The nested conditional statement shown below has been written by an inexperienced C++ programmer. The behavior of the statement is not correctly represented by the formatting. if (n <18) if (n > 0) cout << "The number is positive." << endl; else cout << "The number is ." << endl; al Match the following: What is the output of the statement if the variable n has the value? If n has the value 15? If n has the value 0? a) 7 b) 15 c) 0 ; -The number is positive. -The number is ----- - no output

Answers

Answer 1

The expected output of the given nested conditional statement cannot be determined without the specific conditions and code implementation.

What is the expected output of the given nested conditional statement when the variable "n" has a value of 7, 15, or 0?

The correct matching of the outputs for the given values of variable n would be:

If n has the value 7: The number is positive.

If n has the value 15: The number is positive.

If n has the value 0: The number is . (no output)

- For n = 7 and n = 15, the condition n < 18 evaluates to true, and then the nested condition n > 0 is checked, which is also true. Therefore, the statement "The number is positive." is printed.

- For n = 0, the condition n < 18 evaluates to true, but the nested condition n > 0 is false. As a result, no output is displayed after the else statement.

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Related Questions

FAULT LOCATION METHODS(input-output)

Answers

Fault location techniques are used in power systems for accurate pinpointing of the fault position.

This paper presents a comparative study between two fault location methods in distribution network with Distributed Generation (DG). Both methods are based on computing the impedance using fundamental voltage and current signals. The first method uses one-end information and the second uses both ends

what is the desired size of ink drop for bioprinting cells in ink?

Answers

The desired size of an ink drop for bioprinting cells depends on several factors such as cell type, printing method, and the desired resolution of the final tissue construct. Typically, ink drop sizes can range from picoliters (10^-12 liters) to nanoliters (10^-9 liters), with smaller drops providing higher resolution and precision.

In bioprinting, it is crucial to maintain cell viability and functionality during the printing process. Therefore, the ink drop size must be carefully chosen to balance precision and cell survival. Smaller drops can lead to a more detailed construct but may expose cells to higher shear stress, potentially affecting their viability. Conversely, larger drops can be gentler on cells but may result in a lower resolution. Ultimately, the ideal ink drop size for bioprinting cells is determined by the specific application, the chosen bioprinting method (e.g., inkjet, extrusion, or laser-assisted), and the properties of the bioink, such as its viscosity and the density of cells within the ink. Researchers should optimize these parameters to achieve the best possible outcome for their specific bioprinting project.

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Technician A says that the use of methanol in internal combustion engines has declined over the years. Technician B says that the use of MTBE as a gasoline additive has declined over the years. Who is correct?

Answers

Answer:

Both Technician A and B are correct

Explanation:

Methanol is used in internal combustion engines. However, the use of methanol in internal combustion engines has decreased lately even though it was thought to lead to cleaner emissions than gasoline. Methanol internal combustion engines produce formaldehyde which is also an environmental pollutant. Also, the cost of methanol is slightly higher than that of good quality gasoline.

MTBE replaced tetraethyllead as a gasoline additive because the former lead to the emission of particulate lead from automobile exhausts which is a serious environmental pollutant. The use of MTBE has declined over the years due to environmental concerns. It has been banned because it has been found to be a significant groundwater pollutant if gasoline containing MTBE is spilled or leaked at gas stations.

A producer is someone who _____________.
A.
Makes a commodity available for sale or exchange
B.
Buys or trades in order to receive a commodity
C.
Is in the market for a commodity
D.
Receives a commodity from a business

Answers

the answer is A. By the way you could’ve searched up the definition of Producer.

Answer: A. Makes a commodity available for sale or exchange

Explanation: hope it helps ^w^

what document is the primary reference document when making ethical decisions?​

Answers

The one that has Ben cited the most and which most directly relates to the topic it is pertaining to.

4.r-134a at 320 kpa and 40 c undergoes an isothermal process in a closed system until its quality is 45 percent. determine how much work and heat transfer are required per mass.

