mean} = \frac{400-350+600+525+450}{5} = \frac{2325}{5} = 465\)

Standard Deviation,

\(S = \sqrt{\frac{1}{n-1} \sum(x - x^-)^2}\)

\(= \sqrt{\frac{1}{5-1} \left[(400-465)^2 + (350-465)^2 + (600-465)^2 + (525-465)^2 + (450-465)^2\right]}\)

\(= \sqrt{\frac{1}{4} (4225+13225+18225+3600+225)}\)

\(= \sqrt{\frac{39500}{4}} = \sqrt{9875} = 99.37\)

\(\therefore x^- = \$465 \text{ and } S = \$99.37\)

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Answer:

see below.

Step-by-step explanation:

letting u = x - 4 means the equation can now be expressed as a quadratic

u² - u - 6 = 0 ← quadratic equation in u

Answer: (D)

Step-by-step explanation:

After 1.842 hours the price of Stock A and Stock B will be the same using a set of linear equations.

A grouping of one or more linear equations containing the same variables is known as a system of linear equations.

For Stock A :

The initial price = $15.03

The rate of increase = $0.05

For Stock B :

The rate of decrease = $15.53

The rate of decrease per hour = $0.13

Then the price of stock A at noon will be:

$ 15.03 + $ (0.05 × 3) = $ 15.03 + $ 0.15 = $15.18

The period of time during which the stock price will remain constant:

15.18 + 0.05t = 15.53 - 0.14t

Simplifying the terms we get,

0.05t + 0.14t = 15.53 - 15.18

0.19t = 0.35

t = (0.35 ÷ 0.19) hours

t = 1.842 hours

Therefore, the stocks will be of equal price after 1.842 hours.

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Answer:

The interest for the two years is 144.

Step-by-step explanation:

Hallar the interest produced by a capital of /240 to an annual interest rate of 30% provided for a period of 2 years

Principal, P = 240

Interest, R = 30 %

Time, t = 2 years

The simple interest is given by

\(I = \frac{P\times R\times T}{100}\\\\I = \frac{240\times 30\times 2}{100}\\\\I = 144\)

Answer:

sample answer for edmentum

Step-by-step explanation:

Improper integral converges and its value is 2.

We can use the integration by parts formula:

∫u dv = uv - ∫v du

where u = x^2 and dv = e^(-x) dx. Then we have

∫\(x^2 e^{-x} dx = -x^2 e^{-x} - 2x e^{-x} - 2 e^{-x} + C\)

To evaluate the integral from 0 to infinity, we take the limit as b approaches infinity of the definite integral from 0 to b:

∫_0^∞ \(x^2 e^{-x}\) dx = lim┬(b→∞)⁡〖∫_\(0^b x^2 e^{-x} dx\)〗

= lim┬(b→∞)\([-b^2 e^{-b} - 2b e^{-b} - 2 e^{-b} + 2]\)

Since \(e^{-b}\) approaches 0 as b approaches infinity, we have

lim┬(b→∞)⁡\([-b^2 e^{-b} - 2b e^{-b} - 2 e^{-b} + 2] = 2\)

Therefore, the improper integral converges and its value is 2.

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The ratio by mass of copper to zinc in the alloy is 3:1.

To find the ratio by mass of copper to zinc in the alloy, we need to first calculate the total mass of the alloy. We can do this by adding the mass of copper and zinc:

Total mass of alloy = 13.5 g + 4.5 g = 18 g

Now we can find the ratio of copper to zinc by dividing the mass of copper by the mass of zinc:

Ratio of copper to zinc = 13.5 g / 4.5 g = 3:1

Therefore, the ratio by mass of copper to zinc in the alloy is 3:1.

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The weight of an object is given by the formula weight = mass * gravity, where gravity is approximately 9.8 m/\(s^2\). So, in this case, the weight of the object is 10 kg * 9.8 m/\(s^2\) = 98 N.

Since the displacement of the object from its equilibrium position is 9.8 cm = 0.098 m, we can set up the equation:

98 N = K * 0.098 m

Solving for K, we find:

K = 98 N / 0.098 m = 1000 N/m

Now, let's formulate the initial value problem for y(t). The displacement of the object from its equilibrium position is denoted by y(t), and we need to find the equation involving y(t), its first derivative y'(t), its second derivative y''(t), and time t.

