In older adults, a change in metabolism contributes to faster weight gain and slower weight loss.
Why do older people gain weight faster?Fat mass increases as muscle mass declines over time. According to studies, having a high proportion of fat mass increases the risk of impairment, mobility difficulties, and poor physical function in older persons.Even though they are less active, many seniors just eat the same amount of food that they did when they were younger. As a result, it's simple for older people to acquire weight without doing anything else.In older adults, a change in metabolism contributes to faster weight gain and slower weight loss. Our digestive processes become less efficient as we age, resulting in less energy from food being burned as calories and more being deposited as fat.How can the weight be controlled?Obesity and its associated chronic disorders have been demonstrated to be prevented by regular physical activity, even in the extremely old or weak elderly. Physical activity that preserves muscle and bone mass should be prioritized for older persons who are overweight.Getting adequate sleep, believe it or not, can help you burn more calories. You crave more food but feel less full due to hormonal changes that occur when you don't get enough sleep.Sleep deprivation is exacerbated by a lack of sleep, which leads to a need for high-energy foods, which are generally sweet or salty.Protein promotes muscle growth, but if certain forms of protein, such as meat, are difficult to consume, focus on softer sources of protein, such as yogurt.learn more about Weight gain in older people here:
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which of the following additives is found in a royal blue–topped blood collection tube?
Sodium heparin is found in a royal blue–topped blood collection tube. A royal blue–topped blood collection tube is used for the collection of trace elements, toxicology, and nutritional studies.
A royal blue–topped blood collection tube contains sodium heparin as an additive, which is an anticoagulant that prevents blood from clotting. Sodium heparin binds with antithrombin III, which inactivates thrombin and other clotting factors. This prevents the formation of fibrin clots and allows the blood to remain in a liquid state.
Sodium heparin is preferred for studies involving trace elements as it does not interfere with their analysis. Other anticoagulants like EDTA and citrate are not suitable for these studies as they can interfere with the analysis of trace elements. Therefore, a royal blue–topped blood collection tube with sodium heparin as an additive is preferred for trace element studies.
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After changing the disposable inner cannula and changing the dressing of a client who has a tracheostomy, a nurse prepares to change the client's tracheostomy collar. Which action would the nurse take first
The nurse would first assess the client's tolerance and readiness for the tracheostomy collar change.
This involves evaluating the client's respiratory status, oxygen saturation levels, and general condition. The nurse would ensure that the client is stable and able to tolerate the temporary removal of the tracheostomy collar.
Assessing the client's readiness would include checking vital signs, auscultating lung sounds, and observing for any signs of distress or respiratory compromise. If the client is stable and meets the criteria for collar change, the nurse can proceed with the tracheostomy collar change.
However, if the client is not ready or shows signs of respiratory distress, the nurse would delay the collar change and provide appropriate interventions or seek further assistance.
Assessing the client's readiness and stability is crucial before initiating any procedure to ensure the client's safety and well-being.
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can behavior be considered sexual harassment if someone doesn't intend to be offensive, but another person takes offense
Answer: Sexual Harassment of a student interferes with a
student’s right to receive an education free from
discrimination.
Sexual harassment is unwelcome conduct of a sexual
nature.
Sexual Harassment Can Be In the Form of:
Verbal Harassment
Non-Verbal Harassment
Physical Harassment
Explanation: •Federal law Title IX of the Education Amendments
of 1972 prohibits discrimination on the basis of sex,
including sexual harassment in education
programs and activities.
Your patient is receiving palliative care for end stage liver disease. She has not been eating or drinking. She is experiencing bleeding from her mucous membranes and her IV sites. How would you explain these symptoms to her distraught family?
Answer:
I have taken care of two people my best friend was diagnosed with End stage liver disease and had no insurance so he received very little medical care he passed away a few months later at the age of 25. And my father who is 52 who receives great medical care was diagnosed 4years ago with end stage liver disease and is still alive waiting for a transplant.
Explanation:
When explaining these symptoms to the patient's distraught family, it's important to communicate with empathy, honesty, and in a clear, compassionate manner.
