Explain the basic steps in the first half of photosynthesis. Describe the movement of electrons and the importance of hydrogen ions in developing a proton gradient that allows for ATP production.
Answer:
This simply refers to photolysis of water.
Explanation
Generally,two steps are involved in photosynthesis.
The light dependent stage or light reaction,(which is the first part of photosynthesis,
The light independent stage (which is the second part.)
The light independent reactions involved the trapping of sunlight by the photo systems, in the leaves,and the splitting of the water molecules by sunlight.
H20 + Sunlight → 1/2H+ +2 e- +1/2 O2.
The movement of electron can be cyclic or non cyclic photophosphorylation, In Cyclic, photo system 1 absorbs the electrons and pass these to the primary pigments in the leaves. This excited the electron in chlorophyll molecule to higher energy levels , The electron emitted from the leaves is by a process called by photoactivation The emitted electron do not return to the photosystems,rather they are pick up by the primary electron acceptors and returned to the chlorophyll molecules by electron carriers,NADP.
During this process Energy is released for ATPase synthase of ATP for phosphorylation of ADP with phosphate,
In Non-cyclic photophorylation,photosystem I and II absorbs the electrons as Z-scheme movement of electrons.,Photoactivation of chlorophyll takes place as in the Cyclic.The primary electron acceptors takes the excited electrons to move along the chain of electron carriers.This makes the photosystems positively charged.
Hence to regain stability the primary pigment of photo system 1 takes electrons from photosystem II.To replace its lost electrons, P II takes electrons from the photolysis of water.ATP is generated as the carriers molecules transport electrons from the energy produced.
The hydrogen ions is used for the production of electrochemical gradients,which supplies the energy used by the ATPase synthase for the ATPs production.The process is called chemiosmosis. It involved the transports of H atoms by NADPH into the stroma,and the splitting of these into protons and electrons,The electrons form ETC,which forms the PMF.The latter pumped protons into the thylakoid membrane,and as this returns it generate the electrochemical gradient.
The ATP is used in the Calvin Cycle for CHO,proteins productions,
I'm so confused.. does anyone have any ideas on what to do? I need the timeline in age of our bones.
Males and females exhibit distinct differences in bone growth and development, including timing, magnitude, and patterns. Males experience a pronounced growth spurt, leading to increased height and broader shoulders, while females undergo gradual growth. Male adults generally have higher bone density.
During the course of development from infancy to adulthood, there are several key differences in bone growth and development between males and females.
In infancy and early childhood, there are no significant gender differences in bone growth. Both males and females undergo rapid bone growth as the skeletal system develops. However, as individuals approach puberty, distinct disparities emerge.
During adolescence, males experience a more pronounced growth spurt compared to females. They typically exhibit a rapid increase in height due to accelerated bone elongation. This growth spurt is attributed to the influence of testosterone and growth hormones, resulting in a taller stature and broader shoulders in males. In contrast, females experience a more gradual growth pattern, with less significant changes in height and bone structure.
By early adulthood, most individuals have reached their peak bone mass, signaling the end of major growth. Males generally have higher bone density compared to females. This discrepancy is primarily influenced by hormonal and genetic factors, including higher levels of testosterone in males, which promotes greater bone density and muscle mass.
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The question probable may be:
What are the key differences in bone growth and development between males and females from infancy to adulthood?
at what age do alaskan quail reproduce
Answer: Alaskan Quail typically reach reproductive age at around 6 to 8 months.
Explanation:
Alaskan Quail, also known as Valley Quail or California Quail, are known for their early maturity and ability to reproduce at a young age. On average, they reach reproductive age at around 6 to 8 months, which is relatively young compared to many other bird species. This allows them to establish populations quickly and adapt to changing environments. The female Alaskan Quail typically lays between 8 to 15 eggs per clutch, and both parents work together to incubate the eggs and care for the chicks. The young birds are capable of flying and foraging on their own within a few weeks of hatching, which helps them to survive and thrive in their natural habitat.
