Answer:
chestpain
Explanation:
he is rushe to emergency room
List the five tasks mentioned in step number 17 for answering incoming calls
Answer:
1. Greet the caller
2. Listen to the caller's inquiry
3. Ask clarifying questions
4. Provide accurate information
5. Offer additional assistance if needed
Explanation:
the boy is lethargic but responds to verbal stimuli. which of the following is the most important when providing care to the patient?
Determine whether the patient is getting better, becoming worse, or responding to therapy by keeping an eye on the AVPU as well as other vital signs.
What level of consciousness is lethargic?Different ALOC levels include: Lethargic refers to being sleepy, uninterested in, or less conscious of your surroundings. If nothing or no one wakes you up, you are somnolent, which indicates you are sleeping. You can typically communicate and follow instructions, although you could have a hard time sleeping.
Is it possible to be awake and drowsy at same time?alert: conscious and receptive. Noting that disorientation can appear anytime somewhere along spectrum and isn't always present before the patient becomes drowsy, lethargic, etc., is important. It is feasible to treat patients who are alert but sleepy or even lethargic.
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Smoking is a ____________ cause of chronic bronchitis, emphysema, and lung cancer. Cigarettes contain chemicals that ____________ the air passage and lungs; a smoker might have one or all of these disorders or diseases.
Answer:
The correct answer is - leading and irritate.
Explanation:
Diseases related to the lungs such as COPD (chronic bronchitis and emphysema) are mainly caused by smoking as it is found that smokers die 12 to 13 times more likely than people who do not smokes. Tobacco smoke can result in cancerous cells in the lungs that can develop into lung cancer.
Chemicals that are present in the tobacco of the cigarettes cause inflammation and irritation in the air passage and lungs of the person smoke which leads to these conditions eventually.
which diagnosis is a client most liekly to have who has an arterial blood gas report indicating that ph is 7.25
A client with an arterial blood gas (ABG) report indicating a pH of 7.25 is most likely to have acidosis.
Acidosis is a condition where the body's fluids have an excess of acid, leading to a decrease in the blood's pH level. A normal pH range is 7.35-7.45, and a pH below 7.35 is considered acidic, indicating acidosis. Acidosis can be classified into two types: respiratory acidosis and metabolic acidosis. Respiratory acidosis occurs when the lungs cannot remove enough carbon dioxide (CO2) from the body, causing the blood pH to decrease. This could be due to factors such as chronic lung disease, hypoventilation, or airway obstruction.
Metabolic acidosis, on the other hand, occurs when the body produces too much acid or the kidneys cannot remove enough acid from the body. This can result from conditions such as diabetic ketoacidosis, kidney disease, or ingestion of toxic substances.
In summary, a client with a blood pH of 7.25 is likely to have acidosis, either respiratory or metabolic. Further assessment of ABG values, medical history, and clinical symptoms is needed to confirm the diagnosis and determine the underlying cause.
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When a client with a history of chronic alcoholism is admitted to the hospital for surgery, the nurse anticipates that the client may show signs of alcohol withdrawal delirium during which time period?
a. Up to 72 hours after alcohol withdrawal
b. Up to 24 hours after alcohol withdrawal
c. Immediately upon admission
d. Upon awakening in the post-anesthesia care unit
The nurse may anticipate the client to show signs of alcohol withdrawal delirium up to 72 hours after alcohol withdrawal. Therefore, option A is correct.
Alcohol withdrawal delirium, also known as delirium tremens, is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur when a person with a history of chronic alcoholism suddenly stops drinking. Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal delirium may include agitation, confusion, hallucinations, and seizures. These symptoms typically begin to appear within 48 to 72 hours after the last drink and may last for several days.
It is important for the nurse to closely monitor the client during this time period and provide appropriate interventions to help prevent or manage symptoms of alcohol withdrawal delirium. This may include administering medications to help reduce symptoms, providing a safe and supportive environment, and providing education and support to the client and their family.
