In the condenser of a power plant, energy is discharged by heat transfer at a rate of 1200 MW to cooling water that exits the condenser at 45°C into a cooling tower. Cooled water at 20°C is returned to the condenser. Atmospheric air enters the tower at 20°C, 1 atm, 50% relative humidity. Moist air exits at 40°C, 1 atm, 90% relative humidity. Makeup water is supplied at 15°C. Ignore kinetic and potential energy effects. For operation at steady state, determine: (a) the volumetric flow rate of atmospheric air entering, in m3/sec. (b) the mass flow rate of makeup water, in kg/sec. (c) the dew point of air exiting the cooling tower.
Answers
a) the volumetric flow rate of atmospheric air entering the cooling tower is 63.29 m³/sec.
b) the mass flow rate of makeup water is 47937.5 kg/sec.
c) the dew point of air exiting the cooling tower is 25.9°C.
(a) The volumetric flow rate of atmospheric air entering, V1 = ?
Density of atmospheric air at the entering condition, ρ3 = 1.184 kg/m³
The volumetric flow rate of atmospheric air entering the cooling tower can be determined using the formula:
V₁ = Q / (ρ₃ × Cp × (t₄ - t₃))
Where, Cp is the specific heat of air at constant pressure = 1005 J/kg K
Substituting the values in the above equation:
V₁ = 1200 × 10^6 / (1.184 × 1005 × (40 - 20)) = 63.29 m³/sec
Thus, the volumetric flow rate of atmospheric air entering the cooling tower is 63.29 m³/sec.
(b) The mass flow rate of makeup water, m5 = ?The cooling water returning to the condenser is at a temperature of 20°C.
Assuming no heat losses, the energy transferred from the condenser to the cooling water is equal to the energy taken up by the air-water mixture entering the tower.
Therefore, the energy balance equation becomes:
Q = mₐ × Cpₐ × (t₄ - t₃) + mₕ × Cpₕ × (t₅ - t₄)
Where, mₐ is the mass flow rate of atmospheric air, mₕ is the mass flow rate of water, and Cpₐ and Cpₕ are the specific heats of air and water, respectively.
Rearranging the equation we get,
mₕ = (Q - mₐ × Cpₐ × (t₄ - t₃)) / (Cpₕ × (t₅ - t₄))
Substituting the values in the above equation:
mₕ = (1200 × 10^6 - 63.29 × 1.184 × 1005 × (40 - 20)) / (4.18 × (20 - 15)) = 47937.5 kg/sec
Thus, the mass flow rate of makeup water is 47937.5 kg/sec.
(c) The dew point of air exiting the cooling tower, tdp = ?
To calculate the dew point temperature, we need to calculate the partial pressure of water vapor in the air mixture at the exit condition.
Using the formula for the saturation pressure of water vapor:
pₛ = exp(77.3450 + 0.0057T - 7235 / T)
where T is the temperature in K (Kelvin)
At the inlet condition:
ps3 = exp(77.3450 + 0.0057(20 + 273) - 7235 / (20 + 273))= 2.339 kPa
At the exit condition:
ps4 = φ4 × ps4 = 0.9 × 5.85 = 5.265 kPa
Therefore, the partial pressure of water vapor in the air-water mixture is 5.265 kPa.
At the dew point condition:
p = ps4 = 5.265 kPa
Using the steam tables, at a pressure of 5.265 kPa, the dew point temperature is 25.9°C
Therefore, the dew point of air exiting the cooling tower is 25.9°C.
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(a)The volumetric flow rate of atmospheric air entering the cooling tower in m3/sec is 5.197 m3/sec
(b)The mass flow rate of makeup water supplied in kg/sec is 78.89 kg/sec
(c)The dew point of air exiting the cooling tower is 35.23°C.
A condenser is a machine that converts a gaseous substance to a liquid one. In a power plant, the condenser is used to transform steam from the turbine into water so that it may be used again. The steam produced from the power generation process is first driven through a turbine. When it exits the turbine, the steam is led to a condenser where it is cooled by water. The volumetric flow rate is the measure of how much space is occupied by a fluid or gas that passes through a given area. It is calculated by dividing the mass flow rate by the density of the fluid or gas.
Here, the volumetric flow rate of atmospheric air entering the cooling tower can be determined using the formula below;{eq}\text{Volumetric flow rate, Q} = \frac{\text{Mass flow rate}}{\text{Density}} {/eq}Density of atmospheric air at 20°C, 1 atm, and 50% relative humidity can be found using steam tables. For these conditions, the density of air is 1.1769 kg/m3.
