Answer:
Because of the state of the liver
Explanation:
your liver is made to brake down things like alcohol and sugar. so if the liver has damage it causes a person to take lower doses because it can do as much. its the same for the kidney but that organ involves blood.
electroconvulsive therapy, deep brain stimulation, and the use of antidepressants are all forms of
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), deep brain stimulation (DBS), and the use of antidepressants are all forms of treatment for mental health conditions, particularly depression.
ECT involves the administration of controlled electric currents to induce a seizure, which can help alleviate symptoms of severe depression. DBS involves the surgical implantation of electrodes in specific brain regions to modulate abnormal brain activity and improve mood. Antidepressants are medications that work by altering the levels of neurotransmitters in the brain to relieve symptoms of depression. These treatment modalities aim to target and regulate brain activity and chemistry to alleviate depressive symptoms and improve the overall well-being of individuals.
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Determine how violating health regulations and laws regarding technology could impact the finances of the institution if these violations are not addressed. Be sure to support your response with examples.
Explanation:
Health rules and legislation covering the usage of technology, such as the use of EHRs, i.e. Infringement of health and safety regulations and software laws influences patient network security, as manually managed data is interesting to perform with, more vulnerable to fraud, faults, destruction, mistakes, and is often difficult to store. Infringement of health and safety regulations and technology laws affects patient network security.
Hose handwritten records are often vulnerable to fraud, since they are only a hard disk, while if those documents are stored in EHRs software, the person trying to unlawfully access the records of any other patient would need the login information of the institution's appropriate quantity, that is much harder to do.
Diagram of how insulin can help treat diabetes
I have attached the diagram below. I hope this helps you!
Dr. Sheffield has decided to test the discriminant validity of his new measure. He has a group of first-time Gamblers Anonymous (GA) attendants complete his measure and finds that they score higher than a group of people who do not attend the group. Which of the following results would provide evidence for discriminant validity?
Discriminant validity is a measure of how well a test is able to differentiate between two or more groups of people.
In Dr. Sheffield's example, if the group of first-time GA attendants score significantly higher than the group who do not attend the group, this provides evidence for discriminant validity of his new measure.
This result would suggest that the measure is able to accurately differentiate between the two groups, indicating that it is measuring something distinct in each group.
This would indicate that the measure is valid and is accurately assessing the differences between the two groups. Thus, finding a significant difference between the two groups would provide evidence for discriminant validity of the new measure.
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There are a lot of "fad" diets circulating. Select a "fad" diet and explain how the digestive system has to adapt to the new diet and what happens when/if the person goes back to eating their "normal" way.
which priority action will the nurse perform in the postoperative period for a patient with severe copd who has undergone lung reduction surgery
After a patient with severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) undergoes lung reduction surgery, The nurse's priority action during the postoperative period for a patient with severe COPD who has undergone lung reduction surgery is to maintain respiratory function and manage any potential respiratory complications.
Lung reduction surgery is a surgical procedure used to treat severe emphysema by removing the most damaged parts of the lungs to improve breathing and lung function. Patients who have undergone this procedure require vigilant monitoring of their respiratory status during the postoperative period.Respiratory complications, such as atelectasis, hypoxemia, and respiratory failure, are common in patients with severe COPD who have undergone lung reduction surgery. Hence, the nurse's priority action during the postoperative period is to observe and manage the patient's respiratory function and to treat any potential respiratory complications that may arise.
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The nurse reviews the electrolyte results of an assigned client and notes that the potassium level is 5.7. Which finding would the nurse expect to note on the ECG as a result of the lab value?
ST depression
Inverted T wave
Prominent U wave
Tall peaked T waves
Answer:
Tall peaked T waves
Explanation:
Hyperkalemia may result in ECG changes, including peaked T wave, flattened P wave, prolonged PR interval, ST depression, and prolonged QRS duration. Since hypokalemia also causes ST depression, we can eliminate it as well.
discuss why it is considered a right of all people to be in a healthy and safe environment
(Australia)
Explanation:
it is right of every living being (organism) to survive.
