Passengers seated in the rear of a vehicle and wearing only lap belts do have a higher incidence of injuries to the spine during a rear-end crash.
This occurs because lap belts mainly secure the lower part of the body, leaving the upper body and spine without adequate support during the impact. In a rear-end crash, the forward motion of the vehicle can cause the upper body to whip forward, putting stress on the spine and potentially leading to injuries. To minimize the risk of spine injuries, it is recommended to wear a combination of lap and shoulder belts, which provide better overall protection during a crash.
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A laboratory coat is considered to be ____ as a substitute for a medical gown.
a.acceptable
b.reasonable
c.unacceptable
d.equal
A laboratory coat is considered to be a reasonable substitute for a medical gown. A laboratory coat also offers some level of protection to the wearer's clothing and skin.
While a medical gown is specifically designed to provide full-body protection against infectious agents, a laboratory coat also offers some level of protection to the wearer's clothing and skin. Additionally, laboratory coats are commonly used in medical and research settings, so they are readily available and familiar to staff members. However, it is important to note that laboratory coats may not provide the same level of protection as medical gowns and should not be used in situations where a higher level of protection is required. Ultimately, the choice of protective clothing should be based on a risk assessment of the specific situation.
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What does a lateral view during a Videofluoroscopy show?
A lateral view during a Videofluoroscopy shows the side view of the person's swallowing process, which allows healthcare professionals to assess the movement and coordination of the tongue, pharynx, and larynx. It also shows the passage of food or liquid from the mouth to the esophagus and detects any abnormalities.
1. Oral phase: Examines the patient's ability to manipulate and move food or liquid within the mouth, including tongue movement and bolus formation.
2. Pharyngeal phase: Assesses the closure of the airway, ensuring that food or liquid does not enter the trachea, as well as the opening of the upper esophageal sphincter, which allows the bolus to pass into the esophagus.
3. Esophageal phase: Observes the transit of the bolus through the esophagus, ensuring that it reaches the stomach without any obstructions or difficulties.
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although vitamin a requirements are the same for adults of all ages, what changes contribute to concern regarding vitamin a intake in the elderly?
While the recommended daily allowance for vitamin A may be the same for all adults, the ability of the body to absorb and utilize the vitamin changes as we age.
This can lead to concerns regarding vitamin A intake in the elderly. As we age, the digestive system becomes less efficient, which can impact the absorption of nutrients, including vitamin A. Additionally, certain medications commonly prescribed to seniors, such as cholesterol-lowering drugs, can interfere with the absorption of vitamin A. Furthermore, many elderly individuals may have a limited or restrictive diet, which can lead to a deficiency in vitamin A and other essential nutrients. Vitamin A is important for maintaining eye health, immune function, and overall health, so ensuring adequate intake is particularly important for the elderly population.
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In which publication does the CDC initially publish new or updated vaccine recommendations?
For the patient's lifetime.
Morbidity and Mortality Weekly Report (MMWR)
There are fewer temperature fluctuations
The CDC (Centers for Disease Control and Prevention) initially publishes new or updated vaccine recommendations in the (B) Morbidity and Mortality Weekly Report (MMWR).
The MMWR is a widely recognized publication that provides the latest information on public health issues, including vaccine recommendations and updates. It serves as a primary source of official information from the CDC regarding various health topics, including vaccination guidelines.
The MMWR plays a crucial role in disseminating important information to healthcare professionals, policymakers, and the public, ensuring that they stay informed about the latest developments in vaccine recommendations.
By publishing in the MMWR, the CDC aims to reach a wide audience and promote evidence-based vaccine practices for the lifelong health and well-being of individuals.
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The client is diagnosed with chronic skin hardening, which is noticeable in the stiffness of facial expressions. What is this condition called?
identify any two factors that could promote unacceptable behaviour among spectators
Answer:
. Social Identity Theory
Hooliganism
Explanation:
Since im studying animals (im training to be a vet) what is the most fragile part of a dogs body?
Probably their muzzle.
In your opinion , what is the relationship between the agri-food industry and the health care system ?