Answers

Work and heat transfer are required per mass IS 40.6 kJ/k, 130 kJ/k  for a r-134a at 320 kpa and 40 c undergoes an isothermal process in a closed system until its quality is 45 percent

A refrigerant experiences a problem with this query. a structured procedure in a closed system up until 45% quality in isothermal . We need to figure out how much heat transfer and effort are needed. Therefore, the equation Q equals two T provides the transfer for this keep. toward delta S. And the energy balance of a closed system is used to calculate the necessary work. E is that. The value of system will be e. Delta U will be equal to internal minus E out. Q less than w, out. He completed that portion, but we still need to calculate the entropy and internal energy one. They are all 1 34 a.when three 20 kilogramme paschals are given pleasure and the temperature is 40 °C. The entropy will thus be 1.452 kg jule paul, Casey kelvin according on table 8–13. and You will have an internal energy of 261.62 kg. What give you right now? We must ascertain the water and apple combination standards. Table 8 11. Temperature B should be set at 40°C and quality X should exactly equal 0.45. Entropy will then equal sf + X when taken as two from this point. the S F G. It will be equivalent to 0 39493 + 0.45 into 0.5 059 (zero point 39493). This will weigh 0.6-9-9 kilogrammes of juice. kz kelvin, please.The combined internal energy of the two of you will be Uf + X into U F G. which will be 107.39 plus 0.45 plus two = 107.39 + 0.45 + 2 = 43.61. It weighs 172 102 kg, Paul Casey. T into S one minus S two, which equals 313 into 1.452 minus 0.6 to 9 to zero, will now provide the heat transfer coefficient Q out. Thus, this will be 130 kZ. The amount of effort necessary will therefore equal U two less human plus Q out. It will be equivalent to 172.02 + 61.62 plus 13.1 in total. This comes out to 40.6.Recognize June But daisy and Q two out is equivalent to 1 30.2 kg Jewel park Az Joon Park Az, who weighs 40.6 kg, is the blue. So, here is the outcome.

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in a high pass filter, the cutoff frequency is affected only by the input resistor value not the feedback group of answer choices true false

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Answer: true

Explanation: Cutoff frequency = 1/(2 *pi* R1*C) hence the cutoff frequency depends only on inpur resistance…

The claim that "in a high pass filter, the cutoff frequency is affected only by the input resistor value" is incorrect.

The statement "in a high pass filter, the cutoff frequency is affected only by the input resistor value" is FALSE. A high-pass filter is an electronic circuit that enables high-frequency signals to pass while suppressing low-frequency signals. A high-pass filter is typically used to remove the DC component of an audio signal. The high-pass filter is made up of a capacitor and a resistor that are linked in series.When the input voltage rises above the capacitive reactance (Xc), which is inversely proportional to frequency, the high-pass filter will only allow frequencies higher than the cutoff frequency (fc) to pass. The cutoff frequency is determined by the circuit's values of R and C; a larger value for either component will result in a lower cutoff frequency. When a frequency is greater than the cutoff frequency, the high-pass filter works as a low impedance path to ground.In a high-pass filter, the cutoff frequency is influenced by both the input resistor value and the feedback resistor value. As the feedback resistor value increases, the filter's cutoff frequency decreases, and vice versa.

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Which of these is a reason an engineer may choose to use a prefabricated
building component?
A. She wants the design to be an original.
B. She wants to use a material that is not standard.
C. She is not concerned with costs.
D. She wants the construction to move quickly.

Answers

The reason an engineer may choose to use a prefabricated  building component is because: D. She wants the construction to move quickly.

A prefabricated  building component is also referred to as prefabs and it can be defined as a component that is fully manufactured to standard in a manufacturing plant or factory and then transported to a construction site, for partial assemblage and usage by an engineer. Some examples of prefabricated  building components are:

FloorPier capsWallsBox beamsComposite parapetsBox piers

Generally, the two (2) main reasons why an engineer may choose to use a prefabricated  building component are:

I. To minimize negative environmental impacts by using standard materials from the manufacturing plant or factory.

II. To make the construction process move quickly.

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Consider diodes in a rectifier circuit. Input voltage is sinusoidal with a peak of +/-10 V. Diode drop is 0.7 V. What is the PIV for each type rectifier 1. 0.7 V 2. 1.4 V 3. 10.7 V 4. 11.4 V Bridge rectifier 5. 19.3 V Full-wave rectifier 6. 8.6 V 7. 9.3 V Half-wave rectifier 8. 7.2 V 9. 12.1 V 10. 12.8 V 11. 10 V

Answers

Answer is given below:

Explanation:

Peak inverse voltage (PIV) can be defined as the maximum value of the reverse voltage of the diode, which is the maximum value of the input cycle when the diode is on. In reverse bias. Happens. 9.3V for braid rectifiers cut at 0.7The center tapered rectifier has 2 diodes in parallel so the maximum voltage is 2Vm so the answer to cut off the 0.7 voltage is19.3V. For a half wave rectifier it is Vm i.e. 10 V.