The rate at which makeup water is supplied is equal to the rate at which cooling water leaves the tower. This is because the mass of water leaving is equal to the mass of makeup water supplied. Thus, the mass flow rate of makeup water supplied is 7.198 × 106 kg/sec.(c)To determine the dew point temperature of the moist air, we need to use a psychrometric chart.
First, we need to determine the humidity ratio of the atmospheric air. The chart shows that the relative humidity is 50% and the temperature is 20°C. At these conditions, the humidity ratio is 0.00845 kg H2O/kg dry air. Now, the humid air exits at 40°C and 90% relative humidity. On the chart, we go to 40°C and follow the 90% relative humidity line to the left until it intersects the line of 0.00845 kg H2O/kg dry air. We then read the corresponding dew point temperature from the chart, which is found to be 35.23°C.
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Related Questions
fuel injector firing is being discussed. technician a says sfi systems control each injector separately so that it fires just before the intake valve opens. technician b says gdi injectors can inject fuel during the compression stroke. who is correct?
Answers
Fuel injection is the introduction of fuel in an internal combustion engine, most commonly automotive engines, by the means of an injector.
How Fuel Injection Systems Work?The gasoline system employed in contemporary automobiles has undergone significant alteration throughout time in an effort to comply with pollution and fuel efficiency standards.
The final car to be sold in the US with a carburetor was the Subaru Justy in 1990; the Justy got fuel injection for the subsequent model year. However, electronic fuel injection began to be widely employed in European cars from 1980, but fuel injection has been known since the 1950s. Fuel injection systems are now standard on all automobiles sold in the country.
This page explains the process by which fuel enters an engine's cylinders as well as the meanings of terminology like "multi-port fuel injection" and "throttle body fuel injection."
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How is the foundation for a skyscraper different from a house?
Answers
Answer:
Shallow foundations, often called footings, are usually embedded about a metre or so into soil. ... Another common type of shallow foundation is the slab-on-grade foundation where the weight of the structure is transferred to the soil through a concrete slab placed at the surface.
Explanation:
Because I said so.
Which of the following would satisfy the 30-minute break required under the interruption of driving provisions
Answers
The 30-minute consecutive break could be satisfied by taking 30 consecutive minutes off duty/on duty without driving.
What is the 30-minute rule?The 30-Minute Break Rule refers that a driver having a window of 8 hours to drive after their last off-duty period of at least 30 minutes. In the old rule, once a driver went on duty in a day, the driver had to take a 30-minute break by the 8th hour before being allowed to drive again.
This rule also implies spending 30 consecutive minutes in the sleeper berth. A combination of both equals 30 consecutive minutes. Drivers must take a 30-minute break when they have driven for a period of 8 cumulative hours without at least a 30-minute interruption.
Therefore, the 30-minute consecutive break could be satisfied by taking 30 consecutive minutes off duty/on duty without driving.
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Your question seems incomplete. The most probable complete question is as follows:
Which of the following would satisfy the 30-minute break required under the interruption of driving provisions:
taking 30 consecutive minutes off duty/on duty without driving.taking 30 consecutive minutes off duty/on duty with driving.taking more than 30 minutes off duty/on duty without driving.taking less than 30 minutes off duty/on duty without driving.A plant has ten machines and currently operates two 8-hr shift per day, 5 days per week, 50 weeks per year. the ten machines produce the same part each at a rate of 30 pc/hr. (a) determine annual production capacity of this plant. (b) if the plant were to operate three 8-hr shifts per day, 6 days per week, 51 weeks per year, determine the annual percentage increase in plant capacity
Answers
Answer:
83.6%
Explanation:
(a)On its current schedule, the plant can theoretically produce ...
(30 pc/h/machine)(10 machine)(8 h/shift)(2 shift/day)(5 day/wk)(50 wk/yr)
= (30)(10)(8)(2)(5)(50) pc/yr = 1,200,000 pc/yr
__
(b)On the proposed schedule, this production becomes ...
(30 pc/mach)(10 mach)(8 h/sh)(3 sh/da)(6 da/wk)(51 wk/yr)
= (30)(10)(8)(3)(6)(51) pc/yr = 2,203,200 pc/yr
The increase in capacity is ...
