the growth factor superchick stimulates the proliferation of cultured chicken cells. the receptor that binds superchick is a receptor tyrosine kinase (rtk), and many chicken tumor cell lines have mutations in the gene that encodes this receptor. which of the following types of mutation would be expected to promote uncontrolled cell proliferation?
Answers
Mutations in the gene that encodes the receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK) can lead to constitutive activation of the receptor, resulting in uncontrolled cell proliferation.
One specific type of mutation known to promote uncontrolled cell proliferation is a gain-of-function mutation. A gain-of-function mutation in the gene encoding the RTK can cause the receptor to be activated without binding to its ligand (superchick in this case). This means that the receptor is constantly signaling for cell proliferation, regardless of the presence or absence of the ligand. This uncontrolled activation of cell proliferation pathways can contribute to the development of tumors and cancer. Therefore, a gain-of-function mutation in the gene encoding the RTK would be expected to promote uncontrolled cell proliferation in response to superchick or even in the absence of the ligand.
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Related Questions
T cells undergo positive selection in the thymus, which means they
a) develop surface antigen receptors
b) react against self-antigens
c) remain alive but unresponsive
d) die and macrophages phagocytize them
e) multiply and form clones of identical T cells
Answers
T cells undergo positive selection in the thymus, which means they develop surface antigen receptors. Correct answer is option a.
Positive selection is a process that occurs in the thymus where T cells that have the ability to recognize self-MHC (major histocompatibility complex) molecules are selected. During this process, T cells that do not recognize self-MHC molecules undergo apoptosis or programmed cell death. This ensures that the T cells that are produced are able to recognize self-MHC molecules and respond appropriately to foreign antigens.
Once selected, these T cells then undergo negative selection, which removes any cells that react too strongly against self-antigens. This process is crucial for the development of a functional immune system that can differentiate between self and non-self. As a result of positive selection, the T cells develop surface antigen receptors that are specific to their unique MHC molecules, which allows them to recognize foreign antigens and mount an appropriate immune response.
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Deformity caused by a fracture would MOST likely be masked by:
A. crepitus.
B. guarding.
C. swelling.
D. ecchymosis.
Answers
Deformity caused by a fracture would MOST likely be masked by C. swelling. A fracture is a broken bone. It might be a hairline crack or a severe break that fragments the bone in multiple pieces.
A fracture can be caused by accidents, falls, or bone weakness due to osteoporosis, tumors, or other underlying conditions. Deformity caused by a fracture would be most likely masked by swelling. Deformity is an irregularity in a person's physical form or structure, frequently caused by injury or disease. A fracture is a condition in which a bone is broken, causing a deformity or unnatural shape. Swelling can often hide the deformity caused by a fracture.
Swelling, also known as edema, is a typical bodily response to an injury. The immune system is attempting to defend the injured area by flooding it with blood and lymph fluids. The purpose of this response is to aid in the healing process and avoid any further damage to the injured area.
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Question 4
Below is the CODING STRAND of a small gene that codes for a peptide. Assume the gene has a
traditional start codon.
How many amino acids long is the peptide if we assume traditional start and traditional stop
codon?
5' AATCCGTATCTATGACCGTTTGGAAACACTAAGCGGTACTC 3'
3
5
6
9
Answers
Transcription is mRNA synthesis, which occurs by complementing a segment of the DNA template strand. The translation is the protein growth, which occurs by adding amino acids coded by mRNA codons. C) the polypeptide is 6 amino acids long.
What are transcription and translation?The whole process of protein synthesis includes Transcription and translation.
TRANSCRIPTION
Transcription is the mRNA synthesis process and occurs in the nucleus.
The DNA template strand is read in direction 3'→ 5' to build the mRNA molecule in direction 5'→ 3'. The template strand is the one that is going to be complemented by the mRNA.
mRNA molecule has the same sequence as the DNA coding strand, but it carries uracil instead of thymine.
