The most effective emergency procedure to treat an acid splash is:
first and foremost you must call the ambulance or other emergency servicesWashing is the most crucial action to perform. Use lots of fresh or saline (salt) water to complete this. The victim should continue to get this treatment until the burning feeling subsides, which could take anywhere from 30 to 45 minutes. If acid gets into a patient's eyes, they should be rinsed out with cold water for at least 10 minutes.As a top priority, every jewelry and clothing that has been in touch with acid should be taken off.Applying lotion or ointment to the burnt area should be avoided by the person treating the burn since this may delay professional medical attention.Use sterile gauze to loosely wrap the affected area if at all possible. This should lessen the chance of dirt and debris infecting the wound.The most crucial thing is to transport the patient to a hospital, especially one with a burns unit on a separate ward.What is the effect of acid on skin?
Sulfuric acid is a powerful, corrosive chemical. Corrosive substances are those that, when they come into touch with skin or mucous membranes, can result in serious burns and tissue damage. Contact with potent acids or bases is the main contributor to chemical burn.
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rhodes e, wilson m, robinson a, hayden ja, asbridge m. the effectiveness of prescription drug monitoring programs at reducing opioid-related harms and consequences: a systematic review. bmc health serv res. 2019 nov 1;19(1):784.
In conclusion, the findings of this review support the use of PDMPs as a critical tool for reducing opioid-related harms and consequences. The review also highlights the need for additional research to identify best practices for implementing and utilizing PDMPs.
Prescription drug monitoring programs (PDMPs) are statewide databases designed to identify controlled substance prescriptions, to reduce the prescription of controlled substances, and to prevent overdoses. These systems track the quantity and duration of opioid prescriptions, and they track patient behavior and other behaviors that may indicate abuse or addiction.
This systematic review aimed to assess the effectiveness of PDMPs in reducing opioid-related harms and consequences. The review analyzed different types of studies, including randomized controlled trials, cohort studies, and case-control studies, to assess the impact of PDMPs on opioid-related harms and consequences. The review found that PDMPs are effective in reducing opioid-related harms and consequences. The results show that PDMPs reduce opioid prescribing and overdose mortality, and they increase the identification and treatment of opioid addiction.
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Kirron arrived and took over compressions. To ensure high quality CPR, providers should switch off giving compressions every ---------minutes or sooner if the provider giving compressions is fatigued. My answer was 2 minutes an was marked wrong answer.
Answer:
2 minutes
Explanation:
You should switch off every two minutes or about 5 cycles of chest compression and breathing, however, if it is a child, it should be about 10 cycles of compressions and breathing. That's weird that it was marked wrong though.
Kirron arrived and took over compressions. To ensure high quality CPR, providers should switch off giving compressions every 2 minutes or sooner if the provider giving compressions is fatigued.
In the context of providing high-quality cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), it is recommended to switch the person giving compressions every 2 minutes or sooner if the provider becomes fatigued. CPR is a crucial life-saving technique performed during cardiac arrest to maintain blood flow to vital organs until more advanced medical help can be provided.
Performing effective CPR requires a significant amount of physical effort, and fatigue can quickly set in, affecting the quality and effectiveness of the compressions. By rotating compressors every 2 minutes, it ensures that providers remain fresh and able to deliver strong and consistent chest compressions.
Regular rotation also helps prevent compressions from becoming too shallow or too fast, which can be detrimental to the outcome of the resuscitation efforts. High-quality CPR involves compressions that are at least 2 inches deep and delivered at a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute.
It is essential for all providers involved in CPR to communicate effectively, so the switch happens smoothly without any delay in compressions. This teamwork and coordinated effort contribute to the best chances of successful resuscitation and better outcomes for the patient in cardiac arrest. Remember, CPR guidelines may vary slightly depending on the specific guidelines and protocols in different regions or organizations. Always follow the guidelines and training provided by a certified CPR training program or healthcare authority.
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Acetaminophen, in amounts greater than 4 g per day, has been associated with livertoxicity. What is the maximum number of 500-mg tablets of acetaminophen that a person may take daily and not reach the toxic level?
