two point charges exert a 2.50 n force on each other. what will the force (in n) become if the distance between them is increased by a factor of 4?

\( \color{darkblue} \mathbb{EXPLANATION:}\)

— The formula for acceleration is given by:

where,

---------

— To get the acceleration, divide the given net force by the given mass. Its quotient is the acceleration that should be measured in meters per second squared (m/s²).

Using our formula/equation, we get:

\( \color{darkblue} \mathbb{FINAL \: \: ANSWER:}\)

_______________◇_______________

\(\huge{\textbf{\textsf{{\color{pink}{An}}{\red{sw}}{\orange{er}} {\color{yellow}{:}}}}}\)

ㅤ1,111+1,102

ㅤ= 2,213

Answer:

personality disorder

Explanation:

Certain family dynamics, such as abusive parenting, can increase the susceptibility of someone developing a(n) personality disorder.

A disorder is diagnosed when these personality traits are significantly “deviated” from others and are very inflexible, impairing a person's adaptation to everyday situations and causing distress and discomfort in their personal relationships and other areas of life.

Personality disorders are generally pervasive and persistent patterns of thinking, perceiving, reacting, and relating that cause significant distress or functional impairment.

See more about personality disorders at brainly.com/question/27291111

707.25N is representative of forces in the ankle joint.

Which equation is used to determine force?

Force (N) = mass (kg) x acceleration (m/s2) is a concise expression for it. In light of this, an object with constant mass accelerates in direct proportion to the force exerted. Newton's second equation of motion provides the definition of the force formula: F = m a, where m is the mass of the object and an is its acceleration. This formula requires the use of SI units for force (in Newtons), mass (in kilograms), and acceleration (in meters per second squared).

Newton's second equation of motion provides the definition of the force formula: F = m a, where m is the mass of the object and an is its acceleration.

75 × 9.43 = 707.25N.

To learn more about force refer to:

brainly.com/question/12785175

#SPJ4

Answer490N:

Explanation:

Answer:

96 mph

Explanation:

There are a couple of ways of doing this, but I will just use a proportion.

first off 1 hour = 60 minutes.

So 144/90 = x/60 will give me the answer per 60 minutes of miles per hour.

cross multiply to get  90x = 8640

divide by 90 to get 96 miles per 60 minutes or 96 mph.

Hope this helped.

Answer:

Explanation:

Since work = magnitude of the force times the displacement, then

W = 43.0(5.00) so

W = 215 N*m

To solve this, we must be knowing each and every concept related to fundamental force. Therefore,  215 Nm is the work done on a bookshelf being pulled 5.00 m at an angle of 37.0° from the horizontal.

Nature is governed by four fundamental or universal forces. All stuff in the universe would disintegrate in the absence of these forces. Any pull or push that causes an item to change its physical condition is referred to as force (in terms of motion or deformity).

Mathematically, the formula for work can be given as

work = force × displacement× cos(Θ)

W = F × D × cos(Θ)

force= 43.0 N

Θ=37.0°

displacement=5.00 m

substituting all the given values in the above equation, we get

W =  43.0  × 5.00  × cos(37.0°)

W = 215 Nm

Therefore,  215 Nm is the work done on a bookshelf being pulled 5.00 m at an angle of 37.0° from the horizontal.

To know more about fundamental force, here:

https://brainly.com/question/14524583

#SPJ2

Plastic strain at tensile strength is approximately 20%. As the strain is less than the plastic strain at tensile strength, the iron bar will not experience necking. Hence, the iron bar will not experience necking.

Given Information: A force of 100,000 N is applied to an iron bar with a cross-sectional area of 10 mm × 20 mm. The yield strength of the iron bar is 400 MPa. The tensile strength of the iron bar is 480 MPa.

Formulae:Stress = Force / Area. Stress is proportional to Strain where the proportionality constant is called the modulus of elasticity or Young's modulus. Yield strength is the stress at which a material begins to deform plastically. Necking is a process where a material becomes narrower as it stretches under a load or stress. It is a type of plastic deformation of a material. It is given that force applied is 100000 N.