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Tension of the iliofemoral, pubofemoral and ischiofemoral ligaments collectively limit ____________ of the hip joint.
Tension of the iliofemoral, pubofemoral and ischiofemoral ligaments collectively limit hyperextension of the hip joint. In total, the hip joint has three main ligaments that act to keep the joint stable. These are the iliofemoral, pubofemoral, and ischiofemoral ligaments, each of which contributes to the hip joint's range of motion and its stability.
The iliofemoral ligament is the strongest of the three ligaments, connecting the ilium and the femur and restricting hyperextension of the hip joint. The pubofemoral ligament is located in the front of the hip joint, preventing hyperextension, abduction, and external rotation of the hip joint. The ischiofemoral ligament restricts excessive hip joint internal rotation and extension. Collectively, these three ligaments help prevent dislocation of the hip joint, maintain joint stability and help keep the joint centered for optimal movement.
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A 77-lb patient is ordered aminophylline 3 mg/kg po every 6 hours. The oral liquid is available as 105 mg/5 mL. What volume should be administered per dose?
why are regional and directional terms are extremely important in the medical and dental professions
Answer:
Below:
Explanation:
Understanding terminology ensures doctors and technicians have a shared method of communicating, which helps to avoid confusion when pinpointing structures and describing locations of lesions. Knowing your directional terms makes things clear and saves time!
Hope it helps...
It's Muska
A food worker cooks scrambled eggs
that will be served immediately.
G
What is the minimum internal
temperature that the eggs must reach
during cooking?
O a. 135°F (57°C)
O b. 145°F (63°C)
O c. 155°F (68°C)
O d. 165°F (74°C)
Answer:
the answer is C. 155°F(68°C)
The minimum internal temperature that the eggs must reach during cooking, c. 155°F (68°C). Thus, option "C" is correct.
What is Minimum internal temperature?Minimum internal temperature
• It is the minimum temperature at which the pathogens get eliminated.
• It is essential to attain the right temperature of the food to destroy the harmful pathogens so that it can be consumed safely.
• The minimum internal temperature of 145 degree F is important to achieve for a minimum upto 4 minutes in case of roasting beef, pork, and lamb.
• A minimum internal temperature of 135 degrees F is important for processed and ready to eat foods.
• A minimum temperature of 155 degrees F is applied to ground and injected meat, ground seafood, and eggs, which are served hot.
• A minimum temperature of 165 degrees F is applied to poultry products.
Thus, option "C" is correct.
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why might an assistant avoid using the term "doctor" when leaving a telephone message for a patient?
An assistant might avoid using the term "doctor" when leaving a telephone message for a patient for several reasons. One reason could be that they want to ensure that they are not giving the patient the impression that they are a medical doctor or providing medical advice, when in fact they may not be qualified to do so.
Another reason could be to avoid confusion or miscommunication if the patient has multiple healthcare providers or if the assistant is not sure which doctor the patient is expecting a call from. By using a more specific identifier, such as the doctor's name or specialty, the assistant can ensure that the patient knows who is calling and what the call is regarding.
In some cases, an assistant may also avoid using the term "doctor" out of respect for the patient's preferences or cultural background. For example, some patients may prefer to be addressed by their first name or may come from a culture where using titles is not common or may be seen as overly formal.
Overall, the use of the term "doctor" in a telephone message for a patient should be based on the specific context, the assistant's level of training and qualifications, and the preferences and needs of the patient.
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1. As the amount of carbon dioxide (CO2) builds up in your bloodstream:
your blood pH increases and your breathing rate decreases.
your blood pH decreases and your breathing rate decreases.
your blood pH increases and your breathing rate increases.
your blood pH decreases and your breathing rate increases.
Answer:
your blood pH increases and your breathing rate increases.
Explanation:
when performing an assessment, the nurse should focus most on the developmental stage for which client?
The young adult client's developmental stage should be the nurse's primary consideration when doing an assessment.