The relationship between the agri-food industry and the health care system in my opinion is that the quality of food produce has a direct effect on the quality of our healthy living.
What is meant by agri-food industry?Agri-food industry is a kind of agricultural industry which is concerned with the commercial production of food substances both in raw and processed form. The development of agri-food industries has really helped many nations, countries, regions or individual to feed on a particular preference of food.
So therefore, the relationship between the agri-food industry and the health care system in my opinion is that the quality of food produce has a direct effect on the quality of our healthy living.
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which area of the brain is involved in pain?
hippocampus
adjacent cortex
amygdala
PAQ
jin z, gan tj, bergese sd. prevention and treatment of postoperative nausea and vomiting (ponv): a review of current recommendations and emerging therapies. ther clin risk manag. 2020;16:1305-1317.
Jin Z, Gan TJ, Bergese SD in their article titled, "Prevention and Treatment of Postoperative Nausea and Vomiting (PONV): A Review of Current Recommendations and Emerging Therapies" published in Ther Clin Risk Manag (2020) 16.
1305-1317 reviewed the existing practices and emerging therapies related to the prevention and treatment of postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV).The article begins by highlighting the need for better PONV prevention practices and that patients with an elevated risk of PONV be identified beforehand. PONV is said to be one of the most common issues that patients face after undergoing anesthesia and is a leading cause of delayed recovery and unplanned hospital admission.
This leads to further complications and can also increase costs, thus emphasizing the importance of PONV prevention. Various recommendations were made in the article, including avoiding the use of a single antiemetic agent, and the administration of multiple antiemetic medications that work on different targets, as well as the inclusion of nonpharmacological therapies such as acupuncture, acupressure, and transcutaneous electrical stimulation (TES) of the P6 (Nei-Kuan) point.
However, the authors of the article noted that while the recommendations made are evidence-based, it is important to note that each patient may respond differently, so therapy must be individualized and adjusted to meet the patient's needs. The authors suggested that personalized therapy should be used to minimize PONV and its adverse effects. Thus, they emphasized the importance of early detection of PONV risks and the implementation of effective PONV prevention strategies that could reduce patient discomfort, improve patient outcomes, and reduce overall healthcare costs.
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a patient is admitted to the unit with respiratory distress and acute decompensated heart failure (adhf). which clinical findings would the nurse expect to find during the initial assessment?
When assessing a patient with respiratory distress and acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF), the nurse may expect to find the following clinical findings during the initial assessment:
Respiratory symptoms: The patient may have increased work of breathing, shortness of breath (dyspnea), rapid and shallow breathing (tachypnea), or use of accessory muscles to breathe. They may also report orthopnea (difficulty breathing while lying flat) or paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (sudden awakening at night with difficulty breathing).
Cyanosis: The patient's lips, fingertips, or nail beds may appear bluish due to inadequate oxygenation.
Abnormal lung sounds: Upon auscultation, the nurse may hear crackles (rales) or wheezing in the lung fields. These findings suggest pulmonary congestion or fluid accumulation.
Distended neck veins: The nurse may observe jugular venous distention (JVD), indicating increased central venous pressure due to fluid overload.
Edema: Peripheral edema may be present, particularly in the lower extremities. The nurse may assess for pitting edema by pressing a finger against the swollen area and observing if an indentation remains.
Rapid and weak peripheral pulses: Due to decreased cardiac output, the patient may have weak peripheral pulses. The nurse may check the radial or pedal pulses for strength, regularity, and symmetry.
Elevated blood pressure: ADHF can lead to increased blood pressure due to the activation of compensatory mechanisms such as the sympathetic nervous system.
Heart murmur: The nurse may detect abnormal heart sounds, such as a systolic or diastolic murmur, which can indicate valvular dysfunction or structural heart abnormalities.
Increased heart rate: The patient may have an elevated heart rate (tachycardia) in response to the heart's attempt to compensate for decreased cardiac output.
Altered mental status: In severe cases, decreased cerebral perfusion due to compromised cardiac output can result in confusion or restlessness.
