Under the provisions of the Affordable Care Act (ACA), college students may be covered by their parents' health insurance plan if they are younger than age **26**.
The ACA extended the age of dependent coverage for health insurance plans, allowing young adults to remain on their parents' insurance plans until they reach the age of 26. This provision provides a means of insurance coverage for college students who may not have access to employer-sponsored health insurance or their own individual plans.
It's important to note that this provision applies to most health insurance plans, including job-based plans and individual plans, but there may be certain exceptions or variations depending on specific circumstances or state regulations. It is recommended to review the terms and conditions of the insurance plan in question to determine the exact age eligibility and coverage details.
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Has anyone took medical terminology before in college. If so is there a website that is a good studying tool? Only useful websites
the school nurse noticed a preschool-aged girl scratching her head all the time. when asked, the little girl said i have ticking feeling in my scalp. the school nurse should investigate further for .
The school nurse should investigate further for pediculosis capitis in a girl who is always scratching her head.
Pediculosis capitis is a condition in which small insects infest the human scalp. They are generally called lice and are scientifically known as Pediculus humanus capitis. These are more found in people sharing hair brushes, scarves, and hats with others. Also, this is more common in younger females than males.
The life cycle of a female louse is about 1 month. It lays 7-10 eggs per day and these eggs are set against the head scalp of the host. These eggs release nymphs after 8 days of hatching and then the nymph requires another 8 days to become mature. They grasp the host's hair and feed on their head, sucking blood.
Antiparasitics are generally prescribed. Medicated shampoos and creams are recommended to rinse these lice off the scalp.
This is done to get rid of scratching the head over and over again.
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What is the most appropriate nursing action to help manage a manic client who is monopolizing a group therapy session
When one client dominates the group, the nurse needs to be determined. The best course of action is to thank the client and advise them to try calm down and listening to others instead of talking.
How does session therapy work?Therapy A session is any hands-on, face-to-face, individual or group occupational, physical, cognitive, or speech therapy activity that involves the patient and the therapist; it does not include the creation of reports or progress notes.
What happens during therapy?Your therapist will question you regarding your current issues as well as your past and background. You'll probably find yourself discussing your current symptoms or difficulties in addition to a little bit about your relationships, interests, strengths, and ambitions.
How long is a typical therapy session?The average length of a therapy session is 45 to 55 minutes. Therapy sessions can run longer in some cases, such as in couples counseling or intensive therapy.
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All of the following statements are true about descriptive research except one. Which statement is FALSE?
Mark
PFI
Select one
O a Descriptive research manipulates phenomena and records the changes found
O b. The famous Kinsey Report sex survey was flawed because the poor and the elderly were underrepresented and male interviewers were used with female subjects
O c. Descriptive research collects detailed information using observation, case studies, surveys, interviews, and recordings
O d. Phineas Gage's tragic railroad accident provided an excellent case study
Answer:
B
Explanation:
hope this helped
The sexual behaviors of men and women are contrasted. According to Kinsey evidence, women engaged in less sexual activity than men. Thus, B option is correct.
What is Kinsey Report sex survey?The Kinsey scale evaluates a person's overall heterosexuality and homosexuality balance and considers both sexual experience and psychosexual responses.
The range is 0 to 6, with 0 denoting perfect heterosexuality and 6 denoting complete homosexuality.
Researchers at the Kinsey Institute look at the interactions between sexual behavior, psychological elements like attitude and emotional health, biological elements.
Including environment, fertility, and immunity, and important health problems like condom use and contraception.
His work liberated female sexuality and paved the path for sexologists and the public to explore sexuality more deeply.
Therefore, Kinsey evidence women engaged in less sexual activity than men.
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Aaron, a healthcare worker, washed his hands, gave a patient a needle injection, and then disposed of the needle in a sharps container. Which best describes the error Aaron made in following standard precautions?