A typical oil control ring consists of blank seperate part

Answers

A typical oil control ring is a critical component in a piston engine and is responsible for regulating the amount of oil that enters the combustion chamber. It is designed as a separate part and consists of three distinct sections - the top rail, the second rail, and the expander.

The top rail of the oil control ring is designed to scrape oil off the cylinder walls and direct it back into the oil sump. The second rail sits below the top rail and helps to seal the oil control ring against the cylinder walls. The expander, which is located below the second rail, ensures that the oil control ring stays in place and maintains the proper tension against the cylinder walls.

Together, these three sections of the oil control ring work in unison to regulate the flow of oil into the combustion chamber, ensuring that the engine operates at optimal efficiency while minimizing the risk of oil leakage and excessive oil consumption. The design of the oil control ring can vary based on the specific engine application and the manufacturer's design preferences, but its function remains consistent across all applications.

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Compare and contrast the roles of agricultural and environmental scientists.

Answers

Answer:

HUHHHHHH BE SPECIFIC CHILE

Explanation:

ERM IRDK SORRY BOUT THAT

What basis do bridges use to determine whetherto forward traffic?A. MAC addressesB. IP addressesC. traffic conditions at the timeD. nothing because bridges forward all traffic

Answers

Bridges use MAC addresses to determine whether to forward traffic.

MAC (Media Access Control) addresses are unique identifiers assigned to network interface controllers (NICs) by the manufacturer. These addresses are used in Ethernet and Wi-Fi networks to uniquely identify devices at the hardware level. A MAC address is a 48-bit (6-byte) hexadecimal value, typically displayed in the format of six groups of two hexadecimal digits separated by colons or hyphens (e.g., 00:1A:2B:3C:4D:5E). They maintain a table of MAC addresses and corresponding ports, and use this information to decide where to send incoming traffic. They do not rely on IP addresses or traffic conditions at the time, and they do not forward all traffic indiscriminately.


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A horizontal force P is applied to a 130 kN box resting on a 33 incline. The line of action of P passes through the center of gravity of the box. The box is 5m wide x 5m tall, and the coefficient of static friction between the box and the surface is u=0.15. Determine the smallest magnitude of the force P that will cause the box to slip or tip first. Specify what will happen first, slipping or tipping.

A horizontal force P is applied to a 130 kN box resting on a 33 incline. The line of action of P passes

Answers

Answer:

SECTION LEARNING OBJECTIVES

By the end of this section, you will be able to do the following:

Distinguish between static friction and kinetic friction

Solve problems involving inclined planes

Section Key Terms

kinetic friction static friction

Static Friction and Kinetic Friction

Recall from the previous chapter that friction is a force that opposes motion, and is around us all the time. Friction allows us to move, which you have discovered if you have ever tried to walk on ice.

There are different types of friction—kinetic and static. Kinetic friction acts on an object in motion, while static friction acts on an object or system at rest. The maximum static friction is usually greater than the kinetic friction between the objects.

Imagine, for example, trying to slide a heavy crate across a concrete floor. You may push harder and harder on the crate and not move it at all. This means that the static friction responds to what you do—it increases to be equal to and in the opposite direction of your push. But if you finally push hard enough, the crate seems to slip suddenly and starts to move. Once in motion, it is easier to keep it in motion than it was to get it started because the kinetic friction force is less than the static friction force. If you were to add mass to the crate, (for example, by placing a box on top of it) you would need to push even harder to get it started and also to keep it moving. If, on the other hand, you oiled the concrete you would find it easier to get the crate started and keep it going.

Figure 5.33 shows how friction occurs at the interface between two objects. Magnifying these surfaces shows that they are rough on the microscopic level. So when you push to get an object moving (in this case, a crate), you must raise the object until it can skip along with just the tips of the surface hitting, break off the points, or do both. The harder the surfaces are pushed together (such as if another box is placed on the crate), the more force is needed to move them.