The cross-sectional area of the iron bar is 10 mm x 20 mm i.e. 200 mm²

.Stress on the iron bar is:

σ = F/A = 100000 / 200σ = 500 N/mm²

Tensile strength of the iron bar is 480 MPa or 480 N/mm² and yield strength is 400 MPa or 400 N/mm².

The stress on the iron bar is less than the yield strength of the iron bar i.e. 500 N/mm² < 400 N/mm².

Therefore, the bar will not plastically deform as stress is less than yield strength.

Necking of the iron bar happens when the iron bar experiences more strain under stress. If the stress is more than tensile strength, then the necking happens.

Necking can be determined from strain. Strain on the iron bar is:ε = σ / E = 500 / 200000 = 0.0025 or 0.25%

The strain is less than the plastic strain at tensile strength. Plastic strain occurs when the material experiences an irreversible change in shape i.e. necking. Plastic strain at tensile strength is approximately 20%. As the strain is less than the plastic strain at tensile strength, the iron bar will not experience necking. Hence, the iron bar will not experience necking.

To know more about material visit-

https://brainly.com/question/30503992

#SPJ11

Answer:

Its called pollen. Pollen is a powdery substance consisting of pollen grains which are male microgametophytes of seed plants, which produce male gametes (sperm cells).

Hope this helps, have a great day/night and stay safe!

the energy possessed by a body by virtue of its position relative to others, stresses within itself, electric charge, and other factors.

A book on a table before it falls.

A child at the top of a slide.

Ripe fruit before it falls.

River water at the top of a waterfall.

The ball's kinetic energy increases by equal amounts in equal time intervals, not by equal amounts in equal distances.

The ball's kinetic energy increases by equal amounts in equal time intervals. As the ball falls freely, it is affected by gravity, which causes it to accelerate at a constant rate (9.81 m/s²). Due to this acceleration, the ball gains velocity, and therefore, kinetic energy.

Kinetic energy (KE) is given by the equation:

KE = 0.5 * m * v²

Where m is the mass of the ball and v is its velocity. Since the ball is accelerating constantly due to gravity, its velocity increases linearly with time. The increase in velocity leads to a quadratic increase in kinetic energy with respect to time. Therefore, the kinetic energy increases by equal amounts in equal time intervals.

However, the kinetic energy does not increase by equal amounts in equal distances. As the ball falls, its velocity increases, causing the distance it travels in each time interval to also increase. Since the kinetic energy is dependent on the velocity squared, the increases in kinetic energy for equal distances will not be the same.

Learn more about velocity:

https://brainly.com/question/25749514

#SPJ11

First, we shall determine the equivalent of R₂ and R₃. Details below:

R = (R₂ × R₃) / (R₂ + R₃)

R = (9 × 3) / (9 + 3)

R = 2.25 Ω

Now, we shall determine the equivalent resistance, Rₜ for the circuit. Details below:

Rₜ = R₁ + R

Rₜ = 2 + 2.25

Equivalent resistance (Rₜ) = 4.25 Ω

The total current, Iₜ can be obtained as follow:

Current = Voltage / resistance

Iₜ = 34 / 4.25

Total current (Iₜ) = 8 A

Voltage in series connection are different.

V₁ is in series connection with the total voltage of V₂ and V₃. Thus, it's value can be obtained as follow:

V = IₜR₁

V₁ = 8 × 2

V₁ = 16 V

Voltage in parallel connection is the same through out the circuit.