It's important to note that these clinical findings can vary depending on the severity of ADHF and any underlying conditions the patient may have. The nurse should perform a comprehensive assessment to gather a complete picture of the patient's condition and provide appropriate care.
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a new resident in a skilled nursing faciltiy is epxeirneicn gdifficulty iwth sleep. what does the nurse considera s contributing to this clients problem with sleepand rest
Uncomfortable mattress, adjusting to a new environment, bright lights in the hallway and warm environment. These might be considered as common client issues.
Developing sleep rituals which include quiet activities before sleeping. Reading, relaxing music, meditation or other stillness practice, and the traditional warm bath can are relaxing, helping to induce sleep.
Relaxing through imagery, meditation or breathing exercises can help the body ready itself for rest. Mindfulness mediation, which emphasizes focusing on breath and bringing the mind into the present., has been linked to a host of different health improvements.
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hans selye’s general adaptation syndrome primarily explains that
Stressors strain the body in three stages: initially jolting it, then requiring it to adjust, and finally exhausting all of its physical resources, which eventually paves the way for significant health issues and even death.
What are the three types of stress responses?The general adaptation syndrome describes how your body responds to stress. The three stages of stress are the alert stage, the resistance stage, and the weariness stage.
What does Hans Selye's general adaption syndrome entail?The mechanism through which your body responds to stress is known as "general adaption syndrome" (GAS). In 1946, physicist Hans Selye became the first person to notice the phenomenon. 1. The easiest way to understand GAS is to consider of it as the several stages of stress and how your body reacts to each level.
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You have just administered nitroglycerin to a 68-year-old patient. Within a few minutes, she
complains of feeling faint and lightheaded, but states that she is still having some chest pain. Which
of the following would be the BEST sequence of actions?Lower the head of the stretcher and take the patients blood pressure
The following would be the best sequence of actions lower the head of the stretcher and take the patients blood pressure.
A stretcher, gurney, muddle, or pram is an equipment used for shifting sufferers who require hospital treatment. A simple type (cot or clutter) must be carried by using or greater humans. A wheeled stretcher (called a gurney, trolley, bed or cart) is frequently equipped with variable height frames, wheels, tracks, or skids.
Patient person comes from the Latin “patiens,” from “patior,” to suffer or bear. The patient, on this language, is absolutely passive—bearing whatever suffering is important and tolerating patiently the interventions of the out of doors expert.
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48. A. Drugs that are ______________ are typically considered to
have lower addiction risk.
Shorter acting
longer acting
fat soluble
fat insoluble
The answer to the question is, "Drugs that are longer acting are typically considered to have lower addiction risk."
Longer-acting drugs are generally classified as drugs that continue to operate in the body for an extended period of time. In contrast to shorter-acting medications, which only persist for a short period before being removed from the system, longer-acting drugs, which can stay in the system for days or even weeks, have a significantly lower addiction risk.The extended-release (ER) and sustained-release (SR) tablets are examples of longer-acting medications. Opioids, amphetamines, and other medications that are typically prone to abuse may be available in this form. These medications help to keep pain or mental illness symptoms under control without the need for frequent dosing.The addiction risk for longer-acting drugs is lower than that for shorter-acting drugs because these drugs do not create as intense a high or withdrawal symptom. People are less likely to take more of the medication than is recommended if the drug's effects last for an extended period.
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What is the average age of onset for schizophrenia?.
On a cold, icy, winter day, Dr. Roberts was severely injured in a motor vehicle crash on his way to the
hospital. He was listed in critical condition for several days, lapsing in and out of a coma. Dr. Roberts
finally stabilized and was released home after 2 weeks. With lots of hard work and rehabilitation, Dr.
Roberts went back to work after 5 months. Within 2 weeks, his support staff and the hospital personnel
started noticing his forgetfulness. He forgot to document that he had ordered an x-ray. He argued with an
MA regarding his request that a narcotic medication be called in for a client. The answering service called
the hospital on a weekend when they could not find Dr. Roberts, who was on call. Instead, Dr. Roberts
forgot he was on call and left town unexpectedly. The hospital's board of trustees is about to take action.
that rarely occurs. The feel the need to deem Dr. Roberts incompetent to practice medicine and have his
license revoked. If you are a member of Dr. Roberts' staff, what might you do in this situation?Does this
situation fall under ethics or law? Explain your answer. Is there any other action that might be taken by the
hospital's board of trustees?