Fill in the blank. Damaged muscle is often replaced by fibrotic scar, which leads to ________, __________, and ____________
Damaged muscle is often replaced by fibrotic scar, which leads to reduced flexibility, impaired muscle function, and decreased strength.
When a muscle is damaged due to injury or disease, the body responds by forming fibrotic scar tissue to repair the affected area, this tissue, made up of collagen fibers, is less elastic and less functional than healthy muscle tissue. As a result, the overall flexibility of the muscle decreases, limiting the range of motion and potentially causing discomfort or pain. Furthermore, the formation of fibrotic scar tissue can impair muscle function by disrupting the normal muscle structure and altering the way muscles contract, this can result in decreased force production and a reduction in the overall efficiency of the muscle.
Lastly, the presence of fibrotic scar tissue can lead to decreased strength, as the scarred muscle fibers are less able to generate force compared to healthy muscle fibers. This may lead to a diminished ability to perform everyday tasks or participate in physical activities. Overall, the formation of fibrotic scar tissue in damaged muscle can have a significant negative impact on muscle flexibility, function, and strength.
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You are visiting a friend. The friend's toddler is playing in the living room when you hear
a crash and all the lights in the house go out. You enter the living room and see the toddler
lying face-down on the floor. A broken lamp is nearby, and there is the smell of burnt
carpeting near the lamp. What in this scenario are the appropriate common indicators of an
emergency?
Answer:
The burnt smell and the toddler lying face-down on the carpet.
Explanation:
Hope this helps. Have a nice day you amazing bean child.
a brief, repetitive, stereotyped, coordinated movement occurring at irregular intervals (motor or vocalizations) is the definition of a:
A brief, repetitive, stereotyped, coordinated movement occurring at irregular intervals (motor or vocalizations) is the definition of a Facial tics.
A face tic is an uncontrollable, involuntary facial muscular spasm. The tic is unwelcome and typically happens frequently enough to bother the individual experiencing it.Similar to holding in a sneeze, a person can briefly suppress a tic, but doing so frequently makes the individual more uncomfortable.Facial tics can be brought on by a few different conditions, although they often don't signify a serious illness.In children, facial tics are more frequent than in adults, and males seem to be far more prone than girls to develop facial tics, according to a paper in Pediatric Neurology. After a few months, most children's facial tics disappear.
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How did john watson have different view from sigmund freud
Explanation:
John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism.
Freud incorporated the concept of the unconscious to explain transference. Watson understood and was intrigued by Freud's definition of sexual transference, but he was searching for an explanation of transference that did not involve the unconscious (Watson & Morgan, 1917)
Answer:
John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism. After failing to explain psychoanalysis in terms of William James's concept of habit, Watson borrowed concepts from classical conditioning to explain Freud's discoveries. Watson's famous experiment with Little Albert is interpreted not only in the context of Pavlovian conditioning but also as a psychoanalytically inspired attempt to capture simplified analogues of adult phobic behavior, including the "transference" of emotion in an infant. Watson used his behavioristic concept of conditioned emotional responses to compete with Freud's concepts of displacement and the unconscious transference of emotion. Behind a mask of anti-Freudian bias, Watson surprisingly emerges as a psychologist who popularized Freud and pioneered the scientific appraisal of his ideas in the laboratory.
Explanation:
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a nurse is talking to a neighbor who asks about reoccurring symptoms of gnawing epigastric pain following meals and heartburn. recognizing these symptoms, what suggestion could the nurse make?
Avoiding alcohol and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medications is the suggestion could the nurse make.
What is epigastric pain?
Epigastric pain is a name for pain or discomfort right below your ribs in the area of your upper abdomen. It often happens alongside other common symptoms of your digestive system. These symptoms can include heartburn, bloating, and gas. Epigastric pain isn't always caused for concern.
Peptic ulcer disease is characterized by dull, gnawing pain in the midepigastrium or the back that worsens with eating. Recommendations for improvement in symptoms include: Avoid all coffee and other sources of caffeine as well as alcohol and tobacco. Avoid milk and milk products as well, they increase acid secretion. Eat smaller amounts of food more frequently. Don't let your stomach go empty for long periods of time. Drink peppermint tea and chamomile teas frequently.
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How do you deal with pain? It's my sister's birthday, she is 15. I miss her so so much.