TRANSLATION
Translation is the process through which polypeptide grows. It occurs in the cytoplasm.
rRNA and tRNA read mRNA in the direction 5'→ 3' and add the correct amino acids to build the new protein.
Amino acids are coded by mRNA codons. Protein synthesis initiates in the AUG start codon -Metionin- and ends when reaching either of the stop codons UAA, UAG, or UGA.
In the exposed example, we have a DNA strand. We know that it is the coding strand, so it has the same sequence as mRNA molecule.
DNA coding strand5' AATCCGTATCTATGACCGTTTGGAAACACTAAGCGGTACTC 3'
mRNA molecule5' AAUCCGUAUCUAUGACCGUUUGGAAACACUAAGCGGUACUC 3'
Kowing mRNA sequence, we can grow the protein.
So first, we need to find the initiation codon (AUG), begining from the mRNA 5' extreme. Then we need to find a stop codon (UAA, UAG, or UGA).
mRNA start codon5' AAUCCGUAUCUAUGACCGUUUGGAAACACUAAGCGGUACUC 3'
mRNA stop codon5' AAUCCGUAUCUAUGACCGUUUGGAAACACUAAGCGGUACUC 3'
So this protein begins in AUG and ends in UAA.
To grow the protein, we need to separate mRNA codons and find the corresponding amino acids.
mRNA codons ⇒ AUG ACC GUU UGG AAA CAC UAA amino acids ⇒ Met Thr Val Trp Lys His Stop Protein ⇒ Met-Thr-Val-Trp-Lys-HisAccording to this reasoning, the polypeptide is 6 amino acids long. Option C) is correct.
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4. A mutation that does not change the phenotype or positively or negatively affect the function of the organism is known as a ______ a mutation
harmful
beneficial
neutral
evolutionary
Answers
why does mercury have such a dramatic different temperatures during the day and night
Answers
Answer:
Mercury rotates slowly and has a thin atmosphere, and consequently, the night-side temperature can be more than 1,000 degrees Fahrenheit lower than the day-side temperature shown on the diagram. It can be as cold as -290 degrees Fahrenheit (-179 degrees Celsius) on Mercury at night.
Explanation:
Answer:
due to its rotation and lack of atmosphere
Explanation:
during the day the temperature is so high that it could melt some metals and during the night the temperature drops well below freezing.
Humans have 46 chromosomes in each of their body cells. Jason has a small cut on his right arm and his body cells are undergoing mitosis to repair the damage. How many chromosomes will be in each new body cell after cell division?
Answers
Answer:
23
Explanation:
You are a scientist on the soloman islands. You are assigned with making recommendations
Answers
Biodiversity Conservation: The Solomon Islands are home to rich biodiversity, containing singular environments and endangered class.
What is the recommendations?It is important to plan out biodiversity preservation through system which controls organization and administration of protected fields, in the way that nationwide parks and sea reserves
Climate Change Adaptation: The Solomon Islands are vulnerable to the impacts of temperature change, containing climbing ocean levels, raised frequency of extreme weather occurrences, and sea acidification. It is main to expand and implement agreement actions that focus on marshy care, tenable land use preparation, and trend-resilient foundation
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Which theory holds that the pitch we hear is determined by the particular location on the cochlea where the hair cells vibrate the most?.
Answers
The Place theory holds that the pitch we hear is determined by the particular location on the cochlea where the hair cells vibrate the most. It is a hearing theory.
What is the place theory?The place theory is a model indicating that sound perception depends on where component frequencies produce specific vibrations.
The place theory has into account the vibration in the basilar membrane of the cochlea.
This theory (place theory) can be considered the first step for the interpretation of pitch perception.
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What does the ER do to the protein?
Answers
Answer: It is the entrance that transports proteins in the golgi bodies.
Explanation: The ER takes in proteins and sands them into golgi body packages that with then go on route to their destinations. (EX: The ER sends proteins into the golgi bodies, which then transport the proteins to the cell membrane.)
Answer:
transports proteins in the golgi bodies.