Any person who is in a state or country that has those laws in place is subject to legal action. Ethical rights, on the other hand, are viewed as a person's choice and independent action based on their opinion of right and wrong.
What are some instances when the law and ethics interact?People cannot be forced to be fair, honest, or caring by the law. For instance, it's not unlawful to lie or break a trust, but it's immoral. While not all careers in the healthcare industry are required to follow a code of ethics, all of them do.Stealing to feed your family is a prime one. If your family is going hungry, it may be morally acceptable to steal even though it is against the law and ethically wrong.Any person who is in a state or country that has those laws in place is subject to legal action. Ethical rights, on the other hand, are viewed as a person's choice and independent action based on their opinion of right and wrong.To learn more about Ethical rights refer to:
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Autonomy that might be taken by the hospital's board of trustees
What are the four medical ethics guiding principles?Autonomy, non-maleficence, beneficence, and justice—the four Beauchamp and Childress principles—have had a significant impact on the study of medical ethics and are essential to comprehending the present method of moral evaluation in the medical industry.One of the most important, but difficult, ethical principles in medicine is patient autonomy. In recent literature, the notion that each patient should be free to choose how to live their lives, including how to get medical care, has gained more traction.The patient has the choice to assign decision-making responsibility to another individual thanks to the autonomy concept.To learn more about ethical principles refer to:
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Does anyone have a favorite character in modern family
Answer:
No i like them all
Explanation:
Answer: yea kinda, Jay and his sister are my favorite characters in Modern Family
Mixing alcohol with which type of medications can trigger nausea and vomiting? A. Antibiotics B. Analgesics C. Anticoagulants D. Sedatives E. Antihistamines.
Sedatives, Mixing alcohol with sedatives can trigger nausea and vomiting, as well as dizziness, drowsiness, and difficulty breathing. It's important to follow your doctor's instructions when taking any medication, including sedatives, and to avoid consuming alcohol while on these medications.
When alcohol is combined with sedatives, it can amplify the sedative effects of the medication, leading to negative side effects such as nausea and vomiting. This is because both alcohol and sedatives act as depressants on the central nervous system, which can slow down bodily functions and cause a range of unpleasant symptoms. It's also worth noting that mixing alcohol with any medication can be dangerous, as it can interfere with the way the medication is metabolized and increase the risk of serious side effects or overdose. If you're unsure about whether it's safe to consume alcohol with a particular medication, it's best to consult with your doctor or pharmacist.
Some antibiotics, especially those in the macrolide and nitroimidazole classes, can cause adverse reactions when mixed with alcohol. This can lead to symptoms like nausea and vomiting, headaches, and rapid heart rate. It is important to avoid alcohol consumption while taking these medications to prevent such unpleasant side effects.
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Suzanne was diagnosed with lymphocytopenia. Lymphocytes are white blood cells, so which best describes Suzanne’s condition?
swelling of white blood cells
abnormally large white blood cells
low levels of white blood cells
ruptured white blood cells
Answer:
C. Low levels of white blood cells
Experimenters arranged for participants to experience subliminal recordings designed
to help them lose weight. According to the research, the recordings will
a. interfere with the participants' capacity for sensory adaptation
O b. have no more impact on participants' weight than a placebo
O c. improve participants' capacity for auditory transduction
O d. have a positive and long-lasting impact on participants' eating habits
An experiment is a scientific procedure aimed at testing a hypothesis. The hypothesis is a plausible explanation of some aspect of the real world that must be confirmed or rejected by using the scientific method.
According to the research, the recordings will have a positive and long-lasting impact on participants' eating habits (Option d).In this case, the hypothesis is that recordings will have a positive impact on eating habits.An experiment is a scientific procedure that is used for the collection of empirical evidence.Subsequently, this empirical evidence is then used to test (either support or reject) the working hypothesis.Learn more in:
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Health is defined as being free of disease, _______________ is defined as a constant and deliberate effort to stay healthy and achieve the highest potential for well-being.