What do you mean by assessment?Assessment serves as the scientific basis for making judgments about students' continuous improvement. It involves identifying, choosing, designing, compiling, analyzing, comprehending, and utilising information in order to enhance students' learning and development.
What is assessment and example?The process or result of passing judgment on something: the process of evaluating something appraisal. evaluation of the damage an evaluation of the president's accomplishments The amount assessed is the sum for which a person is legally obligated to pay, sometimes as a tax. the property's tax assessment.
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Who can report an adverse event (AE)?
A. Participant
B. Participant's spouse
C. Caregiver
D. Participant's family member
E. Research Nurse
F. All of the above can report an AE
Hi !
Who can report an adverse event (AE)?
F. All of the above can report an AE
Sam is a fast-food fanatic. For breakfast, he stops for coffee and doughnuts. For lunch he has iced tea, a roast beef sub with lettuce and mayonnaise, and a cookie. For dinner he has a soft drink, burger, and fries. Name two vitamins likely to be lacking in Sam's diet if he eats like this every day. Why is his diet likely to be deficient in these vitamins?
Your health can suffer if you don't consume enough of these foods, increasing your chances of developing diabetes, heart disease, some types of cancer, and nutritional deficiency.
What results in less intake of vegetables and fruits in diet?The clinical spectrum of vitamin A deficiency's ocular manifestations, known as xerophthalmia, includes everything from night blindness and Bitot spots to the potentially blinding phases of corneal xerosis, ulceration, and necrosis (keratomalacia).
Low levels of vitamin C lead to the illness known as scurvy. Because they didn't consume enough fruits and vegetables, it used to be frequent among long-distance sailors.
Therefore, vitamin A and C deficiency occur due to less intake of vegetables and fruits.
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2. START: What new social media information, strategies, or techniques have you learned that will help you achieve your goals? What new social media activities, attitudes, or behaviors will help you to move forward in your career search? What can you START doing right now that will positively impact your career success? Explain why it’s important to make these changes right away.
Type answer here
The opportunity to receive news updates concerning job opportunities and being able to share career achievements on the social media.
What are the importance of social media?The social media is an online platform where individual pass information to one another in order to build a social network.
The social media can help an individual to achieve their goals through the constant news updates concerning job opportunities.
Social media can help an individual to move forward in their career search by being able to share career achievements on the social media for employers to view.
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Which of the following statements is true of the trends in midlife?
a. Middle age is starting earlier and is shorter for increasing numbers of active and healthy people.
b. The U.S. Census Bureau of 2018 indicates that 15 percent of the U.S. population is older than 65.
c. Compared with previous decades and centuries, a decreasing percentage of the population is made up of middle-aged and older adults.
d. As medical discoveries are slowing down the aging process, the boundaries of middle age are being pushed downward.
Answer: Option B is correct
The U.S. Census Bureaua of 2018 indicates that 15 percent of the U.S. populationo is older than 65
Explanation:
You are manning a telephone hotline in a city experiencing an outbreak of pandemic flu. You have been given a set of questions to ask callers (for example, do you have a fever?) and information to provide depending on the expressed concerns of callers.
Answer:
what is the question that is being asked here?
Explanation:
A therapist, whose approach to psychotherapy is based on Sigmund Freud's theory, explains that a patients problematic behavior is based upon
A. A classically conditioned response
B. Observational learning without consequences
C. Being stuck in the developmental task of trust vs. mistrust
D. Unconscious motives, fears, and anxieties
Answer: The answer would be unconscious motives, fears, and anxieties because this is based on Freud's Theories
Explanation: Mom studied this in nurses training and then became an R.N.
Hope this helps! Dee Dee Riley
A therapist, whose approach to psychotherapy is based on the theory of Sigmund Freud, explains that a patient's problematic behavior is based on being stuck in the task of developing trust versus mistrust.