The symptoms of distraught family"I want to start by expressing my sincere worry for your loved one's health and the difficulties your family is going through. I am aware of how upsetting this circumstance must be for each of you.
The severe stage of your family member's liver disease is, regrettably, a contributing factor in her symptoms, which include not eating or drinking, bleeding from mucosal membranes, and bleeding from IV sites. The liver's capacity to perform its essential functions is substantially impaired in end-stage liver disease.
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What kind of nebula are the first to form out of remnants of supernova?
The Crab Nebula is a type of supernova remnant, formed from the remnants of a supernova explosion that occurred in the year 1054 AD.
The Crab Nebula is a cloud of gas and dust that is expanding outward from the site of the explosion, and is illuminated by the energy of the supernova's remnant, a pulsar. The Crab Nebula is one of the most studied supernova remnants, and is considered to be one of the first nebulae to form out of the remnants of a supernova explosion. This is because the Crab Nebula was one of the first supernova remnants to be observed and recorded by humans, and has been studied extensively since then. The nebula is located in the constellation Taurus and is one of the most beautiful and well-known objects in the night sky.
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What are the drivers of the healthcare industry's focus on patient satisfaction and on employing resources in an effective manner? Discuss various patient satisfaction evaluation tools, how they affect funding, and physician salaries. Discuss CMS's value on patient satisfaction and how it affects reimbursement. Summarize succinctly in a conclusion/summary paragraph.
Patient satisfaction is a key driver of quality care in the healthcare industry. Healthcare organizations must utilize various evaluation tools to measure and improve patient satisfaction scores to maintain financial stability and remain competitive.
The healthcare industry focuses on patient satisfaction and employing resources in an efficient manner to provide high-quality care and improve patient outcomes. The following are the drivers of this focus:
Changing Payment Models: Healthcare providers' reimbursement is increasingly tied to quality and patient satisfaction scores. This motivates providers to focus on improving patient satisfaction to maintain financial stability.Competition: Healthcare organizations must compete with one another to attract patients and maintain market share. Patients are more likely to choose providers who have a reputation for providing high-quality care and positive patient experiences.Patient-Centred Care: The healthcare industry is shifting towards a more patient-centred approach to care, which requires providers to focus on the individual needs and preferences of their patients. This approach involves involving patients in decision-making, providing education and support, and fostering trust and communication.Various patient satisfaction evaluation tools include surveys, focus groups, and direct feedback from patients. These tools allow healthcare organizations to gather data on patients' experiences and identify areas for improvement. The data is used to guide quality improvement initiatives, staff training, and resource allocation decisions.
Positive patient satisfaction scores may attract additional funding from investors or donors. Additionally, physicians with high patient satisfaction scores may receive bonuses or salary increases.
The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) ties reimbursement to patient satisfaction scores. CMS has implemented the Hospital Consumer Assessment of Healthcare Providers and Systems (HCAHPS) survey, which measures patients' perceptions of their hospital experience. Hospitals must meet specific benchmarks to receive full reimbursement from Medicare. Therefore, organizations that perform poorly on the HCAHPS survey may receive lower reimbursement rates, which can impact their financial stability.
In conclusion, patient satisfaction is a key driver of quality care in the healthcare industry. Healthcare organizations must utilize various evaluation tools to measure and improve patient satisfaction scores to maintain financial stability and remain competitive. Additionally, CMS has implemented programs that tie reimbursement to patient satisfaction scores, which further incentivizes healthcare organizations to prioritize patient satisfaction.
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Suppose you want to study the relationship between smoking and cancer. You assume that smoking is a cause of cancer. Studies have shown that there are many factors affecting this relationship, such as the number of cigarettes or the amount of tobacco smoked every day; the duration of smoking; the age of the smoker; dietary habits; and the amount of exercise undertaken by the individual. All of these factors may affect the extent to which smoking might cause cancer. These variables may either increase or decrease the magnitude of the relationship. Which statement is false
Answer: in the above example, cancer is an independent variable.
Explanation:
Based on the information given, we can infer that the dependent variable is cancer. Cancer is not the independent variable.
The extent to which an individual smokes is.an independent variable, duration of smoking, smoker's age can all be identified as the independent variable.