So, health is absolutely related to the survival. Hope you got the answer!
Answer:
Everyone has the right to stay in a safe and healthy environment because it will help us to stay away from diseases and it will improve our health.If we stay in a dirty environment instead then people will become sick and feel dirty so staying a safe and healthy environment helps a lot.....Thank you for the question
which of the following is true regarding anterior putuitary glands?
A.it releases hormones made by neuron in the hypothalamus
B.it does not have cell that can produce hormones
C.it is often referred as the "máster gland" of the endocrine system
D.is is not truly part of the endocrine system because it is regulated by the hypothalamus
Answer:
With respect to the anterior pituitary gland, it is true that it is often referred as the "master gland" of the endocrine system (option C).
Explanation:
The pituitary gland —also called hypophysis— divided into two parts, an anterior part called the adenohypophysis and a posterior part called the neurohypophysis.
The adenohypophysis or anterior pituitary gland is in charge of the secretion of hormones that serve to regulate the hormonal secretion of other glands, such as the thyroid, the suprarenal glands and the gonads. This is the reason why it is considered and often referred as the "master gland" of the endocrine system.
The neurohypophysis depends on the control of the hypothalamus and the neurotransmitters that this structure sends to the pituitary, releasing hormones whose effect is direct on the target organ.
The other options are not correct because:
A. Anterior pituitary does not release hormones made by the neurons in the hypothalamus.
B. Adenohypophysis has hormone-producing cells.
D. The anterior pituitary is not regulated by the hypothalamus and is considered part of the endocrine system.
120 tablets with directions to take two tablets twice a day. What is the day supply?
Answer:
30
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What is tris lysis buffer
Answer:
Tris, or tris(hydroxymethyl) aminomethane, is a common biological buffer, used throughout the DNA extraction process. During extraction from any number of sources, DNA is pH sensitive. During cell lysis, removal of unwanted cellular components and precipitation, tris is used to maintain a stable pH
Brent has been in a coma for three weeks. A doctor wanted to try a new drug to try and bring him out of the coma.
When Brent was given the drugs, he woke up front his coma. Which best describes what happened to Brent?
He experienced a positive incident.
He experienced a negative incident.
He experienced a positive accident.
He experienced a negative accident.
which class of drugs reduces pain
A nurse is conducting a home visit with an older adult client. Which of the following observations should the nurse address to promote a safe environment?
To promote a safe environment during a home visit with an older adult client, the nurse should address the following observations:
Clutter and trip hazards, Lighting, Handrails and grab bars, Non-slip surfaces, Emergency response system
1. Clutter and trip hazards: Ensure that walkways are clear of clutter and any potential trip hazards, such as loose rugs, electrical cords, or furniture.
2. Lighting: Check that there is adequate lighting in all areas of the home, especially in hallways and stairways, to help prevent falls.
3. Handrails and grab bars: Verify that there are handrails in place along stairways and grab bars in the bathroom to assist with balance and prevent falls.
4. Non-slip surfaces: Ensure that there are non-slip surfaces in the bathroom, such as non-slip bath mats or adhesive strips in the bathtub or shower.
5. Emergency response system: Assess if the older adult has access to an emergency response system or a way to call for help in case of an emergency.
By addressing these observations, the nurse can help create a safer environment for the older adult client during their home visit.
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has there been medicine to cure types of cancer?
15 points
Answer: Yes there has been experimental drugs to help cure cancer.
Explanation:
what cervical change should a nurse recognize as indicating that a woman has delivered a fetus vaginally?
The slit-like appearance that nurses recognise as showing that a woman has birthed a fetus mother to child should change.
What is cervical problem?The degradation of the neck's bones and disks is known as cervical spondylosis. Disc herniation disks and heel spurs are just two issues this condition can cause. The components that constitute the spine and neck increasingly deteriorate with aging. These alterations could involve: Dried-up disks.