A. He should have placed the needle in the biohazards bin.
B. He should have put gloves on before working with the needle.
C. He should have contacted the CDC to report the use of a needle.
D. He should have checked the MSDS before disposing of the needle.
Answer: the answer is B
a nurse is providing discharge teaching for a pregnant client with preeclampsia who will be managed at home on bedrest. the nurse determines that the teaching was successful based on which client statement?'
Nurses provide discharge briefings to pregnant clients with preeclampsia, so they can treat them at home while resting in bed. A nurse examines a pregnant client with preeclampsia on a mattress.
Successful people are confident and able to behave in the same way as others. They have their own vision and blueprint and are looking for opportunities to make it happen every day. As a starting point, it's beneficial to recognize that fulfillment is typically defined as attaining an aim or accomplishing something you've got set out to reap. It presents a supply of motivation for human beings to exchange their lives and values.
Being successful provides confidence, protection, an experience of nicely-being, the capacity to make contributions at a more stage, wish, and leadership. without success, you, the group, your business enterprise, your goals, your goals, or even complete civilizations quit continuing to exist.
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Patients with posterior column lesions may experience allodynia, which causes pain when applying pressure to various musculoskeletal locations. Or is it more likely that fibromyalgia is to blame for this? How do carbamazepine and gabapentin's clinical success rates compare? How may dissociative sensory loss be detected clinically? How much urograffin is advised to take before undergoing contrast-enhanced computed tomography? When a suspected intracerebral abscess or glial tumour is present, how far in advance should this be supplied before imaging?
Patients with posterior column lesions may experience allodynia, as can those with fibromyalgia. Carbamazepine and gabapentin are both useful drugs for reducing neuropathic pain.
Allodynia, a symptom in which pain occurs with ordinary pressure, is a neurological symptom that may appear in the setting of other medical conditions. Patients with posterior column lesions, for example, are likely to experience allodynia. Fibromyalgia, on the other hand, is a musculoskeletal disorder characterized by chronic widespread pain and tenderness. Patients with fibromyalgia may experience allodynia as well.
Carbamazepine and gabapentin are both effective medications for treating neuropathic pain, with gabapentin having a higher success rate. Pinprick and temperature sensation tests can be used to detect dissociative sensory loss, which is a lack of sensation in response to pinpricks and temperature changes. A patient should consume 1000 ml of urograffin or a comparable contrast agent before undergoing contrast-enhanced computed tomography. Prior to the imaging exam, intravenous dexamethasone, a corticosteroid drug, should be given if a suspected intracerebral abscess or glioma is present.
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Explain the positive and negative aspects of the living arrangements for the elderly listed below. Be sure to thoroughly evaluate each option. Living in own home Living with their children Assisted living facility Nursing home with intermediate care Nursing home with skilled nursing care and make recommendations for healthy and disabled elderly
Answer:
See explanation below
Explanation:
Living arrangements for the elderly refers to the composition and organization of the living environment of elderly people.
There are various kinds of living arrangements available for the elderly and they are:
1.) Living in own home: This is a preferred option for most elderly people. It involves them living in their own homes with occasional assistance. The positive side to this is that they maintain and enjoy the comfort of their homes and also the sense of independence that comes with it. The negative aspect is the cost of having a paid caregiver and the constant support from family and friend. Living in own homes can also have mental effects on them - they may lonely and start overthinking.
2.) Living with Children: Elderly ones that have good relationships with their children are advised to live with them. It is a very good economic decision because the cost of having and maintaining a different house and catering for a cared giver will be eliminated. There is also the advantage of companionship and reduced stress because family is around to help. The negative side to this is the tightness of the house for families with small houses.
3.) Assisted Living Facility: This is a facility that offers personal care services to the elderly such as: transportation, meals, bathing and dressing. It is like a community with active adults who need personal care services. The positive side to this is the feeling of having a community, the daily activities that keep them occupied. The major negative side is the cost of living in an assisted living facility. Another is the loss of flexibility and privacy.
4.) Nursing Home with Intermediate Care: This is very similar to the Nursing Home with skilled nursing cares. It is usually regarded as a lower level skilled nursing care facility. The difference is that residents of an intermediate care facility require less assistance with their daily lives. 8 hourly supervision is enough for a day. The advantages and disadvantages are also the same with the skilled nursing care facility.