What is disruptive selection?
In nature, not all individuals in a biological population has the same reproductive success. Additionally, the reproductive succes of an individual may be related to a heritable trait. Disruptive (natural) selection is operating when indivuals with extreme values for an heritable trait have a greater reproductive succes that the ones with intermediate values for the same trait.
What matterns in appearance do you rotice at
this stage of development?
The patterns that are most easily observed is the differentiation of the cells during development.
What is development?At the early stage of embryonic development, a few key patterns in appearance can be observed. These include the formation of the neural plate, which will eventually give rise to the brain and spinal cord, as well as the formation of the primitive streak, which marks the beginning of gastrulation and the formation of the three primary germ layers (ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm).
Additionally, the embryonic heart begins to beat and blood cells start to form, and the formation of the limb buds, which will give rise to the arms and legs, can also be observed.
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a person facing forward hears a sound to his left,
a) his left ear hears exactly twice as well as his right ear.
b) his right ear will be cast in a sound shadow.
c) he experiences no onset disparity.
d) he must turn away from the sound to allow for spectral filtering.
One or both of your ears may ring or make other noises, which is known as tinnitus. Therefore, choice an is the right one.
Other people typically are unable to hear the noise that tinnitus patients hear since it is not caused by an external sound.
While the left ear is more sensitive to music, emotion, and intuition, the right ear is more tuned in to speech and reasoning. According to scientists, this is because the left hemisphere of the brain processes speech more heavily than the right, which processes music and other creative tasks.
The auditory cortex, a structure on the left side of the brain's temporal lobe, receives signals from the right ear. The right auditory cortex receives signals from the left ear. A tinnitus is an ear disease
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which are products of cellular respiration? which are products of cellular respiration? oxygen and glucose atp and water carbon dioxide, water, and atp carbon dioxide and atp
The products of cellular respiration are carbon dioxide, water, and ATP. Cellular respiration is the process by which cells convert glucose and oxygen into usable energy in the form of ATP.
During this process, oxygen is used as a reactant, and glucose is broken down into carbon dioxide and water, releasing energy that is used to produce ATP. The ATP is then used by the cell for various processes that require energy, such as muscle contraction, protein synthesis, and nerve impulses.
Carbon dioxide and water are waste products of cellular respiration and are eliminated from the body through breathing and other excretory processes. Overall, cellular respiration is a crucial process for all living organisms as it provides the energy necessary for life-sustaining functions.
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What primarily drives the formation of citrate from oxaloacetate and acetyl-coa?.
Citrate (a six carbon molecule) is primarily drives the formation of citrate from oxaloacetate and acetyl-coa.
In the first step of the citric acid cycle, acetyl CoA joins with a four-carbon molecule, oxaloacetate, releasing the CoA group and forming a six-carbon molecule called citrate.
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Carbohydrates are made out of smaller molecules (monomers) known as:
Polysaccharides
Monosaccharides
Glucose
Amino Acids
Answer:
Carbohydrates: molecules composed of sugar monomers. They are necessary for energy storage. Carbohydrates are also called saccharides and their monomers are called monosaccharides. Glucose is an important monosaccharide that is broken down during cellular respiration to be used as an energy source.
Explanation:
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what is the best definition for a Liger?
Answer:
The liger is a hybrid offspring of a male lion (Panthera leo) and a female tiger (Panthera tigris).
Explanation:
a sinistral male (dd) and dextral female (dd) are mated and produce all dextral progeny in the f1 generation. if the f1 progeny are allowed to mate with one another, what percentage of the f2 snails will have a dextral coiling pattern?
100 percentage of the f2 snails will have a dextral coiling pattern.
Can a lethal gene may be conditional, dominant, or recessive based on the locus?
Depending on the locus, a lethal trait may be recessive, dominant, or conditional. An illustration of gene interplay is epistasis. Two genes that each add equally to pigmentation in the final flower color regulate flower color in a distinct species of plant than the one used as an example.