Why is neck called cervical?In the human body, the term "cervical" has several meanings. The Latin word "cervix," which meaning "neck," is the source of the English word "cervix." Because of this, the term "cervical" does not only refer to the neck but to numerous other places where tissues constrict to form a neck-like channel.
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An adolescent client has been diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. which intervention should be included in the client's plan of care?
Each agency must report yearly to the OMB on its FISMA compliance activities. An agency also must send a copy of their yearly report to each of these agencies with the exception of:______.
Answer:
Details about actual IT system.
Explanation:
The FISMA compliance report is widely shared. It is agreed not to report accurate details of IT system as these report may be used by criminals and they can learn about the system weaknesses by reading the report. The OMB has said that agencies should not include excessive information about their IT systems. Some agencies may have IG who reviews the information about the controls and carryout his evaluations to make controls better.
Describe the deductible, coinsurance, and copayment requirements for an HMO plan.
Answer:
A deductible is the amount you pay for health care services before your health insurance begins to pay. The deductible in the HMO Plan will pay the full charges once you have reached the total deductible. You will start paying less, with a copay or coinsurance, depending on the selected plan. When the limit is reached, you share the cost with your plan by paying coinsurance.
Coinsurance is a percentage of a medical charge that you pay, with the rest paid by your health insurance plan, that typically applies after your deductible has been met. Let's say your health insurance plan's allowed amount for an office visit is $50 and your coinsurance is 20%. All you have to pay is the 20% and your coinsurance will pay the rest.
A health insurance copayment is a fixed amount a healthcare beneficiary pays for covered medical services. The rest of the balance is paid for by the person's insurance company. Copays for standard doctor visits are typically lower than those for specialists.
One of the ways you can keep yourself healthy is to take preventions
against getting a foodborne illness. Approximately how many people go to
the hospital for food poisoning each year?
100,000
1,000
10,000
1,000,000
Answer:
Answer will be A
Where do you think, the line is drawn to determine whether a person has consciousness?
Answer:
Resonance in the case of the human brain generally means shared electric field oscillation rates, such as gamma band synchrony (40-120 Hertz). Our consciousness-ometer would then look at the degree of shared resonance and resulting information flows as the measure of consciousness.
Explanation:
An absence of contractions of the heart is called
Answer:
What is 'Asystole'
Explanation:
Asystole is the absence of contractions of the heart.
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neurological symptoms, including peripheral neuropathy, are associated with a deficiency of which of the following?
Neurological symptoms and peripheral neuropathy, associated with deficiency of vitamin B6
What is peripheral neuropathy?Peripheral neuropathy is a disease resulting from damage to the peripheral nervous system. This damage causes disruption of the function of the peripheral nerves in sending signals from the organs to the brain or vice versa.
The peripheral nervous system functions to transmit physical sensations from all organs of the body to the brain. Peripheral nerves also transmit commands from the brain to carry out certain functions, such as moving the body, sweating, increasing heart rate, and regulating blood pressure.
Peripheral neuropathy can be prevented by living a healthy lifestyle, such as: Eating nutrient-rich foods, such as fruit, vegetables, and sources of lean protein, and meeting the needs of vitamins B1, vitamin B 6, and vitamin B12.
This question is incomplete. The complete question is as follows:
Neurological symptoms, including peripheral neuropathy, are associated with a deficiency of which of the following?
Vitamin B6Vitamin CVitamin DLearn more about neurological symptoms here :
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What are the possible consequences of maintaining the ban on asbestos?
what is true about scientific rigor in qualitative nursing research?
Scientific rigor in qualitative nursing research is essential for ensuring credibility and trustworthiness of the findings.
How to find the significance of scientific rigor in qualitative nursing research?Scientific rigor refers to the meticulousness and robustness with which qualitative nursing research is conducted.
It involves adhering to rigorous methods, ensuring transparency, and maintaining high standards of quality throughout the research process.
Scientific rigor is vital for establishing the credibility, transferability, dependability, and confirmability of the research findings.