Cancer is not a independent variable here, in our study cancer is dependent on the amount of smoking by an individual.So, it is a dependent variable.
How quickly a drug enters your bloodstream also depends on __________.
The quantity of food in the intestine, the size of the medicine preparation's particles, and the pH of the contents of the intestine all affect how quickly nutrients are absorbed.
What quickly a drug enters your bloodstream depends?The quickest way to make medications work on the body and brain is to inject them straight into the bloodstream.
The manner in which a medicine is ingested affects how soon it enters the bloodstream. The amount of solubility a medicine has affects how long it takes to dissolve. Most medications typically disappear within 30 minutes, on average.
The amount of food in the intestine, the size of the medication preparation's particles, and the pH of the intestine's contents all have an impact on how rapidly nutrients are absorbed.
Therefore, A medicine can start working intravenously within a few seconds, making this a good emergency therapy option.
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Identifying Laws
The ___________ is a federal law that affects the regulation of pharmacy practice, by allowing states to establish their own laws.
Answer:
10th Amendment
Explanation:
I calculated it logically
The recommended water intake for older adults is ______ it is for younger adults.
A) higher than
B) lower than
C) the same as
Answer:
C) the same as
Explanation:
The recommended water intake for older adults is the same as it is for younger adults.
Mediation can teach you how to get rid of negative thoughts all together.
True
False
Answer:True
Explanation:
How much does a neurosurgeon make?
Answer:
Average Neurosurgeon Salary
$412,292
a drug that binds with a postsynaptic receptor and interferes with the action of the receptor (blocks ion channel from opening), but does not interfere with the binding site for the principal neurotransmitter s would be termed a(n)
Answer:
indirect antagonist
Explanation:
In pharmacology, an indirect agonist or indirect-acting agonist is a substance that enhances the release or action of an endogenous neurotransmitter but has no specific agonist activity at the neurotransmitter receptor itself.
A drug that binds with a postsynaptic receptor and interferes with the action of the receptor (blocks ion channel from opening), but does not interfere with the binding site for the principal neurotransmitter would be termed an antagonist.
Antagonists work by blocking the action of the neurotransmitter on the postsynaptic receptor. This can be accomplished either by directly blocking the binding site on the receptor, or by interfering with the ion channels associated with the receptor.
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What is the maximum amount of daily caffeine intake that does not have a negative effect on fluid balance?.
The maximum amount of caffeine intake that does not have a negative effect on fluid balance is about 400 mg per day.
Caffeine is a diuretic, which means it increases urine output. This can lead to dehydration if not enough fluid is consumed. Caffeine also has a stimulating effect on the nervous system, which can lead to increased heart rate and blood pressure. This amount of caffeine is safe for most people and does not cause dehydration. Caffeine is a stimulant that affects the central nervous system. Consuming more than 400 mg of caffeine can cause restlessness, anxiety, and heart palpitations. Caffeine can also cause headaches, nausea, and dizziness.
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A 12-month-old toddler weighing 18 pounds is brought to the clinic because of weakness, slow physical growth, and developmental delays. His mother reports that the only food he will consume is cow's milk. The symptoms support a diagnosis of which form of anemia
The symptoms support a diagnosis of iron-deficiency anemia.
What is anemia?Anemia is a disease condition in which their is low production of red blood cells in the body or low amount of iron present in the body for production of red blood cells.
Iron-deficiency anemia a produces symptoms such as weakness, slow physical growth, and developmental delays in children.
Therefore, the symptoms support a diagnosis of iron-deficiency anemia.
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You are called to the scene of a 47 year old man with a current chief complain of chest pain. The patient informs you he has never been sick a day in his life prior to this which of the following will provide you the greatest information
As
a healthcare leader how can you adapt your professional practice to
integrate a focus on chronic disease management and support
successful aging in place ?