Dextral or sinistral refers to the snail shell's coiling direction, which, when observed from the top, is either clockwise or counterclockwise. The first mutation in the maternal effect locus was found by Boycott and Diver. A maternal effect gene regulates the shape of snail coiling. All F1 offspring will be Dd. Since the F1 females are Dd, all of the F2 offspring will be dextral.
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the punnett square on p. 70 of your lab manual shows the genotypes of two parents for trait r. use this punnett square to answer the questions in this exercise. trait r is the mendelian trait in humans for tongue rolling. the allele for the ability to roll the tongue (r) is dominant over the allele for the inability to roll the tongue (r). what is the mother's genotype? group of answer choices
The genotypes of two parents for trait r is the mendelian trait in humans for tongue rolling. the allele for the ability to roll the tongue (r) is dominant over the allele for the inability to roll the tongue (r). The mother's genotype The mother is heterozygous (Rr) for the tongue-rolling trait.
There are two main types of genotypes that is homozygous and heterozygous. If an organism is homozygous for a gene, referred that they inherit two of the same versions of the gene. If an organism has a heterozygous genotype, referred that they inherit two different versions of a gene.
Genotype referred to the genetic makeup of an organism which described about an organism's complete set of genes. It is used to refer to the variant forms of a genes that are carried by an organism. The ability to roll the tongue is dominant over the allele for the inability to roll the tongue.
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list two examples of biotechnology that involve recombinant dna technology
Recombinant DNA technology is a technique that involves joining DNA molecules from two different sources, and is commonly used in biotechnology.
Two examples of biotechnology that involve recombinant DNA technology are:1. Genetic engineering of crops:In agriculture, recombinant DNA technology has been used to create genetically modified crops that are resistant to pests and diseases, as well as to produce higher yields. For example, scientists have used recombinant DNA technology to insert genes into crops that make them resistant to herbicides or to produce higher levels of vitamin A.2. Production of pharmaceuticals:Recombinant DNA technology is also used to produce pharmaceuticals, such as insulin. Scientists can use recombinant DNA technology to produce human insulin in bacteria, which can then be harvested and used to treat diabetes. Other pharmaceuticals produced using recombinant DNA technology include vaccines, growth hormone, and clotting factors.
Genetic engineering of crops:In agriculture, recombinant DNA technology has been used to create genetically modified crops that are resistant to pests and diseases, as well as to produce higher yields.
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haw are living organisms department on the soil?are organisms that live in water totally independent of soil as a resource
Answer:
Organisms are dependent upon soil. Plants/Producers takes up minerals and water from the soil . ... Organisms living in water are not independent of soil as resource as they also consume food that is made from soil directly or indirectly.
Soil forms an important element for the survival of living organisms. All living organisms, such as microbes, insects, humans and plants rely on soil to live. Animals rely on plant for food. Soil provides anchorage to the roots and for the plants to grow properly. Soil provides a habitat for many microbes and small animals, which in return increases the fertility of the soil by decomposing complex organic compounds.
Organisms that live in water are indirectly dependent on the soil. Some of the aquatic animals depend on the aquatic plants for their food. These plants require certain minerals for their growth. These minerals are carried to water bodies from soil by rivers, rain fall etc. In the absence of these dissolved minerals from the soil to these water bodies, aquatic plant would not be able to grow and thus, affect the aquatic food chain, eventually.
a codon consists of bases and specifies which will be inserted into the polypeptide chain. a codon consists of bases and specifies which will be inserted into the polypeptide chain. two, nucleotide four, fatty acid four, amino acid three, amino acid three, nucleotide
The correct answer is: three, nucleotide.A codon is a sequence of three nucleotides found in messenger RNA (mRNA) molecules.
Each codon corresponds to a specific amino acid or a stop signal in the polypeptide chain synthesis. In other words, a codon specifies which amino acid should be inserted into the growing polypeptide chain during protein synthesis.