Thus, V₂ and V₃ are in parallel connection. Thus we can obtain their value as follow:

V₂ = V₃ = IₜR

V₂ = V₃ = 8 × 2.25

V₂ = V₃ = 18 V

We can obtain I₁ as shown below:

I₁ = V₁ / R₁

I₁ = 16 / 2

current 1 (I₁) = 8 A

We can obtain I₂ as shown below:

I₁ = V₂ / R₂

I₂ = 18 / 9

current 2 (I₂) = 2 A

We can obtain I₃ as follow:

I₃ = V₃ / R₃

I₃ = 18 / 3

current 3 (I₃) = 6 A

Learn more about resistance:

https://brainly.com/question/13691672

#SPJ1

To determine the minimum coefficient of friction needed between the legs and the ground to keep the sign in the position shown if the chain breaks, we need to consider the forces acting on the sign. When the chain breaks, the weight of the sign (W) will create a torque around the point where the legs touch the ground.

The torque due to the weight of the sign is equal to W multiplied by the distance between the point of contact and the center of gravity of the sign (r).

To prevent the sign from tipping over, the frictional force acting on the legs needs to be greater than or equal to the torque due to the weight of the sign. The frictional force is equal to the coefficient of friction (μ) multiplied by the normal force (N) acting on the legs. The normal force is equal to the weight of the sign (W) plus any additional weight on the legs (if any).

Therefore, the equation for the minimum coefficient of friction needed is:

μ ≥ (W * r) / (W + N)

where N is the normal force acting on the legs.

In order to solve this equation, we need to know the weight of the sign and the distance between the point of contact and the center of gravity of the sign. Once we have those values, we can plug them into the equation and solve for the minimum coefficient of friction needed to prevent the sign from tipping over.

To determine the minimum coefficient of friction needed between the legs and the ground to keep the sign in the position shown if the chain breaks, you need to follow these steps:

1. Calculate the forces acting on the sign, including its weight (gravitational force) and any other external forces (like tension in the chain, if applicable).

2. Determine the torque (rotational force) acting on the sign. Torque can be calculated using the formula torque = force × distance × sin(angle). In this case, you'll need to consider the distances from the legs to the sign's center of mass and the angle between the legs and the ground.

3. Calculate the normal force (the force perpendicular to the ground) acting on the legs. This is usually equal to the weight of the sign.

4. To keep the sign in the position shown, the friction force between the legs and the ground must be sufficient to counteract the torque created by the weight of the sign. Friction force can be calculated using the formula friction force = normal force × coefficient of friction.

5. Use the information from steps 1-4 to solve for the minimum coefficient of friction needed to keep the sign in place. Set the friction force equal to the torque acting on the sign, and solve for the coefficient of friction.

Learn more about friction on:

https://brainly.com/question/13000653

#SPJ11

The induced EMF is-0.45V and the induced current for the first and third intervals is -0.9A.

the slope of B vs t gives the dB/dt

from the relation emf = NAdB/dt

a) from 0 to 3 s

dB/dt = 0.4-0/(3-0) = 0.133 T/s

emf = 48*0.14*0.133 = 0.894 V

for 3 to 6 sec

dB/dt = 0 (slope is zero)

emf = 0

for 6 to 9 sec

dB/dt = (0.2-0.4)/(9-6) = -0.067 T/s

emf = 48*0.14(-0.067) = -0.45 V

b) if R = 0.5 ohm

current i = 0.894/0.5 = 1.788 A

for 6 to 9 sec

i = -0.45/0.5 = -0.9 A

Induced EMF (Electromotive Force) is the voltage or potential difference that is generated in a conductor when it is exposed to a changing magnetic field. This is due to Faraday’s Law of Electromagnetic Induction, which states that a time-varying magnetic field induces an electric field in a conductor.Induced EMF is the basis for the operation of many electrical devices such as generators and transformers.

Generators convert mechanical energy into electrical energy through the use of induced EMF, while transformers use it to change the voltage and current levels of an AC power system.When a conductor is placed in a magnetic field and the field strength or direction changes, it causes the magnetic flux through the conductor to change.