As a healthcare leader, there are several ways to adapt professional practice to integrate a focus on chronic disease management and support successful aging in place. This can include:
Promoting preventive care and regular health screenings to identify chronic conditions early.Implementing care coordination and multidisciplinary teams to provide comprehensive and holistic care for individuals with chronic diseases.Incorporating technology solutions for remote monitoring and telehealth services to enhance access to care and support aging in place.Developing educational programs and resources for patients and their families to improve self-management skills and empower individuals to actively participate in their own care.Collaborating with community organizations and resources to create a supportive environment that promotes healthy aging and disease management.By implementing these strategies, healthcare leaders can foster an integrated approach that addresses the unique needs of individuals with chronic diseases and supports their desire to age in place successfully.
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The patient underwent a single-contrast upper GI series on Tuesday. The request form noted severe esophageal burning daily for the past six weeks. The radiology impression was Barrett's esophagus.
Day of Encounter:
Diagnosis Code:
Procedure Code:
Answer:
In a patient underwent a single contrast upper GI series on Tuesday due to severe daily esophageal burning for six weeks, whose radiological diagnostic impression was Barrett's esophagus.
Day of encounter: Tuesday Diagnosis Code: K 22.7 (CIE-10 code for Barrett's Esophagus) Procedure Code: 74240Explanation:
Barrett's esophagus is a clinical condition characterized by a change in the esophageal epithelium due to repeated exposure to gastric juices, by reflux, or other mucosal irritants.
Corrosive agents are considered to produce a change in the epithelium called metaplasia, associated with symptoms of esophageal burning and pain.
The ICD-10 code for Barrett's esophagus is K 22.7.
The procedure, which consists of a radiological examination of the upper digestive tract with the use of barium contrast has a code of 74240, which describes this type of radiological examination.
facial injuries should be identified and treated as soon as possible because:
Facial injuries should be identified and treated as soon as possible because: early identification and treatment of facial injuries are essential to prevent complications, preserve facial aesthetics and function, and minimize pain and discomfort.
Seeking timely medical care ensures the best possible outcomes for patients with facial injuries.
Prompt identification and treatment of facial injuries are crucial to prevent further complications and promote optimal healing. Facial injuries can involve soft tissues, bones, nerves, and blood vessels, and they can have significant functional and aesthetic implications. Timely assessment and treatment offer the following benefits:
Prevention of complications: Early intervention can help prevent complications such as infection, excessive scarring, and functional impairments. Prompt treatment can minimize the risk of secondary infections and reduce the potential for long-term damage.
Preservation of facial aesthetics and function: Facial injuries can affect appearance, facial symmetry, and vital functions such as breathing, eating, and speaking. Timely treatment allows for proper realignment of fractured bones, closure of wounds, and restoration of facial structures and function, optimizing both cosmetic outcomes and quality of life.
Minimization of pain and discomfort: Immediate medical attention can alleviate pain and discomfort associated with facial injuries. Appropriate pain management and treatment strategies can be implemented promptly, promoting the patient's comfort and well-being.
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Scenario: Mr. Gagnon is a 58-year-old man who has weakness on the left side of his body. You
are assigned to help him dress in regular clothes after breakfast. He is sitting in a chair in his room,
wearing pyjamas, a robe, and slippers. His fresh clothes are on the bed, including an undershirt,
dress shirt, slacks, socks, and shoes.
1. How did you provide for Mr. Gagnon’s privacy? 2. How did you position Mr. Gagnon to undress and dress him? 3. Which arm did you redress first and why? 4. What directions were you able to follow in Chapter 31 of the textbook to make this task easier? 5. Discuss how Mr. Gagnon might feel if unable to assist in getting dressed.
To provide for Mr. Gagnon's privacy, I would ensure that the door to his room is closed, and I would draw the curtains or blinds if necessary. I would also communicate with him to make sure he is comfortable with the level of privacy and ask if he needs any additional assistance.
To position Mr. Gagnon for undressing and dressing, I would have him remain seated in the chair, ensuring that it is stable and comfortable. I would position him with his weaker side facing towards me to facilitate easier access and support during the dressing process.
I would redress Mr. Gagnon's stronger arm first. By addressing the stronger arm first, it allows him to actively participate in the dressing process and maintain some level of independence. It can also help him feel more engaged and in control of the situation.