The genetic code is the set of rules that determines how codons are translated into amino acids. There are 64 possible codons, which encode for the 20 common amino acids used in protein synthesis, as well as three stop signals that indicate the end of protein synthesis.
For example, the codon "GCU" codes for the amino acid alanine, while the codon "UAA" is a stop signal that terminates protein synthesis. The sequence of codons in an mRNA molecule determines the order of amino acids in the resulting polypeptide chain, which ultimately determines the structure and function of the protein.
Therefore, the correct answer is: three, nucleotide.
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Which statement describes what is most likely to occur once equilibrium has been established?
Choose 1 answer:
a) More molecules will be found at the bottom half of the box as compared to the top
half.
b) More molecules will be found at the top half of the box as compared to the bottom
half.
c) The molecules will no longer move across the membrane and their overall
distribution will remain equal on both sides of the membrane.
d) The molecules will continue to move across the membrane, but their overall
distribution will remain relatively equal on both sides of the membrane.
Answer:
the molecules will no longer movie across the membrane and their over all distribution will remain equal and both sides of the membrane is a right answer please brainliest answer
Answer:
The molecules will continue to move across the membrane, but their overall distribution will remain relatively equal on both sides of the membrane.
Explanation:
this is the right answer on khan the other guys that answer this question is wrong
A student places four identical cells into four different liquids.
Which cells would take in water and swell?
cells X and Z
cells W and Y
cells X and Y
cells W and Z
In a scenario where four identical cells are placed in four different liquids then the cells which would take in water and swell are cells X and Y and is denoted as option C.
What is Osmosis?This is referred to as the movement of solvent molecules through a semipermeable membrane from a region of lower solute concentration to that of a higher solute concentration.
In a scenario where there is a decrease in the solvent molecules then it will be less salty and have a lower concentration of water which may make it shrink and is referred to as plasmolysis.
In cells in which there is an increase in the solvent molecules then it will be salty and have a higher concentration of water which is responsible for it swelling and is therefore the reason why cells X and Y was chosen as the correct choice.
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The full question is:
A student places four identical cells into four different liquids.
Cell Description of Liquid
W Saltier than the cellX Less salty than the cellY Higher concentration of water than the cellZ Lower concentration of water than the cellSHORT ANSWER:
1- What are monitors? Describe the typical structure of monitors and explain how are they used to provide solutions to the critical section problem. 2- Explain how monitors protect against mutual excl
Monitors are synchronization constructs that provide a higher-level approach to manage concurrent access to shared resources in parallel programming. Monitors protect against mutual exclusion violations by enforcing the mutual exclusion property.
1. Monitors can provide solutions to the critical section problem by enforcing mutual exclusion. Only one thread can access the shared resource (or enter the monitor) at a time, preventing race conditions and maintaining data integrity.
The monitor's procedures are designed in a way that they can only be executed by one thread at a time, ensuring exclusive access to the shared data.
Additionally, monitors often provide mechanisms like condition variables to allow threads to wait, signal, and notify each other, facilitating synchronization and coordination among threads. They consist of shared data, associated procedures (also called monitor procedures), and a queue to control access.
2. By allowing only one thread to execute monitor procedures at a time, monitors ensure that viruses or other malicious code cannot interfere with critical sections, maintaining the integrity and correctness of shared data.
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Complete question - SHORT ANSWER:
1- What are monitors? Describe the typical structure of monitors and explain how are they used to provide solutions to the critical section problem. 2- Explain how monitors protect against mutual exclusive viruses.
3. With regard to environmental management of waste
rock dumps, what is AMD, how is
it formed and how will you manage dump construction to minimize its
impact on the
environment? [6%]
AMD stands for Acid Mine Drainage. It is formed when sulfide minerals in rocks are exposed to air and water, resulting in the generation of sulfuric acid and dissolved metals. This acidic and metal-rich drainage can have detrimental effects on the environment, including water pollution and damage to aquatic ecosystems.