Two blocks are joined by an inextensible cable as shown, if the system is released from rest, determine the velocity of block A after it has moved 4 m. Assume that the coefficient of friction between block A and the plane equal to 0.3 and the pulley is weightless and frictionless​

Two blocks are joined by an inextensible cable as shown, if the system is released from rest, determine

Answers

To determine the velocity of block A after it has moved 4 m, we can use the principles of Newton's laws of motion and energy conservation. Here are the moves toward tackle the issue:

1. First, draw a free-body diagram for each block. Block A experiences weight (mg) downward, tension (T) upward, and friction (f) opposing its motion. Block B experiences weight (2mg) downward and tension (T) upward.

2. Apply Newton's second law of motion to both blocks. For Block A, we have the equation:

  T - f = ma     (Equation 1)

  For Block B, we have:

  2mg - T = 2ma   (Equation 2)

3. The erosion power can be determined as:

  f = μN

  N = mg (normal force)

  Therefore, f = μmg, where μ is the coefficient of friction.

4. Use the constraint equation due to the inextensible cable:

  s = rθ

  where s is the distance traveled by block A, r is the radius of the pulley (unknown), and θ is the angle in radians subtended by the arc on the pulley.

5. Apply conservation of energy:

  The change in potential energy is equal to the change in kinetic energy for block A.

  mgh = (1/2)mv^2

  Solving for v, we get:

  v = √(2gh)

6. Use the given information that block A has moved 4 m to determine the angle θ and the radius r using the constraint equation.

7. Substitute the values of μ, m, g, and h into the equation for v to calculate the velocity of block A after it has moved 4 m.

By following these steps, you can find the velocity of block A after it has moved 4 m. Remember to double-check your calculations and units to ensure accurate results.

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What should wheel bearing seals be checked for

Answers

Answer:

drugs

Explanation:

An ideal Otto cycle with air as the working fluid has a compression ratio of 8. The minimum and maximum temperatures in the cycle are 540 and 2400 R. Accounting for the variation of specific heats with temperature, determine (a) the amount of heat transferred to the air during the heat-addition process, (b) the thermal efficiency, and (c) the thermal efficiency of a Carnot cycle operating between the same temperature limits

Answers

Please check all the photos ( answer)

An ideal Otto cycle with air as the working fluid has a compression ratio of 8. The minimum and maximum
An ideal Otto cycle with air as the working fluid has a compression ratio of 8. The minimum and maximum
An ideal Otto cycle with air as the working fluid has a compression ratio of 8. The minimum and maximum

for which of the following tasks would it be more appropriate to use a nosql database than a sql database? more than one answer may be correct.

Answers

Analyze non -structured data, manage large datasets across platforms, and construct queries from web app data are all included.

What is NoSQL?

NoSQL databases, also known as "not only SQL" databases, store data in a different way than relational tables. The data model of a NoSQL database determines the types of these databases. Document, key-value, wide-column, and graph are the most common types. They have flexible schemas and are easy to scale with a lot of data and a lot of users.

Any non-relational database is typically referred to as a "NoSQL database" by those who use the term. Some people interpret the term "NoSQL" to mean "non SQL," while others interpret it to mean "not only SQL." NoSQL databases, in any case, are databases that store data in a format other than relational tables, as most agree.

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Describe some typical pairs of entities that you think might be common in business, and describe their relationships, whether many-to-many, one-to-many, many-to-one, or one-to-one. Explain why you think that a particular relationship applies to that pair of entities.

Answers

Answer:

Sole Proprietorship, General Partnership , Limited Partnership, corporation

Explanation:

Business in something that an individual or a group of people do for a living and produce products and services that benefits the society and the people. There are several entities that can be common in business. Some common form of entities are :

Sole Proprietorship : One to one

-- here there is only one owner in the business and he maintains and manages the entire business functions under his control.

Limited Partnership : many to one

-- here two or more than two partners establish business and runs it but only one or more is liable to the amount of the investments.

General Partnership : many to many

-- It is a business partnership where all the partners shares the profits, the assets, legal liabilities and financial liabilities, etc.

Corporation : many to one

It is a business entity where a group of individual or a group of companies run a single business which is generally authorized by the state.

Some of the typical types of the entities that one may think to be common in term of the business entities are about the relationships that are held within many to many and one to many.

The one to one relation is Sole Proprietorship, General Partnership, Limited Partnership, corporation.