Answer:
i personally read, but you can also write about how you're feeling
Explanation:
5 Ways to Take Your Mind off the Pain
1. Focus on Pain-Free Areas. If you're hurting from nerve pain in the feet, concentrate on what your hands can do instead.
2. Think Positively. We've all heard the saying “It could be a lot worse” at one time or another.
3. Distract Yourself.
4. Breathe Deeply.
5. Visualize the Good.
Simple breathing and relaxation
First, you will need to get relaxed. To practice a relaxation exercise, you must first set aside some time when you know you will not be disturbed.
Put yourself in a relaxed, reclining position in a dark room. Either shut your eyes or focus on a single point. Be sure your position is comfortable.
See Pillow Support and Comfort
Slow down your breathing by doing the following: Breathe in deeply through your nose, using your chest to pull the air into your stomach, while slowly counting to 10. Exhale slowly through your mouth, while pursing your lips, for a count of 10.
After you feel yourself relaxing, begin using imagery techniques.
Once you are relaxed, use the following effective imagery techniques to help control your chronic pain.
Dont overwhelm yourself, try calling her, or messaging her..
Early defibrillation is a link in the adult Chain of Survival. Why is this important to survival?
Answer:
it is important because it stable breathing
Early defibrillation is a link in the adult survival chain because it increases the chances of survival after experiencing a cardiac arrest because it is the process of delivering an electrical shock to the heart.
What is the significance of defibrillation?It is significant because it can help someone recover from a cardiac arrest by restoring a normal heart rhythm, which is a life-saving procedure that uses an electrical shock to restore the heart's normal rhythm. Through this process, a shock is given to the chest that stops the abnormal rhythm, and allows the normal rhythm to return, and makes the heart pump again.
Hence, early defibrillation is a link in the adult survival chain because it increases the chances of survival after experiencing a cardiac arrest because it is the process of delivering an electrical shock to the heart.
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Why would 131I be used to specifically destroy the thyroid gland and have minimal effect on other cells And tissues in the body
Answer:
The thyroid gland absorbs almost all of the iodine in the body. When radioactive iodine (RAI), also known as I-131, is given to the body as a liquid or capsule, it becomes concentrated in thyroid cells. Radiation can kill the thyroid gland and any other thyroid cells or tissues (including cancer cells) that absorb iodine, without damaging any other organs.
Explanation:
The thyroid gland is an organ that belongs to the endocrine system and its function is to synthesize hormones that are responsible for controlling the body's metabolism, this gland has an important characteristic and that is that the hormones it produces have a unique chemical composition due to They are the only hormones that contain iodine in their structure, this in turn is essential for its functioning because the body does not synthesize it and it must be consumed in the diet. When a small dose of the radiopharmaceutical iodine 131 (Sodium Iodide 131I) is consumed, it is absorbed into the bloodstream and concentrated by the thyroid gland, where it begins to destroy cancer cells in the gland. 131I quickly attaches itself to thyroid cells to destroy them, but continues to emit radioactivity for a long time: it takes 8 days to halve. The beta radiation particles of 131I, which we call radioiodine or radioactive iodine, have a range of 2mm and act for a long time in a constant way. Fortunately, the body's metabolism quickly expels iodine through the urine, so that in one day the amount of iodine has decreased considerably.
What pathologic or disease state might necessitate the use of one class of diuretics over another? Give an example and explain.
The pathologic or disease state might necessitate the use of one class of diuretics over another is liver disease.
Spironolactone is the class one diuretic recommended for a patient with cirrhosis and edema.
What are diuretics ?A diuretic is described as any substance that promotes diuresis, the increased production of urine and this might includes forced diuresis.
There are three known types of diuretics and they include:
Thiazide. Loop. Potassium sparing.The use of some diuretics is also prominent in cases of overdose or poisoning as they help to increase the excretion of certain substances from the patient's body.
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What evidence is there that accurate perception is learned versus instinctual or intuitive?
Answer:
4
Instinct - a motor response initiated by the body totally controlled by an external stimulus. An instinct is by definition, a behavior.