To manage dump construction and minimize the impact of AMD on the environment, several measures can be implemented:
Prevention: One of the primary approaches is to prevent or minimize the formation of AMD in the first place. This can be achieved by implementing proper waste management practices, including selecting suitable waste rock materials, limiting the exposure of sulfide minerals to air and water, and employing effective cover systems.
Neutralization: Implementing neutralization techniques can help mitigate the acidity of AMD. This involves treating the drainage with alkaline substances, such as lime or limestone, to raise the pH and reduce its harmful effects on the environment.
Containment: Constructing and maintaining effective containment systems is crucial to prevent AMD from infiltrating surrounding soils and water bodies. This can include using impermeable liners, such as clay or synthetic materials, to prevent the leaching of acidic drainage.
Water management: Proper water management is essential to control the movement and accumulation of AMD. This may involve implementing diversion channels, collection systems, and treatment facilities to contain and treat the acidic drainage before it enters the environment.
Monitoring and maintenance: Regular monitoring of water quality, pH levels, and metal concentrations is necessary to detect any potential AMD issues and take appropriate corrective measures. Ongoing maintenance and management of dump sites are crucial to ensure the effectiveness of preventive and mitigation measures.
AMD, or Acid Mine Drainage, refers to the acidic and metal-rich drainage that is formed when sulfide minerals, typically found in rocks associated with mining activities, come into contact with air and water. The exposure of sulfide minerals to oxygen and moisture leads to chemical reactions, resulting in the generation of sulfuric acid. This acid then dissolves metals present in the rocks, such as iron, zinc, and copper, which further contributes to the contamination of water bodies and soil.
The management of waste rock dumps is essential to minimize the impact of AMD on the environment. Dump construction should incorporate measures that aim to prevent the formation of AMD, neutralize its acidity, contain its spread, and manage water flow effectively. These strategies help to minimize the release of acid drainage and metals into the environment, protecting water quality and ecosystems.
The management of waste rock dumps is critical in mitigating the formation and impact of Acid Mine Drainage (AMD). By implementing preventive measures, neutralization techniques, containment systems, effective water management, and regular monitoring, the environmental impact of AMD can be minimized. Adhering to best practices and regulations ensures responsible waste management and helps safeguard water resources and ecosystems.
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Structure A refers to the _____.
chromarid
centromere
chromosome
Ferns, such as the one in the picture, can be found today. They are usually found
growing in warmer climates. However, fossils of ferns have been found in places with
cold climates where it often snows today. What can we conclude about the places
where the fossils of ferns have been found?
A. Ferns used to live in cold climates.
B. These places once had a warmer climate.
C. Someone tried to grow ferns in cold climates.
D. These places once had a colder climate.
Answer:
B. These places once had a warmer climate.
Explanation:
They're fossils meaning they're extremely old therefore the climate they once grew in was suitable for its needs until the climate changed causing them to die.
Which of the following is a future solution that could reduce fossil fuel use? Increase renewable energy Help with species adaptation Increase forests and vegetation Create flood-resistant coastlines
The following which is a future solution that could reduce fossil fuel use is to increase renewable energy which is denoted as option A.
What is a Fossil fuel?This is referred to as a hydrocarbon containing material which is formed naturally in the Earth's crust from the remains of dead plants and animals after undergoing different processes.
Examples of fossil fuels include coal, crude oil etc and it is used to power vehicles and other equipment. However it leads to carbon emission which causes pollution in the environment and increases the risk of respiratory diseases.
The future solution that could reduce fossil fuel use is to Increase renewable energy such as solar and water energy as it is a clean source and reduces the incidence of pollution and global warming.
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list the six layers of the sun, in order, starting with the core. <33
Answer:
core, radiative zone, convective zone, photosphere, chromosphere, and corona
Which of these is a product (something that
is produced) of cellular respiration?