Explanation:
How could the aquifer around the Los Angeles are in California be susceptible to an impact by a Tragedy of the Commons?
Answers
Answer:
Due to over-pumping of water.
Explanation:
The aquifer around the Los Angeles are in California could be susceptible to an impact by a Tragedy of the Commons because the people used more water than the aquifer receives. The excess use of water from the aquifer through the well causes depletion of water which results in the shortage of water to fulfill the needs of existing population so it is wise to use water efficiently and used lower or equal water the aquifer receives in order to maintain level of aquifer.
How do you explain the fact that skeletal muscle has an optimal length? Why does contraction initiated at non-optimal lengths produce less forceful contraction?
Answers
The fact that skeletal muscle has an optimal length allows for the greatest actin-myosin overlap and cross-bridge formation, resulting in the most forceful contraction. When contractions are initiated at non-optimal lengths, there is a reduction in force generation due to either limited access to binding sites or insufficient filament overlap.
The fact that skeletal muscle has an optimal length can be explained by the sliding filament theory and the concept of sarcomere overlap. Optimal length refers to the muscle length at which the maximum force can be generated during contraction. This optimal length allows for the greatest amount of actin-myosin overlap, resulting in the highest number of cross-bridges formed and, therefore, the most forceful contraction. Contraction initiated at non-optimal lengths produces less forceful contraction due to either too much or too little overlap between the actin and myosin filaments.
At shorter lengths, actin filaments may overlap each other, causing the myosin heads to have limited access to the actin binding sites, this reduces the number of cross-bridges formed and results in a weaker contraction. Conversely, when the muscle is stretched beyond its optimal length, there is less actin-myosin overlap, leading to fewer cross-bridges and less force generation. In summary, the optimal length of skeletal muscle allows for the greatest actin-myosin overlap and cross-bridge formation, resulting in the most forceful contraction. When contractions are initiated at non-optimal lengths, there is a reduction in force generation due to either limited access to binding sites or insufficient filament overlap.
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veins function as blood reservoirs whenever blood pressure increases by venous walls constricting. T/F
Answers
The given statement "veins function as blood reservoirs whenever blood pressure increases by venous walls constricting." is false.
Veins are blood vessels that carry blood towards the heart. They have thin walls, which makes them more distensible (stretchy) than arteries. One of the primary functions of veins is to act as capacitance vessels or blood reservoirs, which means they can store large volumes of blood and adjust their capacity as needed. This allows veins to act as a buffer for changes in blood volume, helping to maintain blood pressure and ensure adequate blood flow to the vital organs.
However, the constriction of venous walls does not occur as a response to an increase in blood pressure, as the statement suggests. Rather, it is the opposite; venous constriction occurs as a response to a decrease in blood pressure. This is because when blood pressure drops, the veins constrict to help increase venous return to the heart and maintain blood pressure. The constriction of veins also helps to redirect blood from other areas of the body towards the vital organs, such as the brain and heart, which require a constant blood supply.
In summary, veins do function as blood reservoirs and capacitance vessels, but venous constriction is not a response to an increase in blood pressure. Instead, venous constriction occurs as a response to a decrease in blood pressure and helps to increase venous return to the heart and maintain blood pressure.
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You set up an experiment. You have three chicken eggs that have been decalcified (shell softened) by vinegar and soaked in 20% glucose. Only the plasma membrane of the egg remains.You place the 3 eggs into three beakers with unknown solutions (labeled A, B, and C). You know that one of the solutions is distilled water, one is a 20% glucose solution, and one is a 40% glucose solution. You let the eggs sit in the unknown solutions for an hour and let osmosis occur.The egg in solution A gains mass. The egg in solution B maintains mass. The egg in solution C looses mass.For your response to this question list the tonicity of the solution relative to the egg.The solution is _______to egg A.hypertonicisotonichypotonicThe solution is _______to egg B.hypertonicisotonichypotonicThe solution is _______to egg C.hypertonicisotonichypotonic
Answers
9. Various products of glutamine metabolism independently modulate the glutamine synthetase
of E. coli as shown. In this concerted inhibition, the extent of enzyme inhibition is greater than
the sum of the separate inhibitions caused by each product. For E. coli grown in a medium rich in
histidine, what is the advantage of concerted inhibition?