Scientific rigor in qualitative nursing research is achieved through strategies like careful participant selection, rigorous data collection methods (e.g., interviews, observations), and systematic data analysis techniques (e.g., thematic analysis, grounded theory).
Maintaining reflexivity and ensuring trustworthiness through member checking, peer debriefing, and prolonged engagement further enhance the rigor of the research.
By adhering to scientific rigor, qualitative nursing research can generate rich, nuanced, and contextually grounded insights into the experiences, perceptions, and meanings attributed to health and healthcare.
It enhances the credibility and trustworthiness of the research findings, ensuring that the results accurately represent the participants' perspectives and contribute to the body of nursing knowledge.
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Health System Management
Answer:
i think this should be the answer.
Every health care facility or organization relies on its technological systems to be organized. With the hard work of health information managers and administrators who can access and decipher health information effectively, decision makers in the health care environments are able to make clear, accurate decisions based on current data. This health administration post-graduate program will prepare you for an exciting career in the field of health information and e-health digital
How does a well impelled safety and health program affect employee retention
Answer:
It increases retention rates.
A surgical technology student is being supervised by the CST preceptor during a Whipple procedure. The CST comments that the student will have learned several procedures by the time they are done with this case.
Discuss the different instrument trays that will be used for this case.
The Whipple procedure, also known as pancreaticoduodenectomy, is a complex surgical procedure that involves the removal of a portion of the pancreas, small intestine, gallbladder, and bile duct.
What happen Whipple procedure?During this procedure, various instrument trays are used to facilitate the surgical process.
The following are the different instrument trays that will be used for this case:
General surgical tray: This tray contains instruments that are used for general surgical procedures, such as scalpels, scissors, forceps, and retractors. These instruments will be used to make incisions, hold and manipulate tissues, and create access to the surgical site.
Biliary tray: This tray contains instruments that are used to access and manipulate the bile duct, such as cholangiogram catheters, biliary probes, and duct dilators. These instruments will be used to visualize and manipulate the bile duct during the procedure.
Pancreatic tray: This tray contains instruments that are used to access and manipulate the pancreas, such as pancreatic clamps, scissors, and forceps. These instruments will be used to isolate and manipulate the pancreatic tissue during the procedure.
Vascular tray: This tray contains instruments that are used to access and manipulate the blood vessels, such as vascular clamps, scissors, and forceps. These instruments will be used to isolate and manipulate the blood vessels during the procedure.
Gastrointestinal tray: This tray contains instruments that are used to access and manipulate the gastrointestinal tract, such as gastrointestinal staplers, anastomosis instruments, and suture materials. These instruments will be used to create an anastomosis between the remaining pancreas, small intestine, and bile duct.
Each of these instrument trays plays a critical role in facilitating the surgical procedure and ensuring a successful outcome. It is essential that the surgical technology student understands the purpose and use of each instrument to assist the CST preceptor in providing high-quality patient care.
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What is the only disease to be eradicated worldwide.
The only disease that has been eradicated worldwide is smallpox. Smallpox is the only disease that has been eradicated worldwide.
It was eradicated in 1980 after a massive vaccination campaign that was carried out across the globe. Smallpox is a contagious viral disease that is characterized by fever and a severe rash. It spreads from one person to another through respiratory droplets, saliva, or direct contact with the lesions of an infected person.
Smallpox is known to have killed millions of people worldwide before it was eradicated. In 1967, the World Health Organization (WHO) launched a global campaign to eradicate smallpox. This campaign involved vaccination programs that targeted people in areas where the disease was endemic. The vaccination campaign was successful, and by 1977, the last natural case of smallpox was reported in Somalia.
In 1980, the WHO declared that smallpox had been eradicated worldwide. This was a major achievement in the history of public health. Since then, no cases of smallpox have been reported anywhere in the world.
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A nurse is caring for a client undergoing ECT and will receive succinicholine. the client asks the nurse about the medication. Which of the following responses should the nurse make.
You have not written the respones