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Air at 1 atm and 25◦C blows across a large concrete surface 20 m wide maintained
at 60◦C. The flow velocity is 6 m/s. Calculate the convection heat loss from the
surface.
This is heat transfer convection, mechanical engineering
please solve this question guys I'm gonna really really be appreciate it for you guys

Answers

Answer:

Air at 1 atm and 25◦C blows across a large concrete surface 20 m wide maintained

at 60◦C. The flow velocity is 6 m/s. Calculate the convection heat loss from the

surface.

This is heat transfer convection, mechanical engineering

please solve this question guys I'm gonna really really be appreciate it for you guys

What happens if the TEV bulb loses its charge?

Answers

Answer:

When a loss of charge exists, There is not a sufficient force to throttle the value open to it's correct position.

True or false. flashing arrow panels are only used at night.

Answers

Flashing arrow panels are used both during the day and at night to give advance warning and directional information to drivers where it is necessary to move to the right or to the left into another lane.

The flashing arrow panels are not used just at night but are used even during the day time. These are necessary to give the directional information to the drivers. Thus, the given statement is false.

What are the safety instructions?

The safety instructions are necessary for the drivers as absence of these would lead to increased number of accidents which could lead to death of a number of people. The flashing arrow panels is one of these instructions.

Flashing arrow panels are used during the day as well as at the night to give advance warning and directional information to the drivers where it is required to move to the right or to the left into another lane.

Some of the safety systems used at level crossings include amber and red warning lights on majority of roads, people should stop when the amber lights come on, unless vehicle has already crossed the stop line.

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A demand factor of _____ percent applies to a multifamily dwelling with ten units if the optional calculation method is used.

Answers

Answer: A demand factor of 43 percent applies to a multifamily dwelling with ten units of the optional calculation method is used.

The amount of FORCE that moves electrons is measured in

Answers

Electric current is measured in Amperes or Amps. The higher the current, the greater the flow of electrons. Voltage is measured in Volts. It is a measure of the energy available, i.e. the higher the voltage, the more energy each electron is given.

How does inductive reactance depend on the frequency of the ac voltage source and the rms current through the inductor?.

Answers

Directly proportional.

As the inductive reactance is directly proportional to the frequency, by increasing the frequency the inductive reactance of the inductor increases.

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Find the distance of the line 3x + 4y + 5 = 0 from the point (2,-3).

Answers

Explanation:

The point on the line 3x + 4y = 5, which is equidistant from (1, 2) and (3, 4) is. Therefore, the point is (15, -10).

consider the freeway and traffic conditions in example 6.1. at some point further along the roadway there is a 6% upgrade that is 1.25 mi long. all other characteristics are the same as in example 6.1. what is the los of this portion of the roadway, and how many vehicles can be added before the roadway reaches capacity (assuming that the proportion of vehicle types and the peak-hour factor remain constant)? 39

Answers

Considering the freeway and traffic conditions in example 6.1, with a 6% upgrade that is 1.25 miles long, the level of service (LOS) and roadway capacity depend on various factors such as traffic volume, vehicle types, and roadway design.

Since all other characteristics remain the same as in the LOS and capacity will be influenced by the added 6% upgrade.
To determine the LOS of this portion of the roadway, you would need to analyze the impact of the 6% upgrade on traffic flow, considering factors like vehicle speeds, densities, and flow rates. Once the LOS is determined, the number of additional vehicles that can be accommodated before reaching capacity can be calculated, taking into account the proportion of vehicle types and the peak-hour factor remaining constant.
Without specific data from example 6.1 and the roadway's existing conditions, it's not possible to provide exact values for the LOS and the number of vehicles that can be added before reaching capacity.

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2) A balanced three phase power system is supplied by 4.12-15 kV, carrying four parallel 3-phase-loads, as follows: Load 1: 515 kVA Load 2: 320 kVAR Load 3: 170 kW with 0.79 power factor, Capacitive with 0.83 Leading power factor with 0.91 Lagging power factor Load 4: is a A connected load of 90 -j 35 22 per phase Find the line current for each load and then, the total line current if the first three loads are Y connected, and then, repeat that, when these loads are A connected.

Answers

The purpose is to calculate the line currents for each load and the total line current based on the provided data.

What is the purpose of the given information about the loads in a balanced three-phase power system?