A) High concentrations of histidine promote the synthesis of AMP and CTP.
B) Glutamine synthetase is not completely inhibited by high histidine concentrations.
C) High histidine concentrations cause glutamine to become the main cellular nitrogen sink.
D) Histidine can be used to synthesize other products of glutamine metabolism such
as tryptophan.
Answers
A) Neurohormones cause or prevent the release of anterior pituitary gland hormones into capillaries, which drain into the general circulation B) The neurohormones then travel via the hypothalamo-pituitary portal veins. C) Some storage neurons send their axons to capillaries, where they release their neurotransmitters. D) Neurohormones leave the blood and bind receptors on endocrine cells in the anterior pituitary gland.
Concerted inhibition of glutamine synthetase by various products of glutamine metabolism ensures that glutamine is efficiently channeled towards the biosynthesis of specific nitrogen-containing compounds, such as histidine, in conditions where it is abundant. This allows the cell to optimize the use of available nitrogen resources and prevent wasteful accumulation of excess glutamine.
In E. coli grown in a medium rich in histidine, the high concentration of histidine would promote its synthesis from glutamine, making glutamine the main cellular nitrogen sink. This would lead to a buildup of glutamine in the cell, which can be detrimental to cell growth and metabolism. However, the concerted inhibition of glutamine synthetase by various products of glutamine metabolism ensures that the excess glutamine is efficiently channeled towards the biosynthesis of other nitrogen-containing compounds, such as nucleotides and amino acids, thus preventing the buildup of glutamine and optimizing nitrogen resource utilization.
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Which statement best describes how an X-ray machine works?
A. It measures the time it takes light waves to reflect off an object.
B. It measures how long light waves are when they pass through an object.
C.It detects light waves that are reflected by an object.
D. It detects light waves that are able to pass through an object. D. is correct.
Answers
X-rays are a form of electromagnetic radiation, similar to light waves but with a higher frequency and energy. X-ray machines work by generating a beam of X-rays that pass through the body and are detected on the other side by a specialized X-ray detector. The X-rays that pass through the body are attenuated (absorbed) to varying degrees by different tissues and structures, depending on their density and atomic composition. This results in a shadow-like image on the detector, with denser structures appearing as lighter areas and less dense structures appearing as darker areas. X-ray machines are commonly used in medicine to diagnose a variety of conditions and injuries, as well as in other fields such as materials science and airport security.
what is the relationship between transpiration and stomata
Answers
Answer:
Stomata are pores in the leaf that allow gas exchange where water vapor leaves the plant and carbon dioxide enters. Special cells called guard cells control each pore's opening or closing. When stomata are open, transpiration rates increase; when they are closed, transpiration rates decrease.
Explanation:
Amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling allow for ________ and ________ of the fetus so that it can be tested for abnormalities.
Answers
Amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling allow for genetic abnormalities and sex of the child of the fetus so that it can be tested for abnormalities.
What is Amniocentesis?Prenatal testing using amniocentesis is often carried out in the second or third trimester of pregnancy.
It can identify some genetic and chromosomal disorders, including Down syndrome (such as cystic fibrosis). Your healthcare practitioner will do an amniocentesis during which they will take a small sample of amniotic fluid from the sac around the fetus. The fluid sample is then examined in a lab.
The fetus develops inside the amniotic sac throughout pregnancy. The fetus is encased and shielded by amniotic fluid inside the amniotic sac. Additionally, some of the fetus' cells are present.
Therefore, Amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling allow for genetic abnormalities and sex of the child of the fetus so that it can be tested for abnormalities.