(2,203,200/1,200,000 -1) × 100% = 83.6% . . . capacity increase
_____
Additional comment
The number of parts per shift did not change. Only the number of shifts per year changed. It went up by a factor of (3/2)(6/5)(51/50) = 1.836. Hence the 83.6% increase in capacity.
We have to assume that maintenance and repair are done as effectvely as before in the reduced down time that each machine has.
A type of relay that uses a thermistor to protect motor circuits is called?
Answers
The type of relay that uses a thermistor to protect motor circuits is called a thermal overload relay. What is a thermal overload relay?A thermal overload relay is a protective gadget that switches off a motor if it overheats.
It guards the motor by tracking the heating of its windings. When an overload situation is detected, the thermal overload relay reacts by tripping a set of contacts to shut down the motor. The thermal overload relay is a control relay with a bimetal strip or a heater element that is sensitive to temperature changes .A thermal overload relay operates based on the principle of thermal memory.
The thermal overload relay's heating component is made up of a heater element and a bimetallic strip. When there is an overload, the heater component heats up the bimetallic strip, causing it to flex and trip the contacts, opening the circuit, and shutting down the motor. The heater component may be replaced or adjusted to fit the motor's current ratings.
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Which are two ways to obtain proper permission to use copyrighted material?
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Answer:
Hope this helps ;) don't forget to rate this answer !
Explanation:
There are several ways to obtain proper permission to use copyrighted material:
Contact the copyright holder directly: You can try to contact the copyright holder directly to ask for permission to use their work. This can be done through email, phone, or mail. You can usually find contact information for the copyright holder on their website or by doing a search online.
Use a licensing service: There are many online licensing services that can help you obtain permission to use copyrighted material. These services typically have a large database of works that are available for licensing and can help you negotiate a licensing agreement with the copyright holder.
Use a Creative Commons license: Some creators choose to release their work under a Creative Commons license, which allows others to use their work as long as they follow certain conditions. For example, a Creative Commons license might allow you to use the work as long as you give the creator credit and do not use the work for commercial purposes.
Use fair use: Fair use is a doctrine that allows you to use copyrighted material without permission in certain circumstances, such as for criticism, commentary, news reporting, teaching, scholarship, or research. Fair use is determined on a case-by-case basis, and it is important to be familiar with the factors that are considered when determining whether a use is fair.
It is important to always obtain proper permission to use copyrighted material, as using someone else's work without permission can result in legal consequences.
At steady state, air at 200 kPa, 325 K, and mass flow rate
of 0.5 kg/s enters an insulated duct having differing inlet
and exit cross-sectional areas. The inlet cross-sectional area is
6 cm26cm
2. At the duct exit, the pressure of the air is 100 kPa and the velocity is 250 m/s. Neglecting potential energy
effects and modeling air as an ideal gas with constant cp=1.008 kJ/kg⋅Kc
p =1.008kJ/kg⋅K, determine
(a) the velocity of the air at the inlet, in m/s.
(b) the temperature of the air at the exit, in K.
(c) the exit cross-sectional area, in cm2
(a) the velocity of the air at the inlet, in m/s.
(b) the temperature of the air at the exit, in K.
(c) the exit cross-sectional area, in cm
Answers
A letra
A.
Thank
what is the value of slip in the block rotor test? and why?
Answers
In a dual zone climate control system, the ducts and airflow are split. Which of the following are used to control the temperatures
A. Evaporators
B. Heater cores
C. Compressors
D. Air mix doors
Answers
Answer:
D. Air mix doors
Explanation:
Air doorways are used to control the temperature in the dual-zone climate control system.
How do birds achieve take-off, gliding, dive, etc.? How do they modify their body shape?
Answers
4. On wet roads, the chance of hydroplaning increases with the increase of speed.
True
False
Answers
Answer:
The answer to the question is True
On wet roads, the chance of hydroplaning increases with the increase of speed. Thus, the given statement is true.
During rainy weather, roads may become slippery and difficult to drive on. Slippery roads may also arise as a result of snow or ice. The fact that the road surface has less traction than normal is what makes it slippery. On slippery roads, it is recommended that drivers slow down to reduce the risk of skidding, sliding, or losing control of their cars, especially when taking turns.
Drivers should also increase their following distance and avoid abrupt braking or accelerating. Drivers should not drive faster than 25 mph on slippery roads, and they should not increase their speed to avoid hydroplaning. Instead, drivers should slow down.