5.) Nursing Home with Skilled Nursing Care: This is a facility licensed to offer personal as well as medical services. They are usually a 24-hour care facility with nurses and licensed medical professionals around. The downside to this kind of facility is the unsatisfaction because the facility may be understaffed and there may be so many people that need to be attended to. And also the cost of both personal and medical services.
RECOMMENDATIONS
There are things to consider in choosing a living arrangement for elderly ones. They include: financial budget, medical. physical and emotional needs. It is also important to speak with a doctor first.
Healthy Elders are healthy and have no issues and can live in their own homes may opt to hire caregivers if they want
Disabled Elders should register in assisted living facilities where they have access to enough personal care services.
An_______ is a technician who specializes in grinding lenses and preparing eyeglasses and contact lenses.
An Optician is a technician who specializes in grinding lenses and preparing eyeglasses and contact lenses.
An optician, or allocating optician, is a specialized guru who designs, fits, and dispenses lenses for the correction of a person's vision. Opticians determine the specifications of colorful ophthalmic appliances that will give the necessary correction to a person's sight.
Registered or certified opticians also design and fit special appliances to correct ornamental, traumatic, or anatomical blights. These biases are called shells or artificial eyes. Other registered or certified opticians manufacture lenses to their own specifications and design and manufacture spectacle frames and other biases.
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Name which vitamin is monumental in helping to prevent megaloblastic anemia which makes people tired weak
Explanation:
Folic acid is also called folate. It is another B vitamin. Either a lack of vitamin B-12 or a lack of folate causes a type of anemia called megaloblastic anemia (pernicious anemia). With these types of anemia, the red blood cells don’t develop normally. They are very large. And they are shaped like an oval. Healthy red blood cells are round. This causes the bone marrow to make fewer red blood cells. In some cases, the red blood cells die sooner than normal.
What causes vitamin
A psychologist has conducted an independent-measures ANOVA. A post hoc test will be necessary to determine where the differences are. Use the information that follows to run the Tukey HSD test.
M_1 = 4, M_2 = 1, M_3 = 2, M_4 = 1; MS_w/t = 1.33; F(3, 12) = 6.02, p < .05.
A. Report the value of HSD.
B. Report all treatment comparisons, indicating if each comparison is significantly different or not
The Tukey HSD test cannot be fully performed without the necessary information (HSD value or number of observations per group). However, based on the provided means, it appears that there may be no significant difference between groups 1 and 4, but further analysis is needed to confirm and determine all treatment comparisons.
A. To determine the value of HSD (Honestly Significant Difference) for the Tukey HSD test, we need to calculate the critical value based on the obtained mean square within/treatment (MS_w/t) and the degrees of freedom for error (denominator) from the ANOVA.
In this case, the MS_w/t is given as 1.33, and the degrees of freedom are 12.
HSD = q * sqrt(MS_w/t / n)
Where q is the critical value obtained from the Tukey HSD table and n is the number of observations per group. Since the number of observations per group is not provided, we cannot calculate the exact HSD value.
B. Without the exact value of HSD or the number of observations per group, we cannot perform the Tukey HSD test or determine the specific treatment comparisons.
However, we can still provide a general interpretation of the post hoc test results.
The ANOVA result indicates that there is a significant difference among the treatment groups (F(3, 12) = 6.02, p < .05). To determine the specific treatment comparisons, the Tukey HSD test is commonly used.
It allows for pairwise comparisons of all treatment means to determine if they are significantly different from each other.
Based on the provided means (M_1 = 4, M_2 = 1, M_3 = 2, M_4 = 1), we can make some general observations. The means for groups 1 and 4 are both 1, suggesting that these two groups may not be significantly different from each other.
However, without the HSD value and the number of observations per group, we cannot definitively determine the significance of each comparison or provide a comprehensive interpretation of the results.
To complete the analysis and report specific treatment comparisons, we would need additional information about the number of observations per group or the exact HSD value.