Intuition - A sudden alignment of neuronal pathways that joins weakly associated concepts, ideas, facts, into a neuronal network that pulls conscious selective attention skills away from current activities. May induce a positive somatic reaction estbalishing a pleasuraable experience from the thought or idea.
In more colloquial terms (e.g. woman's intuition) its activation of an established network in response to multiple external stimuli that alone would not draw attention. However, it is still a cognitive process whereas instinct is a behavioral process. This should help:
The setting was all wrong, his intuition was telling him this was a set-up. Suddenly it all made sense, the ill fitting uniform on the guard, the broken security camera, the elevator being out of order, instinctively he dropped to the floor and reached for his gun" - intuition - thought resulting from multiple stimuli meaningless on their own, instinct ; immediate reaction WITHOUT forethought.
Explanation:
Intuition is the ability to acquire knowledge without recourse to conscious reasoning.
There are 4 types of intuition. This intuition is as follows:-
Instinct - a motor response initiated by the body totally controlled by an external stimulus. An instinct is by definition, a behavior.Intuition - A sudden alignment of neuronal pathways that joins weakly associated concepts, ideas, facts, into a neuronal network that pulls conscious selective attention skills away from current activities.
May induce a positive somatic reaction establishing a pleasurable experience from the thought or idea.
In more colloquial terms (e.g. woman's intuition) its activation of an established network in response to multiple external stimuli that alone would not draw attention. However, it is still a cognitive process whereas instinct is a behavioral process. This should help:
The setting was all wrong, his intuition was telling him this was a set-up. Suddenly it all made sense, the ill-fitting uniform on the guard, the broken security camera, the elevator being out of order, instinctively he dropped to the floor and reached for his gun" - intuition - thought resulting from multiple stimuli meaningless on their own, instinct; immediate reaction WITHOUT forethought.
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if you were a clinical laboratory scientist (medical technologist) working in a cml, what are some of the actions you would take to protect yourself from becoming infected?
As a clinical laboratory scientist, protecting oneself from infections involves wearing PPE, observing standard precautions, practicing proper hand hygiene, safe handling and labeling of samples, performing risk assessments, and participating in medical surveillance programs.
As a clinical laboratory scientist (medical technologist) working in a Clinical Medical Laboratory (CML), the following are some of the actions that one would take to protect themselves from becoming infected: 1. Wearing Personal Protective Equipment (PPE): PPE such as gloves, gowns, eye protection, and masks should be worn while working in the laboratory to prevent contact with infectious material and prevent any infections.
2. Observing Standard Precautions: It is essential to observe standard precautions to prevent the spread of infections in the laboratory. Standard precautions include proper handling, decontamination, and disposal of laboratory equipment, infectious material, and hazardous waste. 3. Proper hand hygiene: Medical technologists should practice proper hand hygiene by washing hands regularly with soap and water for at least 20 seconds or using alcohol-based hand sanitizers. 4. Safe handling of laboratory samples: Medical technologists should handle laboratory samples with care to prevent spills, splashes, and contamination.
5. Proper labeling of samples: Medical technologists should label samples correctly with identification details to prevent errors and mix-ups. 6. Risk assessment: Medical technologists should perform a risk assessment of their work environment, determine the level of risk, and take appropriate measures to mitigate any potential hazards. 7. Medical surveillance: Medical technologists should participate in medical surveillance programs that aim to monitor and identify any potential health risks associated with laboratory work.
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What is the full name of the chemical in marijuana that is the mind altering/psychoactive ingredient that can impact memory, coordination and addiction?.
Name two reasons why is it problematic for some of a prescription cream to get spread on the outside of a jar during the packaging process.
Answer:
Contamination due to bacteria & Ingredients can oxidize
Explanation:
When the cream spreads to the outside of the jar it has bacteria around it affecting the product. The ingredients oxidizing does not allow it to fully function and act as its original prescription form
explaination on multiple alleles using eye colour in drosophila
A medical assistant is preparing a patient for a procedure to have a mole excised. Which one of the following actions should the assistant take?
The medical assistant should cleanse the site with surgical soap and an antiseptic while preparing the patient for mole excision.
The removal of mole from a person is a very short process and takes very less amount of time. Moles generally do not need treatment unless the person himself decides to remove the mole. During the process of removal of mole, the doctor usually makes the area of the patient where the mole is present numb using some medical anesthesia.