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A half-wavelength (l=λ/2) dipole is connected to a transmission line with a characteristic impedance of 75 ohms. Determine the following: (a) Reflection coefficient. Magnitude and phase (in degrees). (b) VSWR. It is now desired to resonate the dipole using, in series, an inductor or capacitor. At a frequency of 100MHz, determine: (c) What kind of an element, inductor or capacitor, is needed to resonate the dipole? (d) What is the inductance or capacitance? (e) The new VSWR of the resonant dipole.
Answers
a) The Reflection coefficient (magnitude and phase) is |Γ| = 0.750 and φ = -90°.
b) The VSWR is 3.
c) An inductor is needed in order to resonate the dipole is 2.25.
d) The value of the inductance is 0.667 uH.
e) The new VSWR of the resonant dipole is 1.
(a) The Reflection coefficient (magnitude and phase) are calculated as follows: The reflection coefficient (Γ) is given by Γ = (ZL-Z₀)/(ZL+Z₀) where ZL is the load impedance and Z₀ is the characteristic impedance of the line.
In this case, ZL is equal to 37.5 ohms and Z₀ is equal to 75 ohms.
Substituting the given values in the equation above, we get:
Γ = (37.5-75)/(37.5+75) = -0.75
The magnitude of the reflection coefficient (|Γ|) can be calculated as: |Γ| = √(Γ² + 0²) = √(0.75² + 0²) = |Γ| = 0.750.
The phase of the reflection coefficient (φ) can be calculated as: φ = arctan (Im/Re) = arctan (0/ - 0.75) = φ = -90°
Therefore, the Reflection coefficient (magnitude and phase) is |Γ| = 0.750 and φ = -90°.
(b) The VSWR (Voltage Standing Wave Ratio) can be calculated as follows: The VSWR is given by VSWR = (1+|Γ|)/(1-|Γ|).
Substituting the value of the magnitude of the reflection coefficient (|Γ|), we get:
VSWR = (1+0.75)/(1-0.75) = 3
Therefore, the VSWR is 3.
(c) In order to resonate the dipole, an inductor or a capacitor is needed. To determine which one is required, the resonant frequency of the dipole must be determined. The resonant frequency of the dipole is given by: resonant frequency = 150/√(Lg × C))
Given that the frequency is 100MHz, we can determine the value of Lg × C:
100MHz = 150/√(Lg × C))
Therefore, Lg×C = (150/100)² = 2.25
Since Lg×C is greater than 1, it follows that an inductor is needed in order to resonate the dipole.
(d) The value of the inductance can be determined as follows: The resonant frequency of the dipole is given by: resonant frequency = 150/√(Lg × C))
Given that the frequency is 100MHz and that the value of Lg × C is 2.25, the value of the inductance (Lg) can be determined as follows:
100MHz = 150/√(Lg × 2.25)
Therefore, Lg = (150/100)²/2.25 = 0.667uH
Thus, the value of the inductance is 0.667 uH.
(e) The new VSWR of the resonant dipole can be calculated as follows: The VSWR is given by VSWR = (1+|Γ|)/ (1-|Γ|)
For a resonant dipole, the reflection coefficient (|Γ|) is equal to 0. Therefore,
VSWR = (1+0)/(1-0) = 1
Therefore, the new VSWR of the resonant dipole is 1.
Therefore,
a) The Reflection coefficient (magnitude and phase) is |Γ| = 0.750 and φ = -90°.
b) The VSWR is 3.
c) An inductor is needed in order to resonate the dipole is 2.25.
d) The value of the inductance is 0.667 uH.
e) The new VSWR of the resonant dipole is 1.
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Which option identifies the section of the project charter represented in the following scenario?
For the past five years, students at New School have been in desperate need of a playground. The closest playground is a mile away, at Safe
Park. Our project is to design a playground for the students and to find funding in the community to support it.
O executive summary
O constraints
O project objectives
O project development cycle
Answers
Answer:
Executive Summary
Explanation:
It is Executive Summary because I used process of elimination. Constraints are set backs. Project objectives are the goals that you want to achieve. Project development cycle are basically the steps that will be used.
All of the following are ways to help locate a coolant leak source except?
Dye test
Scan tool
Visual inspection
Pressure test
Answers
Answer:
Scan tool
Explanation:
pressure testing is the best way of testing for a colant leak
a scan tool literally does nothing for a coolant leak
At a certain location, wind is blowing steadily at 7 m/s. Determine the mechanical energy of air per unit mass and the power generation potential of a wind turbine with 80-m-diameter blades at that location. Also determine the actual electric power generation assuming an overall efficiency of 30 percent. Take the air density to be 1.25 kg/m3.