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pregnant women may experience an exaggerated lordosis, or swayback. which curvature is affected during pregnancy? anterior and lateral views of the vertebral column. pregnant women may experience an exaggerated lordosis, or swayback. which curvature is affected during pregnancy? anterior and lateral views of the vertebral column. a b c d
During pregnancy, the anterior curvature of the vertebral column, known as lordosis or swayback, is affected.
During pregnancy, the anterior curvature of the vertebral column is affected, resulting in an exaggerated lordosis or swayback. The normal vertebral column has several curvatures when viewed from the anterior or lateral perspective.
These curvatures include the cervical lordosis (curvature of the neck region), thoracic kyphosis (curvature of the upper back), lumbar lordosis (curvature of the lower back), and sacral kyphosis (curvature of the sacrum).In pregnant women, the growing uterus shifts the center of gravity forward, causing an increase in the lumbar lordosis or inward curvature of the lower back. This exaggerated curvature compensates for the changes in weight distribution and helps maintain balance. The increased lumbar lordosis can lead to a noticeable swayback appearance in pregnant women.It is important to note that the changes in the curvature of the vertebral column during pregnancy are temporary and should return to normal postpartum. These adaptations accommodate the growing fetus and help support the mother's body during pregnancy.
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The physician has ordered Tigan (trimethobenzamide) 50 mg IM. On hand you have a 20 mL vial that contains 100 mg/mL. How many mL will you give?
Answer:.5
Explanation:
The physician has ordered Tigan ( trimethobenzamide) 50 mg IM. On hand if i have 20 ml vial that contain 100 mg/ml than 5 ml of Tigan is given to the patient.
What is tigan ( trimethobenzamide) ?Tigan (Trimethobenzamide) is an antiemetic suggested for the treatment of postoperative nausea and vomiting, and for nausea associated with gastroenteritis.
The condition in which tigan is discontinued in the case in which lack of efficacy.
The mechanism of action of Tigan is determined in animals is obscure, but may involve the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ), an area in the medulla oblongata through which emetic impulses are conveyed to the vomiting centre.
Therefore,the physician has ordered Tigan ( trimethobenzamide) 50 mg IM. The condition in which tigan is discontinued in the case in which lack of efficacy. On hand if i have 20 ml vial that contain 100 mg/ml than 5 ml of Tigan is given to the patient.
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94. Arthritis symptoms develop:
(A) Rapidly
(B) They can develop rapidly or slowly, depending on the type and individual
(C) Slowly
Answer: choice B
Explanation:
Arthritis symptopms can develop rapidly or slowly depending on the type and individual.
There are many types of arthritis e.g. rheumatoid arthritis, Osteoarthritis, Psoriatic Arthritis etc.
rabies can transmitted through uncooked meat. a)true b)false
Answer: I would say False
Explanation:
Although yes, eating the meat from an infected animal is discouraged, there have never been any actual cases of humans infected with rabis after meat consumption.
Therefore, because no such case has yet been documented, the answer is false.
People usually get rabies from the bite of a rabid animal. Rabies virus is transmitted through direct contact with saliva. The virus infects the central nervous system and is lethal if the following symptoms are ignored:
* Fever
*Sore throat
Then it becomes neurological (very dangerous)
Convulsions
Aggression
Hypersalivation
Hallucinations
Paralysis
hydrophobia
Hyperventilation
!Seek medical help if suspect you or a family member have rabies!
What is homeostasis? Describe the process in detail. You can use your book as references and write the page numbers you found the information to answer the questions.
Answer:
Homeostasis is any self-regulating process by which an organism tends to maintain stability while adjusting to conditions that are best for its survival. If homeostasis is successful, life continues; if it's unsuccessful, it results in a disaster or death of the organism.
Explanation:
the are specialized lymphocytes that produce antibodies. each lymphocyte makes a specific antibody that is capable of destroying a specific antigen.
B-lymphocytes are specialized lymphocytes that produce antibodies. Each lymphocyte makes a specific antibody that is capable of destroying a specific antigen.
