Discuss 2 uses of electrical accessories
Answer:
A switch is used to make a circuit ON and OFF.
A holder is used with a lamp
Explanation:
What elements of food should you avoid if you’re eating within an hour of morning exercise/training?
Answer:
Explanation:
Granola or Protein Bars. 1/12. These might seem like a good idea before you hit the gym, but there's no clear definition of what they really are. ...
High-Fiber Vegetables. 2/12. ...
High-Fat Food. 3/12. ...
Yogurt. 4/12. ...
Smoothies. 5/12. ...
Flaxseed. 6/12. ...
Fast Food. 7/12. ...
Energy Drinks. 8/12
6. What do teens face socially?
Answer:
I HOPE I HELPED
Explanation:
the concerns of the challenges of being a US teen: what the data shows anxiety and depression serious mental stress is a fact of the life for many Americans alcohol and drugs in society and depression are the only concerned for us teens bullying and cyberbullying gangs poverty and teen pregnancy.THIS IS THE ANSWER BUT I PUT IT IN THE WRONG SPOT MY BAD
Dr. Bert Vogelstein and his partners study the causes of cancer. In 2017, they published a study of 32 types of cancer. The study concluded that most
cancer cases are caused by DNA replication errors. In fact, 66% of the cancer cases they studied were caused by random DNA replication errors.
Environmental factors such as diet, sunburns, and smoking caused 29% of the cancers. The last 5% of cancers in the study were caused by inherited
factors
What do cells build with DNA code?
A tRNA
B. mRNA
C. codons
D. proteins
1. Fixed prosthesis including crowns, bridges and implants
Answer:
A fixed prosthesis is a permanent solution used to replace one tooth or multiple teeth at the same time. Fixed prostheses include onlays, inlays, bridges, veneers, and crowns. No matter the choice you make, a fixed prosthesis replaces or restores your teeth by using an artificial but permanent substitute that can not be removed from your mouth.
Explanation:
Hopes this helps :D
Fiber is indigestible plant polysaccharide true or false
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Dietary fiber consists of nondigestible carbohydrates and lignin that are intrinsic and intact in plants. This includes waxes, lignin and polysaccharides such as cellulose and pectin. Originally it was thought that dietary fibre was completely indigestible and did not provide any energy.
Many natural products as foods contain a great number of polysaccharides that cannot be completely digested by our digestive system. These indigestible polysaccharides are often called dietary fiber. The typical dietary fiber includes cellulose, hemicellulose, β-glucan, pectin, mucilage, gums and lignin.
To get all those benefits, there are two types of fiber that your body needs: soluble and insoluble. Both come from plants and are forms of carbohydrates. But unlike other carbs, fiber can't be broken down and absorbed by your digestive system.
Dietary fiber, also known as roughage, is the indigestible part of plant foods. Fiber has a host of health benefits, including reducing the risk of heart disease and type 2 diabetes.
infection can be spread through:
a) blood and certain body fluids.
b) airborne droplets.
c) both of the above
Answer:
c
Explanation:
infections can be spread through spit or if you and another blood of somebody else mixes.
How do pathogens enter the body?
Answer:
because the pathogens is th body which can inside our body.
Explanation:
i dont think this is right answer
A person finished the coursework to become a Cdm,cfpp but does not take the credentialing exam. She starts using the Cdm, cfpp credentials anyway
Using a professional credential, such as CDM or CFPP, without actually passing the necessary test to become credentialed is unethical and illegal.
What is a professional credential?A professional credential is used to mark one's knowledge in a particular professional area.
This kind of conduct may be grounds for disciplinary action by the professional organization in charge of granting the credential and is deemed fraud and misrepresentation.
People who have finished the coursework but failed the credentialing test are not eligible to use the credential and must wait until they have finished all the requirements to do so.
Maintaining the integrity of professional credentials is crucial to ensuring that they are only held by people who have proven their competence in the field and have fulfilled the necessary requirements.
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jenny in running for more than an hpur on a pleasant sunny moring. her body is sweating to maintain homeostasis which is caused by the action of a
Jenny's body is sweating to maintain homeostasis, which is caused by the action of the sweat glands.
What is the sweat glands?Specialized skin glands called sweat glands are responsible for producing perspiration. The sweat glands are activated to secrete perspiration onto the skin's surface when the body temperature becomes too high. The body cools down and keeps its internal temperature steady as sweat evaporates.