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suppose in the magudon people of glaxoon that red, writhing tentacles are considered remarkably attractive in a mate. most magudons have red, floppy tentacles. r
Answers
In the fictional world of the Magudon people of Glaxoon, red, writhing tentacles are considered attractive in a mate. Most Magudons have red, floppy tentacles.
1. The Magudon people of Glaxoon value red, writhing tentacles as a desirable trait in a partner. This means that Magudons find individuals with these characteristics more attractive.
2. However, it is mentioned that most Magudons have red, floppy tentacles. This suggests that the majority of individuals in the Magudon community possess the desired red color, but their tentacles lack the writhing motion.
To summarize, in the Magudon society of Glaxoon, having red, writhing tentacles is considered highly attractive in a mate. Although most Magudons have the red coloration, their tentacles are floppy instead of exhibiting the desired writhing movement.
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please solve this biology question
Answers
Answer:
Question 1
vacuole
Question 2
ribosomes
Explanation:
which factors may alter normal upward rotation of the scapula, and how does inadequate upward rotation of the scapula adversely affect elevation of the arm?
Answers
The factors that may alter the normal upward rotation of the scapula are: poor posture, excessive rest posture, thoracic and cervical kyphosis, lordosis, clavicle fractures, etc.
Inadequate upward rotation of the scapula adversely affect elevation of the arm because then the muscles of the shoulder and upper back become weak and this may cause difficulty is performing the everyday activities normally.
Scapula is the bone present in the shoulder that connects with the hindlimb appendage humerus. It is a flat triangular bone present at the dorsal side of the rib cage.
Arms is the hindlimb portion of humans. The arm itself is divided into three sections: the upper arm, the forearm and the hand. There are around 30 bones in the whole arm.
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What is reproductive isolation?Why is it necessary for speciation to occur? Explain one way reproductive isolation might occur.
Answers
Reproductive isolation is a process in which individuals in a population are prevented from reproducing. This isolation can occur in several ways, such as a physical barrier that separated these species into two groups that will reproduce with each other and generate a new species.
Why is it necessary for speciation to occur?Speciation is an essential evolutionary process for the creation of new species. It is worth remembering that from reproductive isolation, the individuals of a population have been differentiating and evolving and in the end, there will be a different species from the initial one. Therefore, speciation is necessary for the emergence of new species.
Explain one way reproductive isolation might occur.Reproductive isolation may occur due to a geographic barrier. In this case, a population is separated by a geographic barrier such as a river, a canyon, or a mountain, thus generating subpopulations that will begin to evolve and adapt in different ways. In the end, we will have different subpopulations, but in the beginning, they were part of the same population.
Choose a cellular function and make a claim about how structural features of the cell support the function. Use specific examples and details to support your claim.
Answers
Answer:
Cells have many structures inside of them called organelles. These organelles are like the organs in a human and they help the cell stay alive. Each organelle has it's own specific function to help the cell survive. The nucleus of a eukaryotic cell directs the cell's activities and stores DNA.
Explanation:
hope this Helps
Scientists can produce many plants in the lab by cloning; culturing a few plant cells in a test tube of chemical medium. Few cells grow into a new plant. It is easy for scientists to produce many plants from just a few cells. Where would you add "cloning" to the Venn diagr
Answers
Answer:
in the epicenter
Explanation:
In a Venn Diagram that compares and contrasts the different characteristics or features of the produced plants, "cloning" would be in the epicenter. This is because through the process of "cloning" you are basically copying the core genetic makeup of the plant and creating a brand new plant that shares all of the exact same characteristics and features as the plant's whose genetic makeup was used as a baseline.
Answer:
B. Mitosis
Explanation:
Mitosis is when cells divide to form an identical copy of themselves.
Which of the following is a density-dependent limiting factor?
a. Disease
b. Drought
c. Heat wave
d. Forest fire
Answers
The following is a density-dependent limiting factor: the disease that is in Option a. The disease is a density-dependent factor that is dependent on the density of the population.