To learn more about Induced EMF visit here:

brainly.com/question/29656124

#SPJ4

Complete Question: -

A magnetic field passes through a stationary wire loop, and its magnitude changes in time according to the graph in the drawing. The direction of the field remains constant, however. There are three equal time intervals indicated in the graph: 0 – 3.0 s, 3.0 – 6.0 s, and 6.0 – 9.0 s. The loop consists of 48 turns of wire and has an area of 0.14 m2. The magnetic field is oriented parallel to the normal to loop. (a) For each interval, determine the induced emf. (b) The wire has a resistance of 0.50 Ω. Determine the induced current for the first and third intervals.

Answer: The correct option is A ( because the Earth is rotating, with the telescope attached to it).

Explanation:

A telescope is a device that is used mostly for viewing distant objects. It's an optical instruments as it's made up of lens and curved mirror depending on the type of telescope. The first telescope was invented by Hans Lippershey in 1608. It is used extensively in war,sea and astronomical discoveries.

Parts of a typical telescope includes:

--> the optical system: this is the most important part of a telescope. This determines the optical aperture of the telescope, how bright or how sharp the formed image would be. This can be a lens or a mirror.

--> Eyepiece: this magnifies the image formed.

--> Motorized drive system: these drive system are mounted with the telescope to aid in a quick and smooth movement while detecting, for example, celestial bodies. This part of the telescope is important as the telescope is mounted on the earth surface which rotates about its axis from west to east. Since the drive system is motorized, it can automatically move very smoothly from east to west at exactly the same rate that Earth is rotating from west to east, so it can continue to point at the object being observed.

Answer:  

-not fully submerging the object when doing the fluid displacement procedure

-water that is left behind in the collection container when it is transferred for measurement

-water that soaks into the materials of the balls, affecting the mass in repeated trials

-water in the bucket, approximated to the closest 10 mL due to surface tension at the top of the bucket

Answer:

A, B, C, E

Explanation:

The wavelength is 5.666m.

What is wavelength?

The separation between any two points in a wave and those same points in the subsequent wave cycle. This can be from crest to crest, from trough to trough, from null to null, etc.

What is electromagnetic wave?

The vibrations between an electric field and a magnetic field produce electromagnetic waves, often known as EM waves. In other words, electromagnetic waves are created when magnetic and electric fields oscillate.

Frequency =60,000,000  Hz. As the speed of sound in air = 340 m/s, therefore, wavelength = speed/frequency = 340/60,000,000 = 5.666m.

Therefore, wavelength is 5.666m.

Learn more about wavelength from the given link.

https://brainly.com/question/10750459

#SPJ4

The wavelength of the radio waves is approximately 0.579 m or 57.9 cm

Wavelength is the distance covered by an electromagnetic wave while propagating through space. The relationship between the wavelength and the frequency of an electromagnetic wave is given by the formula;

Wavelength = speed of light / frequency = c / f

where c is the speed of light and f is the frequency of the wave.

To calculate the wavelength of a VHF television station assigned to channel 22 that transmits its signal using radio waves with a frequency of 518 MHz, we substitute the known values into the equation above.

Wavelength = c / f = (3 x 10⁸ m/s) / (518 x 10⁶ Hz) = 0.579 m or 57.9 cm (rounded to three significant digits)

Therefore, the wavelength of the radio waves transmitted by the VHF television station assigned to channel 22 is 0.579 m or 57.9 cm (rounded to three significant digits).

Learn more about wavelength here: https://brainly.com/question/10728818.

#SPJ11

Given,Net external force applied on astronaut, F = 53.5 N

Acceleration produced, a = 0.978 m/s²

We know that,

Newton's Second Law states that,F = m * a

where,F is the net external force applied

m is the mass of the object

a is the acceleration produced by the object.

Now, substituting the given values in the above equation, we get;

53.5 N = m * 0.978 m/s²

Solving for mass, we have;

m = 53.5 / 0.978

= 54.7 kg.

Therefore, the mass of the astronaut is 54.7 kg, which is a clever method of measuring the astronaut's mass in the absence of gravity. This helps to monitor the mass gain or losses and adjust diets in order to keep the astronauts healthy.