The body's system for regulating its interior temperature, known as thermoregulation, includes sweating as an essential component. On a nice sunny morning, when Jenny runs for more than an hour, her increased physical activity produces heat. Her body temperature is kept within a regular range via sweating, which helps to expel this extra heat and prevent overheating.
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A 5 year old patient is seen at your clinic and complains of "pain here", as he rubs his chest. His mother says that he has had frequent bouts of coughing off and on for 3 weeks. He has not been as energetic as usual, which the mother says has been a relief at times, as he is normally a bit rambunctious. The mother and father are non smokers, but the boy stays with his grandmother while the parents are at work, and the grandmother is a heavy smoker. The child is in the 60th percentile for weight, and 50th percentile for height. Body temperature is 98.6 F, oxygen saturation (SpO2) is 90%. Lung sounds include crackles and wheezing. The heart sounds have strong, regular S1 and S2. Eardrums appear normal, as do the whites of the eyes and retinas. Of the following choices, which is the most probable issue?
Answer:
lungs cuz smoke affect lungs
A Culture of Safety
Q:
If a mobile blood pressure monitor topples over onto a patient's leg and causes
topical bruising and bleeding, what type of patient safety event would that be?
O Close call/near miss
O Hazardous conditions
O Adverse event
O Sentinel event
Answer:
2 (Hazardous Conditions)
Answer: 3 - Adverse Event
Explanation: An incident that caused harm to a patient.
Your colleagues at work recently started to train for a 5k race
Your colleagues at work recently started to train for a 5k race you decide this would be fun and a good way to get more physical activity so you join your colleagues in training for the race therefore the type of influence on wellness is Social and is denoted as option A.
What is Exercise?This is referred to as a form of physical activity which makes an individual fit and improves the general well being and examples include running, weight lifting etc.
Social influence are the ways in which individuals adjust their behavior to meet the demands of a social environment which is expressed by the individual joining in the race because his colleagues were involved.
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The full question is:
Your colleagues at work recently started to train for a 5k race you decide this would be fun and a good way to get more physical activity so you join your colleagues in training for the race what type of influence on wellness is this an example of
A. Social
B. Intellectual
C. Occupational
D. Environmental
Question 7 of 10
What is the difference between an ethical decision and a legal one?
A. An ethical decision is based on what's right, but may not be a law.
B. An ethical decision affects only the person making it.
C. An ethical decision is always based on a code of law.
D. A legal decision affects only the person making it.
SUBMIT
Identify three of the key leaders in outdoor education
Answer: steve erwin, bob saget, albert enistin
Explanation:
PLEASE HELP!!!!
What are three health risks of stress in the community?
stress can lead to headaches, passing out, or even people lashing out.
Please share the three principles of Developmentally Appropriate Practice. Why are these principles important to follow while teaching young children?
Answer:
Developmentally Appropriate Practice focuses on children birth to eight years and comprises three principle components: Age appropriate, individual appropriate, and social and culturally appropriate. These principles ensure that goals and experiences are suited to their learning and development and challenging enough to promote their progress and interest.
Explanation:
Explain the relationship between muscular strength and endurance and describe their impact on health-related fitness
Answer:
Muscular strength is a measure of how much force a muscle can exert in a single effort, while muscle endurance describes the ability of muscles to contract repeatedly over time.
Muscle strength and endurance develop together: that is, building muscle strength also helps build endurance and vice versa.
Explanation:
Hope that helps you :p
(You should give me a brainllest if you want)
Answer:
The relationship between muscular strength and endurance is when you use one, you use the other. If you lift something heavy, you are using strength to lift it, and endurance to keep it of the ground. Their impact on health-related fitness is it makes muscles and bones stronger and helps prevent injuries.
Explanation:
A patient arrives to have blood drawn for tests requested your physician.
Respond to the following questions:
1) What color blood tube(s) would be used to do a CBC and a Chemistry Panel?
2) If more than one color tube is required, what is the proper order of draw?
3) Does this patient need to be fasting for either of these blood tests? If so, how
would you question the patient about their fasting status?
4) When the patient asks you “what is a CBC”, how will you respond?
5) Explain how each of the blood tubes is prepared for transport to the lab.
6) Identify 5 items that must be included on the lab requisition that accompanies
the specimen(s) to the lab.
1) The color blood tubes used for a Complete Blood Count (CBC) and a Chemistry Panel would be, Lavender top (EDTA) tube and Red top (no additive) tube respectively.