Chapter 31 of the textbook may provide directions and guidance on techniques to facilitate dressing individuals with mobility limitations. It may cover topics such as adaptive clothing, techniques for dressing weak or paralyzed limbs, and strategies for maintaining privacy and dignity during the process. Following the directions provided in the textbook can help make this task easier and ensure a safe and respectful approach to dressing Mr. Gagnon.
If Mr. Gagnon is unable to assist in getting dressed, he may feel frustrated, dependent, or vulnerable. It is essential to approach the situation with empathy, respect, and sensitivity. Communicating with him throughout the process, explaining each step, and actively involving him in decision-making when possible can help maintain his dignity and sense of control. Offering reassurance, positive reinforcement, and acknowledging his feelings can also help alleviate any potential negative emotions he may experience.
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Paul is setting up a marketing/sales event at a community center where he is going to discuss UnitedHealthcare Medicare Advantage plans. He has placed a UnitedHealthcare logo pen ($3 value), Clarity Guide, and an Enrollment Guide at each seat. What, if anything, has Paul done wrong?
Answer:
Explanation:
Nothing
Paul has followed the rules for marketing/sales events regarding UnitedHealthcare Medicare Advantage plans.
He has provided promotional items of nominal value, as the UnitedHealthcare logo pen is worth $3. Additionally, Paul has included informative material like the Clarity Guide and Enrollment Guide, which are essential for educating attendees about the plans offered.
These materials are approved by UnitedHealthcare and are specifically related to the plans being discussed.
By staying within the $15 nominal value limit and providing approved marketing and plan-specific material, Paul ensures compliance with regulations and creates a positive and informative experience for the community center attendees.
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Her peak HR was 79% of age-predicted maximum. Would this be considered "chronotropic incompetence" (inability of the heart to increase its rate with increased activity) or due to something else?
A peak heart rate of 79% of the age-predicted maximum may be concerning, but it is not necessarily indicative of chronotropic incompetence. Further evaluation and testing would be necessary to make a definitive diagnosis
Chronotropic incompetence," which refers to the inability of the heart to increase its rate with increased activity. This condition can be a sign of underlying cardiovascular disease and can have significant implications for one's overall health and fitness.
In the case of this student, their peak heart rate was measured at 79% of their age-predicted maximum. While this may seem like a high number, it is important to note that the age-predicted maximum is only an estimate based on age and does not take into account individual factors such as fitness level, genetics, and overall health.
To determine if this student is experiencing chronotropic incompetence, it would be necessary to perform further testing and evaluation. This could include a stress test, which measures the heart's response to increased activity, or an echocardiogram, which can provide detailed images of the heart and identify any abnormalities or structural issues.
Other factors that could contribute to a lower peak heart rate could include dehydration, medication use, or even simply being out of shape. It is important to consider all of these factors when evaluating an individual's heart rate response to exercise.
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a measure of health status that attempts to gauge the social impact of various diseases and conditions by adjusting for differences in the age of the population affected is:
The social impact of various diseases by adjusting for differences in the age of the population affected in years of potential life lost.
Diseases are aberrant conditions that specifically harm an organism's structure or function, either entirely or partially, without being immediately brought on by any external stimulus. Medical illnesses with observable signs and symptoms are known as diseases. Sickness can be brought on by either internal issues or external influences like infections.
For example, problems with the internal immune system can cause a wide range of illnesses, such as different immunodeficiency types, hypersensitivity, allergies, and autoimmune diseases.
Additional illness categories include infectious and non-contagious diseases. The three most fatal illnesses that impact people are lower respiratory infections, cerebrovascular disease, and coronary artery disease (blood flow restriction).
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the next time you have a headache, you will be more likely to take ibuprofen again because of which operant conditioning process?
The operant conditioning process that would make you more likely to take ibuprofen again for a headache is positive reinforcement.
The operant conditioning process that would make you more likely to take ibuprofen again for a headache is positive reinforcement. In operant conditioning, positive reinforcement refers to the process of increasing the likelihood of a behavior by presenting a desirable stimulus immediately after the behavior occurs. In this case, taking ibuprofen provides relief from your headache, which serves as a positive stimulus. As a result, you are more likely to repeat the behavior of taking ibuprofen in the future when you experience a headache, seeking the positive reinforcement of pain relief. Over time, this reinforcement strengthens the association between taking ibuprofen and headache relief, increasing the likelihood of the behavior being repeated.