To know more about acceleration , visit ;

https://brainly.com/question/460763

#SPJ11

The Magnitude of the net work done on the sled by friction is 20580 J.

To find the net work done on the sled by friction, we first need to calculate the gravitational potential energy that the sled gains on the first incline and the kinetic energy that it has at the end of the incline.

The gravitational potential energy gained by the sled is given by:

PE = mgh

where m is the mass of the sled, g is the acceleration due to gravity, and h is the height of the incline.

We can find h using trigonometry:

h = sin(θ) * L

where θ is the angle of the incline and L is the length of the incline.

Let's assume that the incline makes an angle of 30 degrees with the horizontal, then we have:

h = sin(30) * L = 0.5 * L

Substituting the given values, we get:

h = 0.5 * 20 = 10 m

So, the gravitational potential energy gained by the sled is:

PE = mgh = 70 * 9.8 * 10 = 6860 J

At the bottom of the incline, all of the potential energy has been converted to kinetic energy, so we have:

KE = 1/2 * mv^2

where v is the velocity of the sled at the end of the incline.

Using conservation of energy, we can equate the gravitational potential energy gained by the sled to the kinetic energy it has at the end of the incline:

PE = KE

mgh = 1/2 * mv^2

Solving for v, we get:

v = sqrt(2gh)

Substituting the given values, we get:

v = sqrt(2 * 9.8 * 10) = 14 m/s

Now, the sled travels 80 m up the second incline before coming to rest. Assuming that the second incline also makes an angle of 30 degrees with the horizontal, the vertical height gained by the sled is:

h = sin(30) * L = 0.5 * 80 = 40 m

Since the sled comes to rest at the top of the incline, all of its kinetic energy has been converted to potential energy:

KE = 0 J

PE = mgh = 70 * 9.8 * 40 = 27440 J

The net work done on the sled by friction is the difference between the initial and final energies of the sled:

Net work = PE_final - PE_initial

Net work = 27440 J - 6860 J

Net work = 20580 J

Therefore, the magnitude of the net work done on the sled by friction is 20580 J.

To Learn More About Magnitude

https://brainly.com/question/30337362

#SPJ11

The net work done on the sled by friction is:70 kg x 9.8 m/s

The problem can be solved by analyzing the energy changes of the sled during its motion.

Initially, the sled has only gravitational potential energy,

which is given by mgh,

where m is the mass of the sled,

g is the acceleration due to gravity, and h is the height of the incline.

As the sled slides down the incline,

this potential energy is converted into kinetic energy,

given by (1/2)mv^2,

where v is the speed of the sled.

The sled also experiences friction, which does negative work, converting some of the kinetic energy into thermal energy.

When the sled reaches the bottom of the incline, it has lost some of its initial potential energy due to friction.

As the sled travels horizontally, it experiences no work done on it by friction because the surface is horizontal.

When it starts going up the incline again, it loses kinetic energy due to friction, and this energy is converted into gravitational potential energy. At the top of the incline, the sled has no kinetic energy and only gravitational potential energy.

Finally, as the sled comes to rest, all of its potential energy has been converted back into thermal energy due to friction.

The net work done on the sled by friction is the sum of the negative work done during the first and second inclines,

which is equal to the change in potential energy of the sled, given by mgh.

To calculate the net work done on the sled by friction, we need to know the height of the first incline.

Let's assume it is 30 m.

Then, the potential energy of the sled at the top of the incline is

mgh = 70 kg x 9.8 m/s^2 x 30 m

= 20580 J.

At the bottom of the incline, the sled has lost some of this potential energy due to friction, and its kinetic energy is

given by (1/2)mv^2,

where v is the speed of the sled.

Using conservation of energy,

we can equate the initial potential energy with the sum of the kinetic energy and the final potential energy:

mgh = (1/2)mv^2 + mgh''

where h'' is the height of the second incline. Solving for v, we get:

v = sqrt(2gh - 2gh'')

Plugging in the numbers, we get:

v = sqrt(2 x 9.8 m/s^2 x 30 m - 2 x 9.8 m/s^2 x 80 m) = 14.14 m/s

The sled then travels up the second incline, losing kinetic energy due to friction, until it comes to rest at the top.