After this the doctor cuts out the mole from the area. Along with the mole some amount of skin is also cut out if it is necessary in some cases. This can leave a mark that may be permanent unless treated. Some people with other skin issues may have some side effects due to this process of mole excision.
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Physiologic derangements seen in the patient with scleroderma include: (Select 3)
pulmonary hypertension
esophageal dysmotility
excessive oral secretions and salivation
myocardial fibrosis
hypotension
spastic quadraparesis
Scleroderma is a connective tissue disorder that affects various organs in the body. Pulmonary hypertension, esophageal dysmotility, and myocardial fibrosis are three of the most common physiologic derangements seen in patients with scleroderma.
Pulmonary hypertension occurs when the blood vessels in the lungs become narrow, leading to increased blood pressure and strain on the heart. Esophageal dysmotility is characterized by difficulty swallowing and regurgitation of food, and can lead to malnutrition and weight loss.
Myocardial fibrosis refers to the buildup of scar tissue in the heart, which can lead to heart failure and arrhythmias. While excessive oral secretions and salivation, hypotension, and spastic quadraparesis can be seen in some patients with scleroderma, they are not as common as the first three.
It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these physiologic derangements in scleroderma patients and provide appropriate management and treatment to improve their quality of life.
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symptoms of aplastic anemia
Answer
Anemia symptoms include fatigue, shortness of breath, headaches, bruising, malaise
preindopril mechanism of action ?
Answer:
inhibition of ACE activity.
Explanation:
The mechanism through which perindoprilat lowers blood pressure. ACE is a peptidyl dipeptidase that catalyzes conversion of the inactive decapepetide, angiotensin i, to the vasoconstrictor, angiotensin ii.
Perindopril, and generally any medication ending in the suffix -pril, is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, meaning its mechanism of action is to block the conversion of blood hormone angiotensin 1 to vasoconstricting blood hormone angiotension 2, as well as increase increase plasma levels of enzyme renin and reduce levels of aldosterone, with the goal of causing systemic vasodilation which leads to a decrease in blood pressure in those with hypertension (HTN) and decreased risk of death from cardiovascular events in patients with coronary artery disease (CAD).
Which of the following statements shows a relationship that is correlated but NOT causal? A. The amount of led paint in a house and the slow brain development in children. B. The years of smoking and lung diseases. C. The amount of junk food consumed and the weight increase in children. D. Outdoor exercise and the incidence of skin cancer.?
Outdoor exercise and the incidence of skin cancer due to over exposure to the UV rays emitted by the sun.
It is possible for cancer to spread to more body parts or to infect them. A group of illnesses known as cancer are characterised by uncontrollable cell division. Benign tumours do not spread, in contrast. Some probable symptoms and indicators include a lump, unusual bleeding, a chronic cough, unexplained weight loss, and a change in bowel habits. There are other potential explanations besides cancer, however these symptoms can be connected to it. Over 100 different varieties of cancer can strike anyone.
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EHR systems are becoming extremely popular due to their benefits and advantages. These advantages include better quality of care, more accurate patient info, interoperability, increased efficiency, increased revenue, scalability, accessibility, customization, security, and support.
Based on the above advantages I noted; can you elaborate on one and why you think it is a good advantage for patient care?
EHR systems' accessibility to precise patient data significantly improves patient treatment. It improves decision making for healthcare professionals, lowers medical errors, and facilitates fast and effective therapeutic actions.
Advantages of EHR systems to patientsThe accessibility of more precise patient data is one benefit of electronic health record (EHR) systems that considerably enhances patient care.
All patient data is kept in one place and made available to authorized healthcare practitioners using EHR systems. This implies that when making treatment decisions for a patient, doctors, nurses, and experts involved in their care can quickly and simply obtain the most current and comprehensive information. They have real time access to test findings, imaging reports, prescription histories, and other important information.
EHR systems frequently come with clinical reminders and decision support tools that can assist healthcare professionals in adhering to evidence-based recommendations and best practices.