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
From the information given;
The velocity of the wind blow V = 7 m/s
The diameter of the blades (d) = 80 m
Percentage of the overall efficiency \(\eta_{overall} = 30\%\)
The density of air \(\rho = 1.25 kg/km^3\)
Then, we can use the concept of the kinetic energy of the wind blowing to estimate the mechanic energy of air per unit mass by using the formula:
\(e_{mechanic} = \dfrac{mV^2}{2}\)
here;
m = \(\rho AV\)
= \(1.25 \times \dfrac{\pi}{4}(80)^2 \times 7\)
= 43982.29 kg/s
∴
\(W = e_{mechanic} = \dfrac{mV^2}{2}\)
\(= \dfrac{43982.29 \times 7^2}{2}\)
\(= 1077566.105 \ W\)
\(\mathbf{ =1077.566 \ kW}\)
The actual electric power is:
\(W_{electric} = \eta_{overall} \times W\)
\(W_{electric} = 0.3 \times 1077.566\)
\(\mathbf{W_{electric} =323.26 \ kW}\)
Patient monitor is one of the important medical equipment in hospital. It measures vital signs
of a patient such as ECG, blood pressure, breathing and body temperature. However, due to the
Covid19 crisis, the number of patient monitor is not enough. Your team are required to develop
an ad-hoc prototype 6 channel ECG device by using ATMega328 microcontroller.The device
must fulfill the specifications below:-
i. Six channel ECG consisting of three limb leads and three augmented limb leads. The
gain of the entire biopotential amplifier is 2000, considering typical ECG voltage of
1.0 mV
ii. The ADC values of each ECG channel are going to be stored in the entire SRAM in the
ATMega328, before being displayed to the OLED display. After 5 seconds, the next
ECG channel will be sampled. When all six channels are completed, it will repeat with
the first channel.
iii. Sampling rate per channel must be set to 256 samples per second, and using the internal
oscillator clock set at 8 MHz.
a) Based on the specifications above, freely sketch the schematic diagram which connects
the singel chip microprocessor ATMega328, to the six channel biopotential amplier.
Ensure pin numbers and labels are clearly state and as detailed as possible. Notes: You could refer to ATMega328 Detail Pins Layout in Appendix 1 and only draw
the necessary I/O pins for system peripheral connection, including VCC and GND. You
can choose to connect the non-reserved pins to any digital I/O pins.
b) The device will sample a single ECG channel for a certain time, and store in the internal
SRAM. With 10-bit precision, how many seconds of a the ECG signal can be recorded in
the internal SRAM. Write and show all parameters involved to calculate the time.
c) Write the C program of the main function and the other required functions for the system
with the given specifications in (i), (ii) and (iii). A function named SRAMtoOLED( ) is
already provided. This function will read all the value in the SRAM and display on to the
OLED display. You can call this function when ever needed.
Answers
Schematic diagram which connects the single chip microprocessor ATMega328, to the six-channel biopotential amplifier is given below: Explanation.
The six-channel biopotential amplifier is connected to the ATMega328 through analog pins. Here, six different ECG leads will be connected to the amplifier and amplified by a gain of 2000. ADC is used to store the ECG signals and the analog values are converted to digital values by using ADC. The conversion is done based on the ADC reference voltage.
The digital values are stored in the SRAM and then displayed to the OLED display.b) The device will sample a single ECG channel for a certain time, and store it in the internal SRAM. With 10-bit precision, the maximum voltage that can be measured by ADC is 5V. Hence, the voltage resolution of ADC is 5/1024 = 0.0049 V.
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Hey guys can anyone list chemical engineering advancement that has been discovered within the past 20 years
Answers
Nanopesticides. The world population keeps growing. ...
Enantio selective organocatalysis. ...
Solid-state batteries. ...
Flow Chemistry. ...
Porous material for Water Harvesting. ...
Directed evolution of selective enzymes. ...
From plastics to monomers. ...
A cat is fed a diet designed for dogs. Which amino acid is most likely to be deficient in this cat's diet?