Using Newton's second law, the sum of the forces acting on the object is equal to the mass of the object times its acceleration. The forces acting on the object are the force exerted by the spring, given by -K * y(t), and the force F(t) given in the problem. So, we have:

m * y''(t) = -K * y(t) + F(t)

Substituting the values for m and K, we have:

10 kg * y''(t) = -1000 N/m * y(t) + 70 N * cos(8t)

This is the initial value problem for y(t).

To solve the initial value problem for y(t), we need to find the equation of motion for y(t). This is a second-order linear non-homogeneous differential equation. The general solution to this type of equation is a sum of the complementary solution (the solution to the homogeneous equation) and a particular solution (any solution that satisfies the non-homogeneous part).

The complementary solution is found by setting F(t) to zero:

10 kg * y''(t) = -1000 N/m * y(t)

The characteristic equation for this homogeneous equation is:

10\(r^2\) + 1000 = 0

Solving for r, we find r = ±sqrt(-100) = ±10i

So, the complementary solution is:

y_c(t) = c1 * cos(10t) + c2 * sin(10t)

Now, we need to find a particular solution. In this case, since F(t) is of the form A * cos(8t), a particular solution can be assumed to be of the form:

y_p(t) = A * cos(8t)

Substituting this into the differential equation, we get:

-1000 N/m * (A * cos(8t)) = 70 N * cos(8t)

Simplifying, we find A = -0.07 m.

Therefore, the particular solution is:

y_p(t) = -0.07 * cos(8t)

The general solution is the sum of the complementary and particular solutions:

y(t) = y_c(t) + y_p(t)

     = c1 * cos(10t) + c2 * sin(10t) - 0.07 * cos(8t)

To determine the maximum excursion from equilibrium made by the object, we need to find the maximum value of |y(t)|.

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The amount of yellow paint Curt and Melanie should use is 0.45 quarts so that they can make 1.5 quarts bucket of seafoam green paint.We can use per cent equation.

Given that to make 1.5 quarts bucket of seafoam green paint Curt and Melanie have to mix 70 parts blue paint and 30 parts yellow paint.If 100 percent represent total paint then for 1.5 quarts we have to find the proportion of yellow paint.Let it be x.

30%  / 100% =30 / 100 = x / 1.5 quarts.

We can reduce the equation further,

0.3  = x / 1.5.

0.3 * 1.5 = x

x = 0.45

We can also find blue paint proportion similar by substituting 30 per cent to 70 per cent.

As a result of our calculation, we found the amount of yellow paint to be 0.45 quarts.

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Minimization of  f(x) = |x+3| + x^3 at the endpoints (-2 and 6)  the minimum value of the function is approximately 3.84, which occurs at x= \sqrt{1/3}

within the given interval.

To minimize the function subject to the constraint f(x) = |x+3| + x^3 that x lies in the interval [-2, 6], we need to find the value of x that minimizes f(x) within that interval.

First, let's analyze the function f(x). The absolute value term |x+3| can be rewritten as:

|x+3| =

x+3 if x+3 >= 0

-(x+3) if x+3 < 0

Since the interval [-2, 6] includes both positive and negative values of x+3, we need to consider both cases.

Case 1: x+3 >= 0

In this case, f(x) = (x+3) + x^3 = 2x + x^3 + 3

Case 2: x+3 < 0

In this case, f(x) = -(x+3) + x^3 = -2x + x^3 - 3

Now, we can find the minimum of f(x) within the given interval by evaluating the function at the endpoints (-2 and 6) and at any critical points within the interval.

Calculating the values of f(x) at x = -2, 6, and the critical points, we can determine the minimum value of f(x) and the corresponding value of x.

Since the equation involves both absolute value and a cubic term, it is not possible to find a closed-form solution or an exact minimum value without numerical methods or approximation techniques.

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The amount required to endow the scholarship would still be approximately $71,428.57.

To calculate the amount needed to endow a scholarship that pays $5,000 per year forever, starting one year from now, we can use the concept of perpetuity and the formula for present value. The amount required to endow the scholarship can be calculated as follows:

Amount needed = Annual payment / Discount rate

Using the given values, the amount needed to endow the scholarship is:

Amount needed = $5,000 / 0.07 = $71,428.57

Therefore, you would need to donate approximately $71,428.57 to endow the scholarship.