Health is defined as being free of disease, wellness is defined as a constant and deliberate effort to stay healthy and achieve the highest potential for well-being.
Health is a state of being free from diseases and illnesses. It refers to the state of the human body where there is a complete absence of disease and illness. In contrast, wellness is defined as a constant and deliberate effort to stay healthy and achieve the highest potential for well-being. Wellness refers to the state of physical, mental, and emotional well-being and requires a proactive and holistic approach.
It involves actively taking steps to maintain good health and prevent illness.Wellness encompasses a range of activities and behaviors, including healthy eating, exercise, stress management, and regular medical check-ups. It also involves taking care of one's mental and emotional health, practicing self-care, and building strong social relationships. By practicing wellness, individuals can improve their overall quality of life and reduce their risk of developing chronic diseases such as diabetes, heart disease, and cancer.
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Which best describes the different mechanisms of mitoxantrone and carboplatin
Answer:
Explanation:
Carboplatin undergoes activation inside cells and forms reactive platinum complexes that cause the intra- and inter-strand cross-linkage of DNA molecules within the cell. This modifies the DNA structure and inhibits DNA synthesis. This may affect a cell in all the phases of its cycle.
Select the correct answer.
From which language do most medical terms originate?
A.
German
B.
Chinese
C.
English
D.
Greek
John, an overweight 49-year-old man with history of diabetes and hypertension is playing soccer. After half an hour of an intense game, he feels severe chest pain that travels to his lower jaw. He is pale, diaphoretic, and short in breath. Upon arrival to the ER, an ECG was taken and the results show the following (note the changes in leads II, III and aVF): 1) What could be the possible reason for John’s chest pain? Explain your answer based on the clinical information.
2) How do you know John’s chest pain is heart related? How do you rule out other etiologies of chest pain such as musculoskeletal, pneumonia, and gastric sources?
3) What actions should John’s teammates have taken at the scene to help him?
4) How do you differentiate between heart attack and myocardial infarction?
5) What is TPA? Explain how it relieves the chest pain and how it improves the survival rate in a patient with acute myocardial infarction
1) The possible reason for John's chest pain is a heart attack, also known as myocardial infarction.
2) John's chest pain is likely heart-related due to the classic symptoms of severe chest pain that radiates to the jaw and shortness of breath.
3) John's teammates should have called 911 immediately and helped him lie down in a comfortable position.
4) Heart attack and myocardial infarction are often used interchangeably, but a heart attack is a general term used to describe a disruption of blood flow to the heart.
5) TPA (tissue plasminogen activator) is a medication used to treat acute myocardial infarction by dissolving blood clots that are blocking blood flow to the heart.
1) Myocardial infarction, another name for a heart attack, is one potential cause of John's chest pain. His medical history of diabetes and hypertension, together with the symptoms of significant chest pain radiating to the jaw and shortness of breath, point to a heart attack.
2) Due to his medical history of diabetes and hypertension, as well as the typical signs of acute chest pain that radiates to the jaw and shortness of breath, John's chest pain is most likely heart-related. By a physical examination, medical history, and diagnostic procedures such an electrocardiogram (ECG), other aetiologias of chest discomfort can be ruled out, including those related to the musculoskeletal system, pneumonia, and gastrointestinal causes.
3) John's teammates ought to have phoned 911 right away and assisted Him in getting comfortable. Also, they ought to have kept an eye on his vital signs and remained at his side until rescue arrived.
4) Although the terms "heart attack" and "myocardial infarction" are frequently used interchangeably, a heart attack refers to a general disruption of blood flow to the heart while a myocardial infarction specifically describes the death of heart muscle tissue caused by the blockage of a coronary artery.
5) By breaking blood clots that are obstructing blood flow to the heart, TPA (tissue plasminogen activator) is a drug used to treat acute myocardial infarction. TPA can reduce chest discomfort by breaking the blood clot, which helps to stop additional cardiac damage and restore blood flow to the heart muscle. In patients with acute myocardial infarction, the use of TPA can increase survival rates by minimizing heart muscle damage.