How does Freud explain anger?Freud associates aggressive impulses with self-preservation drives, which would have the function of maintaining and affirming individual existence. In the same way, he postulates a genesis of its own for hate, when he states that “the apparent transformation of love into hate is just an illusion”
With this information, we can conclude that a therapist, whose approach to psychotherapy is based on the theory of Sigmund Freud, explains that a patient's problematic behavior is based on being stuck in the task of developing trust versus mistrust.
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To help staff nurses who are resistant to change adapt to the use of a new medication administration system, which action(s) should the nurse manager take?
The nurse describe the evaluation process with use of the new system and discuss the potential for decrease in medication errors with th new system.
To help staff nurses leaders successfully implement changes in operations and policies by applying evidence based change concepts. They anticipate will respond to change and choose the right leadership skills and implementation strategies to execute any plan.
For supervising the nursing staff in hospital or clinical setting. They make management and budgetary decisions or set work schedules , coordinates meetings and make decisions about personnel. The roles of nursing professionals who directness nursing staff , and medical process leads nursing teams in providing patient care.
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what is the role of nurse
Answer:
a caregiver for patients and helps to manage physical needs, prevent illness, and treat health conditions
they are responsible for the holistic care of patients
Explanation:
Explanation:
A nurse is a caregiver for patients and helps to manage physical needs, prevent illness, and treat health conditions. ... They are responsible for the holistic care of patients, which encompasses the psychosocial, developmental, cultural, and spiritual needs of the individual.
The use ofâ high-frequency sound waves to visualize the kidneysâ is?
The use of a high-frequency sound waves to visualize the kidneys is a Ultrasonography.
A kidney and bladder ultrasound, also known as a renal ultrasound, visualizes and assesses your kidneys, ureters (small muscular tubes that connect the kidneys to the bladder), and urinary bladder using high frequency sound waves sent by a transducer (probe). A renal ultrasound is a noninvasive diagnostic test that generates pictures that are used to evaluate the size, shape, and position of the kidneys. Ultrasound may also be used to measure blood flow to the kidneys.
Ultrasonic uses a transducer to generate ultrasonic waves at too high a frequency to be heard. Sonography, or ultrasound, is an imaging technique that employs high-frequency sound waves to obtain static or moving pictures of the human body. Ultrasound (and high-frequency sound) is widely employed in business and health care, but it is also being used in consumer items.
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identify any two factors that could promote unacceptable behaviour among spectators
Answer:
. Social Identity Theory
Hooliganism
Explanation:
Patient L.M. was diagnosed with akinetopsia. This means that she is unable to perceive
-color.
-edges.
-faces.
-motion.
Patient L.M. was diagnosed with akinetopsia, this means that she is unable to perceive motion. Hence, the correct option is D.
Akinetopsia which is a neurological disorder that affects a person's ability to perceive motion. Specifically, individuals with akinetopsia are unable to perceive smooth and continuous motion, and instead perceive the world in a series of static images or snapshots. They may describe the world as "stroboscopic."
Akinetopsia is caused by damage to the area of the brain that processes motion information, which is known as the middle temporal area or MT. This area is located in the visual cortex at the back of the brain and receives input from the retina about the direction and speed of moving objects. Damage to this area can result in a range of motion perception problems, including akinetopsia.
Hence, the correct option is D.
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An older adult client is started on hydrochlorothiazide diuretic for peripheral edema of the legs. What preventive measure should the health care practitioner instruct his client to take?
For more than 50 years, thiazide-type diuretic hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) has been utilized in clinical settings. It slowly gets up from its seated position.
What is the primary use of hydrochlorothiazide?To treat high blood pressure, hydrochlorothiazide may be taken alone or in combination with other medications (hypertension). The workload on the heart and arteries is increased by high blood pressure. The heart and arteries may not work correctly if it persists for a long time.
Those who shouldn't take hydrochlorothiazide are?Your physician might advise against taking hydrochlorothiazide. Inform your doctor if you have or have had kidney or liver illness, high cholesterol, diabetes, asthma, gout, or systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), a chronic inflammatory disease.