If the scholarship makes the first award to a student 10 years from today, the calculation would be different. In this case, we need to account for the time value of money and discount the future payments to their present value. We can use the formula for the present value of an annuity to calculate the amount needed to endow the scholarship:

Present value = Annual payment / (Discount rate - Growth rate)

Assuming there is no growth rate mentioned, we can use the same discount rate of 7% for simplicity. The amount needed to endow the scholarship, in this case, would be:

Present value = $5,000 / (0.07 - 0) = $71,428.57

Even though the first award is made 10 years from today, the present value remains the same. This is because the discount rate is equal to the growth rate (0% in this case). Therefore, the amount required to endow the scholarship would still be approximately $71,428.57.

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The coefficient of variation of (X+Y) is 5. The correct answer is (C) 5/2.

To calculate the coefficient of variation of (X+Y), we first need to understand that the coefficient of variation (CV) is calculated as the ratio of the standard deviation to the mean, expressed as a percentage.

Given that X and Y have the same mean, let's denote it as μ.

The coefficient of variation (CV) of X is 3, which means the standard deviation of X is 3 times the mean:

σ(X) = 3μ

Similarly, the coefficient of variation (CV) of Y is 4, which means the standard deviation of Y is 4 times the mean:

σ(Y) = 4μ

Now, let's consider the random variable (X+Y) and calculate its coefficient of variation.

The mean of (X+Y) is the sum of the means of X and Y:

μ(X+Y) = μ + μ = 2μ

To calculate the standard deviation of (X+Y), we need to consider the variances of X and Y. Since X and Y are independent random variables, the variance of their sum is the sum of their variances:

Var(X+Y) = Var(X) + Var(Y)

The variance of X is calculated as the square of the standard deviation:

Var(X) = (σ(X))^2 = (3μ)^2 = 9μ^2

The variance of Y is calculated as the square of the standard deviation:

Var(Y) = (σ(Y))^2 = (4μ)^2 = 16μ^2

Substituting these values, we have:

Var(X+Y) = 9μ^2 + 16μ^2 = 25μ^2

The standard deviation of (X+Y) is the square root of the variance:

σ(X+Y) = √(Var(X+Y)) = √(25μ^2) = 5μ

Finally, we can calculate the coefficient of variation (CV) of (X+Y) by dividing the standard deviation by the mean:

CV(X+Y) = (σ(X+Y))/μ = (5μ)/μ = 5

Therefore, the coefficient of variation of (X+Y) is 5.

The correct answer is (C) 5/2.

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Answer:

4n^2

Step-by-step explanation:

My calculator said that is the answer !

Answer:

sometimes

Step-by-step explanation:

greetings that person is wrong the answer is always

Answer:

4x + (-2) = -2x + 6

Step-by-step explanation:

green x represents positive x and red x represents negative

and the same thing for ones but yellow is positive

Answer:

4x + (-2) = -2x + 6

Step-by-step explanation:

green x represents positive x and red x represents negative

and the same thing for ones but yellow is positive

if i helped can i havae brainllest ❤️

Answer:

13866.66

Step-by-step explanation:

you divide

Brainliest please

Answer:

The two values of x are 20 and 60

Step-by-step explanation:

Given;

cost function: C = 60x + 300

revenue function: R = 100x − 0.5x²

Profit = R - C

300 = 100x − 0.5x² - ( 60x + 300)

300 =  100x − 0.5x² - 60x - 300

300 + 300 = 100x − 0.5x² - 60x

600 = 40x - 0.5x²

600 = 40x  - ¹/₂x²

multiply both sides by 2

1200 = 80x - x²

re-write the equation

80x - x² = 1200

-x² + 80x - 1200 = 0

multiply through by (-1)

x² - 80x + 1200 = 0

factorize the quadratic equation

x² (- 60x - 20x) + 1200 = 0

x² - 60x - 20x + 1200 = 0

x(x - 60) -20(x - 60) = 0

(x - 20)(x - 60) = 0

x - 20 = 0      or x - 60 = 0

x = 20   or   60

Therefore, the two values of x are 20 and 60

The values of x that would give a profit of $300 is 20 and 60.

Revenue is the total amount of money that can be made from selling x items while cost is the amount of money used to produce x items.