Answers
Answer:
Your cat may also be a risk of a taurine deficiency if he or she enjoys sampling your dog's food. Dog food doesn't contain taurine, as dogs can create their own supply of the amino acid. Although your cat may like the taste, a steady diet of dog food is a bad idea
hope this helps
ai lm dc bài tập môn cơ học vật liệu ko ạ
Answers
Answer:
What's that
Explanation:
Please brainlest me
Which statement best describes how power and work are related?
O A. Power is the ability to do more work with less force.
O B. Power is a measure of how quickly work is done.
O C. Power and work have the same unit of measurement
O D. Power is the amount of work needed to overcome friction.
Pls answer quick
Answers
B
a jsdnjwevhfgruewbkuwygru
solve by using fluidsim software
At the completion of this lab, the student will be able to: 1. Able to design hydraulic circuits and electro hydraulic circuits for various applications with specific requirements. 2. Able to make sim
Answers
Fluid Sim is a tool to assist in the development, study, and optimization of fluid-based systems and circuits. It's easy to use and intuitive, which makes it ideal for educational purposes.
It helps in understanding how fluid power works and how it can be used to make machines and devices function properly. In this lab, the students will be able to design hydraulic circuits and electro-hydraulic circuits for various applications with specific requirements. They will also be able to make simulations of these circuits and test them to see if they work as intended.
The first step in designing hydraulic or electro-hydraulic circuits is to identify the specific requirements of the application. This includes determining the flow rate, pressure, and other parameters that are necessary for the system to function correctly.
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5 page paper about the government and how it’s decisions affects the world.
Answers
The government, through its decisions and policies, wields significant influence that extends beyond national borders and directly affects the world. Government decisions can have far-reaching impacts on various aspects, including politics, economics, social issues, and the environment.
In the realm of politics, government decisions on international relations, diplomacy, and foreign policy shape global alliances, conflicts, and cooperation. They determine how a country engages with other nations, resolves disputes, and participates in international organizations and agreements.
Economically, government decisions on trade policies, regulations, taxation, and fiscal management impact global markets, investments, and economic stability. Changes in the economic policies of major economies can have ripple effects on other countries, affecting trade flows, exchange rates, and overall global economic conditions.
Government decisions also play a crucial role in addressing global challenges such as climate change, public health crises, and human rights issues. Policies on environmental regulations, international agreements, healthcare initiatives, and human rights advocacy can influence global efforts and cooperation in addressing these pressing issues.
Moreover, government decisions on security and defense policies have implications for global peace and stability. Actions related to arms control, military interventions, and peacekeeping operations can shape geopolitical dynamics and impact international security.
In summary, government decisions have a profound impact on the world by shaping international relations, influencing global economies, addressing global challenges, and affecting peace and security. The interconnectedness of nations and the shared nature of global issues highlight the significance of government decisions in shaping the course of the world.
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The maximum possible efficiency of a heat engine is determined by:.
Answers
The maximum possible efficiency of a heat engine is determined by the Carnot efficiency, which is based on the difference between the temperatures of the hot and cold reservoirs used in the engine.
The Carnot efficiency represents the theoretical maximum efficiency that a heat engine can achieve, and it is based on the second law of thermodynamics, which states that no heat engine can have a higher efficiency than a Carnot engine operating between the same two reservoirs.
This means that the maximum possible efficiency of a heat engine is limited by the temperature difference between the hot and cold reservoirs, and it can be improved by increasing the temperature of the hot reservoir or decreasing the temperature of the cold reservoir.
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Think of five people with high self-esteem and write their names and how they show high self - esteem.
Answers
Michelle Obama-
Kylie Jenner-
Gigi Hadid-
And
Bella Hadid-
A material has been loaded to a stress well below the proportional limit. At this point the stress is 257 MPa and the strain is 0.18 mm/mm. Assume the elastic region extends directly to zero (0 stress, 0 strain) from this point. Calculate Young's modulus for this material. Enter your answer in MPa to the nearest whole number.
Answers
To calculate Young's modulus for this material, we first need to understand the relationship between stress and strain in the elastic region. According to Hooke's Law, stress is proportional to strain within the elastic limit.
This means that we can use the following equation to calculate Young's modulus: Young's modulus (E) = stress/strain In this case, the stress is 257 MPa and the strain is 0.18 mm/mm. Therefore: E = 257 MPa / 0.18 mm/mm E = 1428.9 MPa Rounding to the nearest whole number, Young's modulus for this material is approximately 1429 MPa. It's worth noting that this calculation assumes that the elastic region extends directly to zero stress and zero strain from the given point. In reality, the elastic region may have a non-linear relationship between stress and strain, and the material may exhibit some degree of plastic deformation before reaching zero stress. However, this calculation provides a good estimate of Young's modulus for the given conditions.