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Carbohydrates of biological importance to elderly and children
Answer:
They provide energy to the bodies of the elderly and children through particularly glucose
Answer:
Add energy in adults
glucose in children
Explanation:
Which of the following is true of a living will? They allow patients to make decisions for themselves. The patient must agree to have invasive care. Health care facilities can choose to ignore them. They often ban the use of respirators.
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Through a living will, a patient can make decisions for themselves.
They allow patients to make decisions for themselves is true about living will. Hence option 1 is correct.
What are patients?Patients are defined as a person who is receiving or has recently received medical attention. The word "patient" is not usually used to describe a person receiving medical attention due to issues with political correctness, human rights, and dignity.
A medical power of attorney is a legal instrument that enables a person to appoint a specific person known as an agent, surrogate, or proxy—to make health care decisions on their behalf in the event that they are unable to do so themselves. A decision you can make in advance to reject a particular kind of treatment at a later time is known as an advance decision.
Thus, they allow patients to make decisions for themselves is true about living will. Hence option 1 is correct.
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many jurisdictions/organizations configure their EOCs using the standard ____ organizational structure?
Organizations configure their EOCs using the standard ICS organizational
structure.
It is important for every organization or jurisdiction to have an emergency
operations center(EOC) which is responsible for taking care of emergency
situations.
The individuals in the EOC responsible for planning , financing and logistics to achieve a common goal and they are usually configured by using the
standard Incident Command System(ICS). These contain various elements
and the individuals in each element for accountability.
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acupuncture is better or conventional medicine?why?
Answer:
"The superiority of both forms of acupuncture suggests a common underlying mechanism that may act on pain generation, transmission of pain signals or processing of pain signals by the central nervous system and that is stronger than the action mechanism of conventional therapy," the authors conclude
Explanation:
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94. Arthritis symptoms develop:
(A) Rapidly
(B) They can develop rapidly or slowly, depending on the type and individual
(C) Slowly
Answer: choice B
Explanation:
Arthritis symptopms can develop rapidly or slowly depending on the type and individual.
There are many types of arthritis e.g. rheumatoid arthritis, Osteoarthritis, Psoriatic Arthritis etc.
Someone help please :)
Movement of the subject while an ECG trace is being recorded will lead to
Select one:
a. the incorrect measurement of heart rate
b. the incorrect measure of heart rhythm
c. distorted QRS waves
d. will produce no effect
e. a baseline that appears wavy or bumpy
Movement of the subject while an ECG trace is being recorded will lead to the incorrect measure of heart rhythm that is present in Option b, as the ECG is the graphical representation of the heart's contraction and relaxation.
What is the significance of the ECG?An electrocardiogram, or ECG, is a test that measures the electrical activity of the heart and is used to check the heart's rhythm and detect any problems with the heart's electrical activity, such as problems in the atrium and ventricle, which can show the symptoms of heart attacks, abnormal heart rhythms, heart failure, etc.
Hence, movement of the subject while an ECG trace is being recorded will lead to the incorrect measure of heart rhythm that is present in Option b, as the ECG is the graphical representation of the heart's contraction and relaxation.
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A client has dysphagia and is beginning an oral motor feeding program. The OTR observes that the client has reduced lingual control when swallowing. Which food is SAFEST to include as part of the client's diet
A client who has dysphagia and is beginning an oral motor feeding program, the OTR (occupational therapist) observed that the client has reduced lingual control when swallowing.
The safest food to include in the client's diet is pureed food. Dysphagia is the medical term for swallowing problems. It is a condition where people have trouble swallowing, making it difficult for them to eat and drink without discomfort. This condition can affect people of any age, but it is more common in older adults and people with certain medical conditions, such as stroke, brain injury, or Parkinson's disease. In people with dysphagia, reduced lingual control can make it difficult to move food and liquids from the mouth to the stomach safely. For a client with reduced lingual control when swallowing, pureed food is the safest food to include in the client's diet. Pureed foods have a smooth and uniform consistency that makes it easier to swallow without choking or aspiration. Other foods that can be safe to include in a dysphagia diet include thickened liquids, soft or mashed fruits, and well-cooked vegetables. However, it is essential to consult a speech-language pathologist (SLP) or registered dietitian to determine which foods are safe and appropriate for an individual with dysphagia.
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