A. Sunlight
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Oxygen
Answer:
Carbon dioxide
true or falseFish are anaerobic organisms.
Answer:
Most vertebrates, including fish, rely almost exclusively on aerobic metabolism, only switching to locally active anaerobic pathways during periods of increased activity or ambient low oxygen levels.
Explanation:
N/A
Answer:
False
Explanation:
Fish require oxygen
I will give brainliest!!! Part of the Golgi body membrane can pinch off and move away to other parts of the cell. What is the purpose of this process? Choose 1 answer: (Choice A) A To collect amino acids for protein synthesis. (Choice B) B Producing ATP for the cell (Choice C) C To send messages to the nucleus (Choice D) D To deliver proteins to other locations in the cell
Answer:
d-to deliver proteins to other locations in the cell
Explanation:
i just know
The purpose of the pinching off the Golgi membrane is to deliver proteins to other locations in the cell. The correct option is D.
What is Golgi body?The Golgi apparatus is an organelle found in most eukaryotic cells. It is also known as the Golgi complex, Golgi body, or simply the Golgi.
It is a component of the cytoplasmic endomembrane system that packages proteins into membrane-bound vesicles before they are transported to their destination.
Thus, the correct option is D.
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Which of the following sugars would NOT yield a positive Fehling's test (red color change)? a. lactose b. sucrose c. maltose d. All of the listed responses would yield a positive result.
Sucrose will not yield a positive Fehling's test
A reducing sugar, or a sugar that can reduce copper ions, is detected using the ideal Fehling's test. Fehling's solution, which consists of copper(II) sulphate and a strong base, is mixed with a sugar solution to be tested, and the mixture is then heated.
During this process, the copper ions will be reduced to copper(I) oxide if a reducing sugar is available, and this copper(I) oxide will then react with the strong base to generate a precipitate of copper(I) hydroxide, which will change its color to red. A positive Fehling test result would be produced by reducing sugars like lactose, maltose, and other disaccharides, but not by non-reducing carbohydrates like sucrose.
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Which is a point mutation and not a frameshift mutation?
mutagen
insertion
deletion
silent
Answer:
silent
Explanation:
jus took the test
Silent mutation is a point mutation and not a frame-shift mutation.
MUTATION:
Mutation is a change in the nucleotide sequence of a DNA caused by a mistake in DNA replication or by a mutagen. A point mutation is a type of mutation that affects or involves only one nucleotide base in the sequence. A frame-shift mutation is that change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA which affects the frame-shift of the nucleotides. Frame-shift mutation occurs when a nucleotide is added (insertion mutation) or removed (deletion mutation). Silent mutation occurs when the change in nucleotide sequence does not alter the protein produced by that gene. Silent mutation is a form of point mutation. Therefore, silent mutation is a point mutation and not a frame-shift mutationLearn more: https://brainly.com/question/9598940?referrer=searchResults
HELP!! what is the main reason that we continue to use fossil fuels for our electricty and transportation?
A)There are not enough dams in the US
B) Wind is to complicated to set up
C) Solar energy is limited
D) It is cheaper to use to fossil fuels then to invest in renewable energy technology
Answer:
D - It is cheaper to use fossil fuels than to invest in renewable energy technology.
Hope that helped. x
CER. Scenario: It is known that the process shown occurs in all cells, but not all cells have the same function. Prompt: Write a scientific explanation of how the same process in all cells allows for different traits to be expressed in different cells. NEED ASAP PLEASE !
The same process called transcription in all cells allows for different traits to be expressed in different cells because it is not complete but it is specifically determined to specific DNA regions called genes.
What does the expression 'transcription is not complete for all DNA in all cells' mean?The expression 'transcription is not complete for all DNA in all cells' indicates that different cell expresses different genes, thereby leading to cell specialization.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that 'transcription is not complete for all DNA in all cells' is deeply associated with cell differentiation.
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