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For servicing ammonia absorption systems, it is important that the gauge manifold, valves, lines, and fittings used should never be made of _____.
Answers
For servicing ammonia absorption systems, it is important that the gauge manifold, valves, lines, and fittings used should never be made of copper or copper alloys.
Ammonia is highly reactive with copper, and prolonged exposure to ammonia can lead to a chemical reaction known as ammoniacal corrosion. This corrosion can result in the formation of copper ammonia complexes, which are unstable and can decompose explosively.
To prevent the risk of ammoniacal corrosion and potential hazards associated with it, materials such as copper or copper alloys should be avoided in contact with ammonia. Instead, materials such as stainless steel, brass, or other compatible non-ferrous alloys are commonly used for components in ammonia systems. These materials have a higher resistance to ammoniacal corrosion and can withstand the demands of ammonia service conditions more effectively.
Using the correct materials is crucial for ensuring the safety and reliability of ammonia absorption systems during servicing and operation.
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The de source supplying a single-phase inverter with a bipolar PWM switching scheme is 99 V. The load is an R L series combination with R=30 N and L=20 mH. The output voltage has a fundamental frequency of 50 Hz. Specify amplitude modulation ratio ma to provide a 42-V rms output voltage at the fundamental frequency
Answers
Output voltage at the fundamental frequency is 79.2 /√2 V
What is amplitude modulation ratio?Amplitude modulation changes the amplitude of a carrier signal by directly adjusting the instantaneous amplitude of a modulating signal (such as voice, music, data, etc.). The ratio of the modulated signal's maximum voltage to minimum voltage is denoted by the modulation index, or m.
Ratio of amplitude modulation, ma (VA0)
hVd/2
The rms value is given by V01=(Vd VA0)h / 2 vd / 2 = vd / 2 ma = 99 / 2 0.8 V01=79.2 / 2 V
The total power of the carrier, upper sideband, and lower sideband frequency components is the power of the AM wave. Where, vrms is the cos signal's rms value. The highest value of the cos signal is vm.
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Two semiconductor materials have exactly the same properties except material A has a bandgap energy of 0.90 eV and material B has a bandgap energy of 1.10 eV. Determine the ratio of
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Answer: hello your question is incomplete attached below is the complete question
answer : Ac = 5° , A\(_{f}\) = 2.5°
Explanation:
Bandgap energy for material A = 0.90 eV
Bandgap energy for material B = 1.10 eV
Calculate the ratio of ni for Material B to Material B
Total derivation ( d ) = d1 + d2
d = A\(_{c}\) ( μ\(_{c}\) - 1 ) + A\(_{f}\) ( μ\(_{f}\) - 1 ) ---- ( 1 )
where : d = 1° , μ\(_{c}\) = 1.5 , μ\(_{f}\) = 1.6
Input values into equation 1 above
1° = 0.5Ac + 0.6Af ---- ( 2 )
also d = d1 [ 1 - w/ w1 ] ------ ( 3 )
∴ d = Ac ( μ\(_{c}\) - 1 ) ( 1 - w/w1 )
1° = Ac ( 1.5 - 1 ) ( 1 - 0.06/0.1 ) --- ( 4 )
resolving equation ( 4 )
Ac = 5°
resolving equation ( 2 )
A\(_{f}\) = 2.5°
Calcule la entropía de 2 moles de un gas ideal que realiza una expansión libre al triple de su volumen inicial, utilice: ∆S =n・R・ℓn (Vf / Vi)
Answers
The entropy of 2 moles of and ideal gas expanding freely to 3 times it's initial volume is 18.3J/k
How did we arrive at the above?The following formula is required:
∆S = nx R x ℓn x (Vf/Vi)
Where
n = number of moles of gas (n = 2)
R = gas constant (R = 8.314 J/(mol * K))
Vf = final volume (Vf = 3.V1)
Vi = intial volume
Vi = 1L (Asumption )
∆S = 2 x 8.314 x 1.099
∆S =18.3 j/K
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Translation:
Calculate the entropy of 2 moles of an ideal gas expanding freely to three times its initial volume, use: ∆S =n・R・ℓn (Vf / Vi)
A demand factor of _____ percent applies to a multifamily dwelling with ten units if the optional calculation method is used.