What are the density-dependent factors?There are two types of factors that regulate the population: density-dependent factors and density-independent factors. The density-dependent factors include disease, a shortage of food, etc., and all these negatively affect the density of the population, while the density-independent factors are the heat wave, fire, and drought, which do not depend upon the population density.
Hence, the following is a density-dependent limiting factor: the disease that is in Option a.
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What is known as the highest point
which separates areas?
A. stream
B. divide
C. floodplain
D. drainage basin
Answers
Answer:
stream
Explanation:
stream divides area's
Which of the following statements is FALSE about genes and chromosomes
A.Homologous chromosomes can have different alleles for the same gene
b.Gene sections appear in different locations on homologous chromosomes
c.Genes are sections of code in a chromosome
d.Homologous chromosomes have the same gene types in them
Answers
What is the term for a culture made from one isolated colony?
A) Axenic
B) Mixed
C) Pure
D) Both axenic and mixed are correct.
E) Both axenic and pure are correct.
Answers
The term for a culture made from one isolated colony is pure culture. The correct option is C) pure.
In a pure culture, all of the microorganisms present are descendants of the same single cell. This is achieved by using techniques such as streaking or dilution plating to isolate individual colonies on a solid growth medium. Pure cultures are important in microbiology because they allow for the study of individual microorganisms in isolation, without interference from other microorganisms that may be present in a mixed culture.
They are used in a wide range of applications, including research, diagnostics, and industrial production of various products such as antibiotics, enzymes, and vaccines. Another term that can also be used for a pure culture is axenic culture, which refers specifically to a culture that is free of all other living organisms, including bacteria, viruses, and fungi.
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need help asap. check picture
Answers
We can see here that identifying the stage in the cycle the hormone levels are at their highest and most active, we have:
Box 1: Luteinizing hormone levels high.
Box 2: Progesterone levels high
Box 3: Estrogen levels consistently rise.
What is hormone?A hormone is a chemical substance produced by the endocrine glands in the body.
Luteinizing hormone (LH) levels rise sharply in the middle of the menstrual cycle, which is called the ovulatory phase. This surge of LH triggers ovulation, the release of the mature oocyte from the ovary.
Progesterone levels rise after ovulation and peak in the luteal phase. Progesterone prepares the uterus for pregnancy by thickening the lining of the uterus. If pregnancy does not occur, progesterone levels drop and the menstrual cycle begins again.
Estrogen levels rise throughout the follicular phase, which is the first half of the menstrual cycle. Estrogen levels peak just before ovulation.
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Describe the functions of the main organs and systems in plants and animals and relate to this their structure 1)vill in the stomach of the digestive system
Answers
Villi are the tiny hair-like projections that line the inside of the small intestine. They contain blood vessels and help absorb nutrients.
These are slender vascular projections that increase the surface area of the membrane.
These project into the intestinal cavity, greatly increasing the surface area for food absorption and adding digestive secretions.
which of the following contribute to the specificity of adaptive immunity? group of answer choices each b and t cell has a unique receptor that recognizes antigen. b cells can be activated to become memory cells capable of handling a repeated infection. t cells release cytokines that control many aspects of adaptive immunity. t or b cells mature in the thymus or bone marrow and then circulate through the body.
Answers
The following factors contribute to the specificity of adaptive immunity: each b and t cell has its own antigen-recognition receptor.
Lymphocytes, which are white blood cells, are responsible for carrying out adaptive immune responses.
B lymphocytes mature into antibodies-producing cells. Antibodies make it easier for immune cells to eliminate an antigen by binding to it. T lymphocytes assault antigens straightforwardly and assist with controlling the insusceptible reaction.
Memory refers to the adaptive immune system's capacity to respond rapidly to pathogens to which it has previously been exposed, while specificity refers to the adaptive immune system's capacity to target specific pathogens.
In B cells, Helper T cells, and Cytotoxic T cells, there were four phases to the adaptive immune response: memory, activation, encounter, and attack
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