What are the requirements for blood test?2) If more than one color tube is required, the proper order of draw is:
First: Blood culture tubes (if needed)
Second: Serum tubes (red top or tiger top)
Third: Coagulation tubes (light blue top)
Fourth: Heparinized tubes (green top)
Fifth: EDTA tubes (lavender top)
3) The patient may need to be fasting for some of the blood tests included in a Chemistry Panel, but not for a CBC. If the patient needs to be fasting, the proper way to question the patient is to ask: “Have you had anything to eat or drink (except water) in the last 8 to 12 hours?”.
4) If the patient asks what a CBC is, the response would be: “A CBC is a Complete Blood Count, which is a test that measures different components of the blood, including red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. It provides information about your overall health and can help detect various medical conditions.”
5) The blood tubes are prepared for transport to the lab as follows:
Label the tubes with the patient's name, date of birth, and other identifying information.Invert the tubes several times to mix the blood with the anticoagulant in the tube.Secure the tubes in a transportation container to prevent spillage during transport.6) Five items that must be included on the lab requisition that accompanies the specimen(s) to the lab are:
Patient's full name and date of birthPatient's medical record or identifier numberPhysician's name and signatureDetailed description of the tests ordered, including specific tests or panelsAny special instructions, such as fasting status or test priority.Learn more on blood testing here: https://brainly.com/question/91450
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what do you understand by the term person- centred care? ( 100-200 words)
Person-centered care is an approach to healthcare that places the individual at the heart of their care and decision-making process. It recognizes that each person is unique, in their values, preferences, and goals. It aims to provide care tailored to their specific needs. Person-centered care involves actively involving the individual in their care, respecting their autonomy, and considering their physical, emotional, and social well-being.
Person-centered care strives to develop a collaborative and therapeutic relationship with the person they care for. This involves listening attentively to the individual, understanding their concerns, and involving them in decisions about their treatment options, care plans, and goals. The approach also emphasizes the importance of continuity of care, coordination among healthcare providers, and integrating the person's family and support network into the care process.
Person-centered care recognizes that individuals have a central role in managing their health and well-being. It focuses on empowering individuals to actively participate in their care, promoting shared decision-making, and providing support and information to help them make informed choices. Person-centered care is designed to improve care quality, enhance patient satisfaction, and achieve better health outcomes by tailoring healthcare services to the unique needs and preferences of each individual.
You are caring for an infant who is displaying signs of neonatal abstinence syndrome. He is irritable, jittery, hypertonic, and has a high-pitched cry with stimulation. To obtain an accurate score when using the neonatal abstinence scoring system, when does it is best to complete his assessment?
It is recommended to finish his assessment of a baby who exhibits neonatal abstinence syndrome symptoms right after a feeding.
What is the duration of newborn abstinence syndrome?NAS can endure for a few months or a week. It is challenging to predict how long it will endure. What medications or narcotics the baby was exposed to determines how long the withdrawal symptoms last. According to how much of these substances the baby was exposed to while you were pregnant.
What are the neonatal abstinence syndrome's long-term effects?The following are some of the most typical newborn abstinence syndrome long-term negative effects: less than 5 pounds, 8 ounces at birth. Jaundice in newborns refers to the yellowing of the skin and whites of the eyes. Seizures.
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when is someone considered to be exposed to blood borne pathogens?
Blood-borne pathogens are microorganisms that cause disease and are present in human blood, and it is spread through an infected needle of a person having blood-borne pathogens.
What are bloodborne pathogens?This microorganism leaves in the blood of the infected person and spread to other persons when in contact with his blood.
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), hepatitis B virus (HBV), and hepatitis C virus (HCV) are some examples of blood-borne pathogens.
Therefore, if any nurse or doctor injects the infected needle a person has a blood-borne pathogen, so this microorganism passes through the blood.
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Select the best answer for the question.
19. Micromedex Health Care Services is the recommended when researching
O A. proper drug usage and precautions.
B. sterile and non-sterile compounding guidelines.
C. new product development and approvals.
D. drug pricing.
in freudian theory, which one of the following is an example of thanantos instinct, which includes aggression, trauma, and risky behaviors
In Freudian theory, substance abuse is one of the following an example of a Thanatos instinct, which includes aggression, trauma, and risky behaviors, Therefore the correct answer is an option(d).
The foundation of the psychoanalytic approach to adult personality development is Sigmund Freud's theories. His views covered four areas: level of consciousness, personality types, stages of psychosexual development, and sexual development. Anxiety is a result of the interaction of these personality traits and needs to be managed through a variety of protective mechanisms. These tactics cover up the actual, anxiety-related causes of one's behavior.