Profit is the difference between revenue and cost. Profit is given by:

Profit = Revenue - Cost

Since Cost C = 60x + 300, Revenue R = 100x − 0.5x², hence:

Profit = Revenue - Cost

Profit = 100x − 0.5x² - (60x + 300)

Profit = 40x - 0.5x² - 300

For a profit of $300:

300 = 40x - 0.5x² - 300

0.5x² - 40x + 600 = 0

x = 20 and x = 60

Hence the values of x that would give a profit of $300 is 20 and 60.

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Mark has 35 unique combinations to choose from, so can he co go 5 weeks with this set of clothes

Number of pants in Mark's closet = 5

Number of shirts in Mark's closet = 7

Combinations are ways to choose elements from a collection in mathematics where the order of the selection is irrelevant. Let's say we have a trio of numbers: P, Q, and R. Then, combination determines how many ways we can choose two numbers from each group.

He can choose amongst the pants in 5 ways, similarly, he can choose among the shirts in 7 ways

Total number of combinations = 5*7 = 35 unique combinations

So, if he wears one combination each day he can last 35 days or 5 weeks, without buying new clothes

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The probability that Blaine earns more than $10,100 in 50 days is approximately:

P(X > $10,100) ≈ 1 - 0.7136 ≈ 0.2864 or 28.64%.

To calculate the probability that Blaine earns more than $10,100 after 50 days, we need to use the Central Limit Theorem, assuming that Blaine's daily earnings follow a normal distribution.

The Central Limit Theorem states that the sum or average of a large number of independent and identically distributed random variables tends to follow a normal distribution, regardless of the shape of the original distribution.

Given that Blaine's average earnings per day is $200 with a standard deviation of $25, we can calculate the mean and standard deviation for the sum of his earnings over 50 days:

Mean of 50-day earnings = 50 * $200 = $10,000

Standard deviation of 50-day earnings = √(50) * $25 ≈ $176.78

Now, we want to find the probability that Blaine earns more than $10,100 in 50 days. We can convert this into a standard normal distribution by standardizing the value using the z-score formula:

z = (x - μ) / σ

Where:

x is the value we want to standardize (in this case, $10,100)

μ is the mean of the distribution (in this case, $10,000)

σ is the standard deviation of the distribution (in this case, approximately $176.78)

z = ($10,100 - $10,000) / $176.78 ≈ 0.564

Next, we can use a standard normal distribution table or a calculator to find the probability associated with the z-score of 0.564. The probability of earning more than $10,100 can be calculated as:

P(X > $10,100) = 1 - P(X ≤ $10,100)

= 1 - P(Z ≤ 0.564)

Using a standard normal distribution table or a calculator, we can find that P(Z ≤ 0.564) is approximately 0.7136.

Therefore, the probability that Blaine earns more than $10,100 in 50 days is approximately:

P(X > $10,100) ≈ 1 - 0.7136 ≈ 0.2864 or 28.64%.

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Answer:

SA = 94 ft²

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the surface area of a rectangular prism, you can use the equation:

SA = 2 ( wl + hl + hw )

SA = surface area of rectangular prism

l = length

w = width

h = height

In the image, we are given the following information:

l = 4

w = 5

h = 3

Now, let's plug in the information given to us to solve for surface area:

SA = 2 ( wl + hl + hw)

SA = 2 ( 5(4) + 3(4) + 3(5) )

SA = 2 ( 20 + 12 + 15 )

SA = 2 ( 47 )

SA = 94 ft²

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Answer:

B. 7 + (y · 5) and 7 + (5 · y)

Step-by-step explanation:

Multiplication has the commutative property which means the result is the same no matter what way round the numbers are, e.g. 4 × 3 is the same as 3 × 4. In both expressions 5 and y is in brackets and the results of both brackets are 5y. Both expressions are equal to 7 + 5y therefore they are equivalent.

Hope this helps!

Answer:

B- 7+(y*5) and 7+(5*y)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

(2 , 1)  ; ( 3 , 2)

\(Slope =\dfrac{y_{2}-y_{1}}{x_{2}-x_{1}}\\\\=\dfrac{2-1}{3-2} =\dfrac{1}{1}\\\\=1\)

Equation of line: y = mx +b

y = 1x + b

Plugin x = 2 and y = 1 in the above equation

1 = 2 + b

1- 2 = b

b = -1

y = 1x - 1