At this point, all of its potential energy has been converted back into thermal energy due to friction.

The net work done on the sled by friction is therefore equal to the change in potential energy,

given by mgh'' - mgh

= 70 kg x 9.8 m/s^2 x (30 m - h'') - 20580 J.

To solve for h'', we can use the fact that the sled comes to rest at the top of the second incline, which means that its kinetic energy at the bottom of the second incline is zero. Therefore:

(1/2)mv^2 = mgh''

Plugging in the numbers, we get:

(1/2) x 70 kg x (14.14 m/s)^2

= 70 kg x 9.8 m/s^2 x h''

Solving for h'', we get:

h'' = 10.05 m

For such more question on work done

https://brainly.com/question/8119756

#SPJ11

Answer:

The uniy which is accepted all over the world is called SI unit.

Explanation:

The system of measurement that is agreed by the international convention if scientists that is held in paris of France to adopt an international unit is called SI unit unit.

To determine whether the power cycle operates reversibly, irreversibly, or is impossible, we will use the following relationships:
1. The efficiency of a reversible cycle is given by η_rev = 1 - (T_C / T_H)
2. The efficiency of an irreversible cycle is given by η_irr = W_ cycle / Q_H
3. If η_irr > η_rev, the cycle is impossible.

Explanation:

For each case, we will calculate the reversible efficiency and compare it to the irreversible efficiency:

a) QH = 600 kJ, Wcycle = 300 kJ, QC = 300 kJ
η_rev = 1 - (300 / 1000) = 0.7
η_irr = 300 / 600 = 0.5
Since η_irr < η_rev, the cycle operates irreversibly.

b) QH = 400 kJ, Wcycle = 280 kJ, QC = 120 kJ
η_rev = 1 - (300 / 1000) = 0.7
η_irr = 280 / 400 = 0.7
Since η_irr = η_rev, the cycle operates reversibly.

c) QH = 700 kJ, Wcycle = 300 kJ, QC = 500 kJ
η_rev = 1 - (300 / 1000) = 0.7
η_irr = 300 / 700 ≈ 0.429
Since η_irr < η_rev, the cycle operates irreversibly.

d) QH = 800 kJ, Wcycle = 600 kJ, QC = 200 kJ
η_rev = 1 - (300 / 1000) = 0.7
η_irr = 600 / 800 = 0.75
Since η_irr > η_rev, the cycle is impossible.

To know more about reversible efficiency here :

https://brainly.com/question/13233973

#SPJ11

To determine whether each power cycle operates reversibly, irreversibly, or is impossible, we can use the following equation for the thermal efficiency of a Carnot cycle:

η = 1 - QC/QH

If the actual cycle has a thermal efficiency less than the Carnot cycle, then it must be operating irreversibly. If the actual cycle has a thermal efficiency equal to the Carnot cycle, then it must be operating reversibly. If the actual cycle has a thermal efficiency greater than the Carnot cycle, then it is impossible.

a) QH = 600 kJ, Wcycle = 300 kJ, QC = 300 kJ

The thermal efficiency of the Carnot cycle is:

η = 1 - QC/QH

η = 1 - 300/600

η = 0.5

The actual cycle's thermal efficiency is:

η = Wcycle/QH

η = 300/600

η = 0.5

Since the actual cycle's thermal efficiency is equal to the Carnot cycle's thermal efficiency, the cycle operates reversibly.

b) QH = 400 kJ, Wcycle = 280 kJ, QC = 120 kJ

The thermal efficiency of the Carnot cycle is:

η = 1 - QC/QH

η = 1 - 120/400

η = 0.7

The actual cycle's thermal efficiency is:

η = Wcycle/QH

η = 280/400

η = 0.7

Since the actual cycle's thermal efficiency is equal to the Carnot cycle's thermal efficiency, the cycle operates reversibly.