Since Freud's theories hold that personality development connected to his stages of psychosexual development essentially comes to an end in adolescence, they have little applicability to the fields of gerontology and geriatric medicine.
According to the hypothesis, an organism's Thanatos, or death instinct, will drive it to seek out activities that will ultimately result in its destruction. Later in his life, psychotherapist Sigmund Freud created the theory of death drive to explain why people act aggressively and injure others. Therefore, according to Freudian theory, substance misuse is one of the Thanatos drives, along with violence, trauma, and dangerous behavior.
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The complete question is:
In Freudian theory, which one of the following is an example of a Thanatos instinct, which includes aggression, trauma, and risky behaviors?
A. going to school.
B. seeking nourishment.
C. joining a basketball club.
D. substance abuse.
The components of pranayama are a. Seven b. Two c. Five d. Three
Answer:
five
Explanation:
Five types of prana are responsible for various pranic activities in the body, they are Prana, Apana, Vyan, Udana & Samana.
Which statement describes a patient with post-traumatic stress disorder?
A.
Rajni cannot leave her house unless she checks the front-door lock 25 times.
B.
Anthony believes there are secret radio stations that speak only to him.
C.
Wyatt often feels so anxious that he has difficulty breathing.
D.
Yolanda experiences nightmares after serving in a combat zone.
Sagad
Down
2. A term describing the first two months of development.
Answer:
Question is a little unclear but first two months of development is the germinal stage.
Explanation:
State agencies would refer to the Model Food Code for recommendations
on all of the following topics except......
-A: standards for refrigeration equipment and commercial dishwashers
-B: the need for consumer advisories for raw or undercooked foods
-С:fat and calorie content
-D:the amount and level of training needed by restaurant health
inspectors
Answer:
С. Fat and calorie content
Explanation:
A public health license can be defined as series of privileges and authority granted to a practitioner in the public domain, to offer services to the general public after admitting to comply with the standards, rules and regulations set aside by health regulatory agencies and the government (both state and federal).
This ultimately implies that, all restaurant owners must have met the minimum requirements (criteria) and agree to comply with all the standards, rules and regulations with respect to public health before they are endorsed and then given a license to practice or operate within the state by the appropriate agency or authorities.
Hence, state agencies would refer to the Model Food Code published by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for recommendations on all of the following topics;
I. Standards for refrigeration equipment and commercial dishwashers.
II. The amount and level of training needed by restaurant health inspectors.
III. The need for consumer advisories for raw or undercooked foods.
However, the fat and calorie content of a food is not part of the Model Food Code used for safeguarding public health and to ensure that foods being sold are unadulterated.
Answer: The correct answers is Fat and calorie content
Explanation:
I just finished the check your knowledge and after reading I got a green :):):):)
Match each part of the digestive system with the correct label
Answer:
There's no image attached to your question...
Explanation:
10. Which of the following questions should you ask to see how well a person's current pain management plan is working for them?
Answer:
To assess the effectiveness of a person's current pain management plan, you can ask the following questions:
How well does your current pain management plan control your pain?
Are you experiencing any side effects or adverse reactions from your current pain management medications or treatments?
How frequently do you need to use pain medication or treatments to alleviate your pain?
Does your current pain management plan allow you to carry out your daily activities and maintain a good quality of life?
Have you noticed any improvement or worsening in your pain since you started your current pain management plan?
Are there any specific activities or movements that still cause significant pain despite following your current pain management plan?
Do you feel that your current pain management plan adequately addresses both acute pain episodes and chronic pain management?
Have you discussed your pain management plan with your healthcare provider recently, and if so, did any adjustments or modifications occur based on your feedback?
These questions aim to gather information about the person's pain levels, the impact of the pain management plan on their daily life, potential side effects, and the overall effectiveness of the current approach. It helps in assessing whether adjustments or modifications may be necessary to improve their pain management strategy.
To assess the effectiveness of a person's current pain management plan, you can ask about the control of pain, side effects, and ability to carry out daily activities.
Explanation:To assess the effectiveness of a person's current pain management plan, there are several questions you can ask:
How well is the person's pain being controlled? This can be measured by asking about the frequency and intensity of the pain.Are there any side effects from the current pain management plan? Side effects can impact a person's quality of life and may indicate the need for a different approach.Is the person able to engage in daily activities and function normally? Assessing the person's ability to carry out their daily activities can help determine if the current pain management plan is effective.By asking these questions, you can gain insight into the person's pain management plan and make appropriate recommendations or adjustments if necessary.
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