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A nurse is creating a client education sheet for a client diagnosed with heart failure. The nurse understands that this information should be written at which Flesch-Kincaid Grade Level? A) 3rdB) 6thC) 8th
B) 6th. The information should be written at a 6th grade level to ensure that the client can understand and comprehend the information provided.
The use of simple language, clear explanations, and avoiding technical terms will make it easier for the client to understand and retain the information.
When creating a client education sheet for someone diagnosed with heart failure, it is important to use language that is easily understandable to the average reader. Writing at a 6th grade level ensures that the client can comprehend the information provided and can make informed decisions about their health. Additionally, using simple explanations, avoiding technical terms, and including visual aids such as diagrams or illustrations can help reinforce the information and make it easier to retain. Overall, the goal is to provide the client with accurate and helpful information in a way that is easy to understand and can empower them to take an active role in managing their heart failure.
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If a listed dosage on the MAR and the medicine’s packaging do not match, which action should you take?
Answer:
Go and see the doctor
Explanation:
E will tell you hw to take it
The nurse understands that the client who is undergoing induction therapy for leukemia needs additional instruction when the client makes which statement
The question is incomplete as it lacks the group of choices or statements, however the generalized answer is provided on the basis of knowledge.
Answer:
The correct statement would be - "i can not wait to get home to my pet"
Explanation:
Induction therapy affects the WBC of the patient as it destroys during the therapy which leaves them prone for infection and risk of bleeding tendencies.
Pets like dog or cat contains infection which is dangerous for such patient as there is very low production of new platelets and WBC so one should avoid the contact with the animals or people with cold or cough.
Thus, the correct answer would be - "i can not wait to get home to my pet"
Tightness of the muscles can clamp down on the sciatic nerve and result in lower back pain.
a. True
b. False
It is true that the tightness of the muscles can clamp down on the sciatic nerve and result in lower back pain.
The muscular system is a group of organs that includes skeletal, smooth, or cardiac muscle. It allows the body to move, maintains posture, & circulates blood throughout the body. The neurological system controls the muscular systems of vertebrates, while certain muscles are entirely independent.
Piriformis is really a muscle in the buttocks around the top of the hip joint. Piriformis syndrome develops when the piriformis muscle compresses the sciatic nerve, causing lower back discomfort and numbness in the lower leg. When the piriformis muscle spasms, tightens, and/or gets inflamed, it can irritate the sciatic nerve. This inflammation causes sciatica-like pain, tingling, with numbness to spread from the buttock to the leg and, in some cases, into the foot.
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Tightness of the muscles can clamp down on the sciatic nerve and result in lower back pain is true. Vertebrate muscular systems are controlled by the neurological system, yet certain muscles are completely autonomous.
The muscles system includes cardiac, smooth, and skeletal muscle. It keeps the body in a good posture, enables movement, and ensures blood flow throughout the body. A muscle called the piriformis surrounds the hip joint's apex in the buttocks. Piriformis syndrome, which causes lower back discomfort and numbness in the lower legs, is brought on when the piriformis muscle compresses the sciatic nerve. When the piriformis muscle spasms, tightens, and/or gets inflamed, the sciatic nerve may become irritated. Similar to sciatica, this inflammation causes pain, tingling, and numbness from the buttock to the leg and, in some cases, the foot.
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Helen a regular customer need to send money to her grandson best friend after receiving an emergency call their car broke down while traveling across the country what should you do/say to determine if Helen is a victim of fraud
Answer:
The correct answer is -
- is your grandson ok? How come he didn't call you directly
- Aren't you lucky to be so close with your grandson and his friend; do you get to see or talk with them often?
Explanation:
To know if Helen is a victim of fraud or not we need to analyze and ask the question to see if the doubts are valid or not. It is very unlikely that her grandson's best friend calls her and not the grandson himself for help. Are they are so close and often meet so they are well known to each other to ask for such type of help and why not the grandson.
If they really well know with the friends and their grandson is able to ask the help himself, this is genuine if not she might have victim of the fraud.