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The infant weighs 7 lb 4 oz (3,300 g) at birth. if the infant is following a normal pattern of growth, what would be the expected weight for this child at the age of 12 months
Answer:
The expected weight for the infant at 12 months would be 20 pounds.
Hopefully this helps! have a great day :)
"It appears that the increasing trend of overweight and obesity will likely overtake tobacco as the leading preventable cause of mortality in the United States" What are the primary diseases associated with poor diet and lifestyle?
Answer:
The primary diseases associated with poor diet and lifestyle are:
-Type 2 diabetes
-Obesity
-A stroke
-Hypertension
-Cancer
-Osteoporosis
-Heart problems
Explanation:
A poor diet and sedentary lifestyle impact our health. The lack of nutrients and the excess of chemicals, fat, or carbohydrates in our diets causes chronic diseases, that is to say, diseases that are not produced by a virus or bacteria. A person with an unhealthy diet and a lack of physical activity to help the body process and expel the toxins in our body have a higher probability of having one or more chronic diseases such as obesity, hypertension, diabetes type 2, cancer, osteoporosis, or strokes.
Jarod finds that his facial skin growth has changed in shape and in color. he goes to his doctor, who refers him to a skin cancer specialist, also known as a:
dermatology medical assistant.
dermatologic oncologist.
dermatologist.
cosmetologist.
ans: b
what cpt code is assigned to an ed service that has a detailed history and exam with a moderate level of mdm
An ED service with a thorough history and exam and a modest level of MDM is given the CPT code 99284.
What does CPT code 99214 mean?The CPT code 99214 is used for "office or other outpatient visits for the evaluation and care of an established patient, which need at least two of these three critical components: a complete history, a detailed examination, and medical decision making of moderate complexity," according to CPT.
How can I use procedure code 99202?A new patient's evaluation and management during an office or other outpatient visit requires a basic medical diagnosis, a medically adequate history, and/or an examination. The date of the encounter takes up 15–29 minutes of the overall time when employing time for code selection.
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the cells found within the parathyroid gland that secrete parathyroid hormone are called _______.
The cells found within the parathyroid gland that secrete parathyroid hormone are called "chief cells" or "principal cells."
These specialized cells play a crucial role in maintaining the body's calcium homeostasis. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is a key regulator of calcium and phosphorus levels in the blood, when blood calcium levels decrease, chief cells in the parathyroid gland detect this change and release PTH. PTH acts on target organs such as the bones, kidneys, and intestines to increase calcium levels in the blood. In the bones, PTH stimulates the release of calcium by activating osteoclasts, which break down bone tissue.
In the kidneys, it enhances calcium reabsorption while reducing phosphorus reabsorption. Furthermore, PTH stimulates the production of active vitamin D in the kidneys, which in turn increases intestinal calcium absorption. In summary, chief cells are the primary cells within the parathyroid gland responsible for secreting parathyroid hormone, this hormone plays a critical role in regulating calcium and phosphorus levels in the blood, ensuring proper functioning of various physiological processes, including muscle contraction, nerve transmission, and bone health.
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during a respiratory assessment of an older adult experiencing an exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (copd), what abnormality would be detected by auscultation?
Wheezing and crackles may be detected by auscultation during a respiratory assessment of an older adult experiencing an exacerbation of COPD.
During an exacerbation of COPD, the airways become inflamed and narrowed, leading to difficulty breathing. Auscultation, which involves listening to the lungs with a stethoscope, can help detect any abnormal sounds that may indicate airway obstruction or inflammation.
Wheezing, which is a high-pitched whistling sound heard during exhalation, is a common finding in COPD patients and is caused by the narrowing of the airways. Crackles, which are also known as rales, are a series of short, sharp sounds that may be heard during inhalation and are caused by the opening of small airways that were previously closed. These sounds are often heard in patients with COPD who have excess mucus or fluid in their lungs. Detection of these abnormalities by auscultation can help guide treatment decisions for the patient.
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