c) QH = 700 kJ, Wcycle = 300 kJ, QC = 500 kJ

The thermal efficiency of the Carnot cycle is:

η = 1 - QC/QH

η = 1 - 500/700

η = 0.286

The actual cycle's thermal efficiency is:

η = Wcycle/QH

η = 300/700

η = 0.429

Since the actual cycle's thermal efficiency is greater than the Carnot cycle's thermal efficiency, the cycle is impossible.

d) QH = 800 kJ, Wcycle = 600 kJ, QC = 200 kJ

The thermal efficiency of the Carnot cycle is:

η = 1 - QC/QH

η = 1 - 200/800

η = 0.75

The actual cycle's thermal efficiency is:

η = Wcycle/QH

η = 600/800

η = 0.75

Since the actual cycle's thermal efficiency is equal to the Carnot cycle's thermal efficiency, the cycle operates reversibly.

Click the below link, to learn more about Carnot Cycle:

https://brainly.com/question/29056986

#SPJ11

Biologists often use the term "energy source" as a synonym for "electron donor" because the transfer of electrons is a key component of energy generation in many biological systems.

In biological systems, energy is typically generated through a series of chemical reactions called cellular respiration. In this process, electrons are transferred between molecules, releasing energy that is used to power cellular processes. The molecule that donates electrons is known as the electron donor, and the molecule that accepts the electrons is known as the electron acceptor.

Since the transfer of electrons is the primary mechanism by which energy is generated in these systems, biologists often use the term "energy source" to refer to the electron donor. For example, in photosynthesis, the energy source is the electron donor (usually water), which donates electrons to the photosynthetic electron transport chain, generating energy that is used to create ATP and reduce carbon dioxide to produce organic molecules.

To know more about energy source here

https://brainly.com/question/10841575

#SPJ4

Answer:

Neil Armstrong was the astronaut

Answer:

The direction of the magnetic force on a moving charge is perpendicular to the plane formed by v and B and follows right hand rule–1 (RHR-1)

Explanation:

hope this helps

Answer:

The direction is into the page. Your thumb is along the velocity vector and your fingers travel along the magnetic-field vector to leave your palm moving into the page

Explanation:

Plato

Answer:

Low pressure

Explanation:

Take two nearby points at the junction of both the tube, let point 1 be in the air tube while point 2 be in the paint tube.

According to Bernoulli's principle, the air at point 1 is moving with some speed which causes the pressure drop inside tube 1, while at point 2 there is no velocity, so there is no pressure drop at that point. In fact, the pressure at point 2 approximately equals the atmospheric pressure.

As both the points are taken is nearby at the junction, to the pressure drop in the flow air pipe causes the suction of fluid from the relatively high-pressure tube (paint tube).

Hence, this rush of air creates low pressure, which sucks the paint up the tube and into the stream of air.

Answer:

global warming.

because these gases, react with the ozone gas in the ozone, hence fading away the ozone layer.

This allows direct sun rays to fall on to Earth's surface hence warming up called global warming

Too many greenhouse gasses in the atmosphere may block heat from escaping into space and trap too much heat next to the Earth’s surface causing: global warming. *

The human activities produce greenhouse gases such as carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide, methane, nitrogen oxides and others gases.

These gases when enter into the atmosphere because of their diatomic structure are capable of trapping the light energy from sun.

The abundance of these gases in the air is making the global temperature warm, which chiefly responsible for drought like conditions and melting of glaciers in some locations.  

Then The trapped sunlight cannot be reflected back to the space this phenomena is called as greenhouse effect and the phenomena of increase in global temperature is called as global warming.

Which allows direct sun rays to fall on to Earth's surface hence warming up called global warming.

Hence, Too many greenhouse gasses in the atmosphere may block heat from escaping into space and trap too much heat next to the Earth’s surface causing: global warming. *

Learn more about global warming;

https://brainly.com/question/12315440

#SPJ6