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How many compressions per cycle should be provided to an adult, child or infant when doing cpr?.
Answer:
15 compressions to 2 breaths.
Explanation:
Two minutes usually allow for five cycles of 30 chest compressions and two breaths. A two-minute CPR cycle is usually tiring.
Choose the answer.
Which resource can be used to help spell, pronounce, and define medical terms?
Hippocratic dictionary
Hippocratic thesaurus
medical dictionary
medical thesaurus
Answer:
medical dictionary
Explanation:
The resource that can be used to help spell, pronounce, and define medical terms is the medical dictionary.
The medical dictionary contains the lexicon of words that medical practitioners or students use. When there's a medical terms that a person doesn't understand, the medical dictionary can help the student as it gives the meaning of the term.In conclusion, the best option is C.
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True or false? you will probably be first admitted into the er of a hospital if you are involved in a serious car accident. True false.
Answer: True
Explanation: if the car accident is severe then it would be best to check if you sustained any injuries
a patient tells the nurse that she is having a hard time bringing her hand to her mouth when she eats or tries to brush her teeth. the nurse knows that for her to move her hand to her mouth, she must perform which movement? group of answer choices abduction adduction extension flexion
A patient tells the nurse that she is having a hard time bringing her hand to her mouth when she eats or tries to brush her teeth and the nurse knows that for her to move her hand to her mouth, she must perform which movement of flexion.
Flexion describes a bending movement that decreases the angle between a phase and its proximal phase. For instance, bending the elbow, or brush her teeth, clenching a hand into a hand, are some samples of flexion.
Nurse are ought to take care of patients by providing bedside assistance, feeding assistance, administration of medication, monitoring of vitals and recovery progress and also the postpartum support.
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a 58-year-old female presents to the clinic with concern for chest pain over the past three months. she describes the pain as sharp and stabbing, in the mid-sternal region, lasting for one to two minutes, occurring a few times a day. the pain can come on at rest or with exertion and resolves on its own. it has not become worse since it began. there is no associated diaphoresis, shortness of breath, nausea, jaw pain, or pain with movement, eating, or laying supine. she has a 10-year history of obesity and hypertension for which she takes chlorthalidone and lisinopril. she was recently diagnosed with diabetes that has been controlled by diet. physical examination shows her pulse is 86 beats/minute, respiration rate is 16 breaths/minute, and blood pressure is 135/85 mmhg. her lungs are clear, heart sounds are normal, and there is no chest wall tenderness to palpation or abdominal tenderness. there is no peripheral edema. how would you best characterize her chest pain?
Answer:
Anxiety
Explanation:
Since there aren't any odd or unnatural events in the heart, and her diabetes and sicknesses are under control, the best guess would have to be anxiety. Also, another indicator is that this sharp pain comes on during any activity and goes away by themselves, I would believe this is anxiety.
the nurse is caring for a client with angina. if wanting to reduce the frank–starling effect on myocardial oxygen consumption, what type of medication would the nurse expect to be prescribed?
The Frank-Starling effect refers to the relationship between the end-diastolic volume of the heart and the amount of blood pumped by the heart during each beat. When the end-diastolic volume increases, so does the amount of blood pumped by the heart, which can increase myocardial oxygen consumption.
In a patient with angina, reducing the Frank-Starling effect can help to reduce myocardial oxygen demand and relieve symptoms. To achieve this, the nurse would expect the doctor to prescribe a class of medications called beta blockers.
Beta blockers work by blocking the effects of the hormone adrenaline, which increases heart rate and contractility. By reducing heart rate and contractility, beta blockers can reduce myocardial oxygen demand and relieve symptoms of angina. In addition, beta blockers can also help to improve blood flow to the heart by dilating blood vessels, which can help to reduce the risk of future angina attacks.
It's important to note that while beta blockers can be effective in reducing the symptoms of angina, they may not be suitable for all patients, as they can interact with other medications and have side effects. The nurse would monitor the patient for any adverse effects and report them to the physician, who would then determine if any adjustments to the medication regimen are necessary.
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