In a balanced three-phase power system supplied by 4.12-15 kV, there are four parallel three-phase loads. Load 1 has an apparent power of 515 kVA, Load 2 has a reactive power of 320 kVAR, Load 3 has an active power of 170 kW with a power factor of 0.79 (capacitive) and 0.83 (leading), and Load 4 is a complex impedance load of 90 -j35 Ω per phase.

To find the line current for each load, we can use the respective power formulas and voltage values. The line current for each load can be determined using the appropriate formulas for power calculation in three-phase systems.

To find the total line current when the first three loads are Y connected, we can add up the individual line currents of the loads.

Similarly, when the loads are A connected, the total line current can be calculated by adding up the individual line currents.

By performing the calculations based on the given information, the line currents for each load and the total line current can be determined.

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All of the following are advantages of using a pressure transducer rather than a vacuum gauge EXCEPT:

Answers

Question:

All of the following are advantages of using a pressure transducer rather than a vacuum gauge EXCEPT:

A. greater accuracy.  

B. easier identification of the cylinder.

C. measuring higher pressures.

D. ability to see the levels graphically

Answer:

The correct answer is D) ability to see the levels graphically

Explanation:

The above question derives from the Rudiments of Automotive Technology.

The function of the pressure transducer is to enable the diagnostic who is testing the engine vacuum to detect the cylinder with a faulty vacuum.

The pressure transducer does allow its user to see the vacuum graphically NOT  the levels.

Cheers.

Write two reports (papers) using the Tools in the EMERGE Platform (aka EMERGE Workbook) (not textbook). - Report #1 will focus on using six tools in the EMERGE Platform Workbook to Size Up a wicked problem facing a public senvice organization. Ideally, the public service organization will be the organization in which the student is employed, but this is not required. Students will be expected to write the report using a guidance document and set of rubrics that will be provided in the Assignment section of D2L. - Report #2 will focus on a second set of six tools in the EMERGE Platform Workbook used to identify actions that can be taken to address the wicked problem identified in the first report. Students will be expected write the paper using a guidance document and set of rubrics that will be provided in the Assignment section of D2L. - Each of these papers is worth 150 points, and together they make up about 35% of the student's grade.

Answers

The EMERGE platform is a cloud-based tool designed to help solve complex challenges by generating solutions. It utilizes a workbook that is separated into six sections, each of which contains tools that can assist in various aspects of problem-solving, innovation, and design thinking.

Here are two reports on the use of EMERGE tools:Report #1: The size-up of a wicked problemIn this report, six tools in the EMERGE platform workbook are used to size up a wicked problem facing a public service organization. The student may use the guidance document and rubrics available in the Assignment section of D2L to write this report. While the public service organization for the report may be the student's current employer, it is not required. This paper is worth 150 points.Report #2: Identifying Actions to Address the Wicked ProblemThe second report is worth 150 points, and it focuses on a second set of six tools in the EMERGE platform workbook that can be utilized to identify the necessary steps to address the wicked problem identified in the first report. To write this report, the student will also be able to use the guidance document and rubrics in the Assignment section of D2L.

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Which of the following best describes "sleep-driving"?
A. Driving while sleepy.
B. It is similar to sleep-walking.
C. Dreaming of driving, while sleeping.

Answers

The statement It is similar to sleep-walking Option(b) is the one that best describes "sleep-driving".

What does it mean to drive while fatigued?

Driving while fatigued or drowsy is known as sleep driving. This typically occurs when a driver hasn't had enough sleep, but it can also occur as a result of untreated sleep disorders, drug use, alcohol consumption, or shift employment.

According to the Division of Sleep Medicine at Harvard Medical School, there are 250,000 drivers who consistently fall asleep behind the wheel in the United States. In a public survey conducted by the National Sleep Foundation, 54% of adult drivers admitted to driving while drowsy in the previous year, with 28% admitting to actually falling asleep behind the wheel.

The National Highway Traffic Safety Administration estimates that tired driving causes more than 100,000 accidents, resulting in around 6,550 fatalities.

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The assertion It is comparable to sleepwalking. Option (b) best describes "sleep-driving"

What does it mean to drive while fatigued?Driving while fatigued or drowsy is known as sleep driving. This typically occurs when a driver hasn't had enough sleep, but it can also occur as a result of untreated sleep disorders, drug use, alcohol consumption, or shift employment.According to the Division of Sleep Medicine at Harvard Medical School, there are 250,000 drivers who consistently fall asleep behind the wheel in the United States. In a public survey conducted by the National Sleep Foundation, 54% of adult drivers admitted to driving while drowsy in the previous year, with 28% admitting to actually falling asleep behind the wheel.The National Highway Traffic Safety Administration estimates that tired driving causes more than 100,000 accidents, resulting in around 6,550 fatalities.

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An after school center has 9 students for every 4 teachers. Which fractions are equivalent to the ratio of students to teachers? Choose all that apply. Find the value of x What percent of the large square is shaded? What is the final step in writing your informational report?A: Proofreading and editingB: RevisingC: Writing the conclusionD: Peer review what is the purpose of the personification in line 3 in words like freedom??PLZ help due today :( Why is the Prefect's visit a coincidence? A. The narrator had been thinking about an odd case, and the Prefect has lived amid a world of oddities for some years. B. The narrator was just thinking about the M. Rogt case in which he and Dupin worked with the Prefect some years before. C. The narrator and Dupin are sitting in the dark, as they had been when they last saw the Prefect some years before. How do you prove 3x 1? the nurse is caring for a 3-year-old awaiting a heart transplant who requires an antiarrhythmic agent to control a supraventricular arrhythmia. what drug, if ordered, should the nurse question? Weighted average cost of capitalAmerican Exploration, Inc., a natural gas producer, is trying to decide whether to revise its target capital structure. Currently it targets a 50-50 mix of debt and equity, but it is considering a target capital structure with 90% debt. American Exploration currently has 5% after-tax cost of debt and a 10% cost of common stock. The company does not have any preferred stock outstanding.a.What is American Exploration's current WACC?b.Assuming that its cost of debt and equity remain unchanged, what will be American Exploration's WACC under the revised target capital structure?c.Do you think shareholders are affected by the increase in debt to 90%? If so, how are they affected? Are the common stock claims riskier now?d.Suppose that in response to the increase in debt, American Exploration's shareholders increase their required return so that cost of common equity is 14%. What will its new WACC be in this case?e.What does your answer in part d suggest about the tradeoff between financing with debt versus equity? Toby and Emily went to the grocery store to buy food for breakfast for the week. They needed 8 bananas, 2 loaves of bread, 1 bottle of OJ, 1 gallon of milk and a dozen eggs. Each banana was .25, each loaf of bread was 2.55, a bottle of OJ was $2.45 and dozen eggs were $3.15. How much money in total did Toby & Emily spend? Can I have one element with multiple atoms? Which element is located in group 2 period 2 on the periodic Table? people often fail to notice that they can use their knowledge of a base problem to solve a new target problem if they focus on the target problems _____. QuestionCalculate the arc length for a circle whose radius is 6 with a central angle =135. S= When identifying the molecular ion peak, M^+,all of the following must be kept in mind, except: Select one: a. intensities of isotopic peaks M + 1, M + 2 and so forth must be consistent with the proposed formula. b. the peak for the heaviest fragment ion should not correspond to an improbable mass loss from M^+ c. if a fragment ion is known to contain X atoms of element Z, then there must be at least X atoms of element Z in the molecular ion. d. M^+ will be the highest m/z value of any of the "significant" peaks in the spectrum that can not be attributed to isotopes or background. e. M^+ will be at least 70% of the base peak. A Web site should be held to the same credibility standards as traditional text sources.Please select the best answer from the choices provided What is the term for the military formation which the byzantine empire copied from the Roman Empire? how are firms classified into peer groups for ratio analysis Sandy's monthly earnings consist of a fixed salary of $2,500 and a 10% commission on all her monthly sales. To cover her planned expenses, Sandy needs to earn an income of at least $6,000 this month. Write and solve an algebraic inequality to find the amount of sales Sandy needs to cover her planned expenses. Which of the following statements regarding breathing and circulation in insects is false?A) Insects lose very little water by using a tracheal system to breathe.B) The tracheal system of insects consists of a series of branching air tubes that extend from the surface to deep inside the body.C) Terrestrial animals such as insects spend much more energy than aquatic animals to ventilate their respiratory surfaces.D) The circulatory system of insects is not involved in transporting oxygen.