What are the functions of lymphocytes?There are two main types of lymphocytes: B cells and T cells. The B cells produce antibodies that are used to attack invading bacteria, viruses, and toxins.
Lymphocytes are white blood cells uniform in appearance but varied in function and include T, B, and natural killer cells. These cells are responsible for antibody production, direct cell-mediated killing of virus-infected and tumor cells.
Lymphocytes responsible for immunological surveillance, recognizing and destroying abnormal cells when they appear in peripheral tissues. They recognize bacteria, viruses, cancer cells and foreign cells.
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What is the difference between a disease and a disorder?
A) a disease results from a harmful agent being introduced to the body, while a disorder does not result from a particular external agent.
B) a disease is a condition that may strike people of all ages, while a disorder strikes only the elderly
population.
C) a disease is a life-threatening condition, while a disorder is only uncomfortable.
D) a disease is a short-term condition, while a disorder is a long-term condition.
Answer:
I would say D.
Explanation:
(I'm sorry if this is wrong. Please correct me if so.) Good luck!
A disease is different from a disorder as a disease is a short-term condition, while a disorder is a long-term condition. Thus, the correct option is D.
What is the difference between disease and disorder?
A disease is a harmful deviation from the normal structural or functional state of an organism. It is generally associated with certain signs and symptoms and it is different in nature from the physical injury. An organism affected with disease commonly exhibits signs or symptoms which are indicative of its abnormal state.
A disorder is a collection of signs and symptoms, however it has known to have associated features which are presumed to be related. Some common disorders are anxiety, including panic, obsessive-compulsive disorder, and phobias, depression, bipolar disorder, and other mood disorders.
Therefore, the correct option is D.
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A study done with 40 preschool children showed that they preferred food items with?
Answer:
cartoon characters on them
Review the following scenario taken from the Texas Board of Nursing Peer Review in School Health: A Nurse’s Role
answer the following questions:
Can Cindy invoke Safe Harbor if she works as a school nurse in a large school district? Can she invoke Safe Harbor if she is in the middle of her school day?
Do you think Cindy is invoking Safe Harbor in "good faith"? (Why or why not?)
What standards in Rule 217.11 have the potential for being violated if Cindy accepts the assignment? Where on the Safe Harbor Quick Request Form would Cindy document these standards?
What protections are provided when a nurse properly invokes Safe Harbor?
As she completes the Quick Request Form, Cindy decides that she cannot accept the assignment of administering an experimental drug to a child. She considers that she does not have life-saving equipment available in the school health clinic and she has not been trained to intubate a patient, should the inhaled sedative cause the student to lose her protective reflexes after slipping into deep sedation. According to Rule 217.20, what must Cindy do when invoking Safe Harbor and refusing the initially requested assignment? What section of the rule contains this information?
Assuming a safe assignment is worked out between Cindy and her Health Service Coordinator, what other critical actions must be completed prior to Cindy going home in the morning?
Was this a minor incident?
What Standards in Rule 217.11 did the RN violate?
Apply the Six-Step Decision Making Model to this cas
Yes, Cindy can invoke Safe Harbor regardless of where she works or what time of day it is.
Yes, Cindy is invoking Safe Harbor in "good faith" because she believes that she lacks the necessary skills and resources to safely administer the experimental drug.
Rule 217.11 states that a nurse must only accept assignments that are within their scope of practice and for which they are qualified to perform. Cindy could document this on the Safe Harbor Quick Request Form in the section titled "Assignment Characteristics."
When a nurse properly invokes Safe Harbor, they are protected from disciplinary action by their employer or the Board of Nursing as long as they meet certain criteria, including acting in good faith and documenting the request properly.
When invoking Safe Harbor and refusing the initially requested assignment, Cindy must report her concerns to her supervisor and provide them with the necessary information to find a safe alternative assignment. This information is found in section (c) of Rule 217.20.
Prior to going home in the morning, Cindy must ensure that all necessary documentation is complete and accurate, including the Safe Harbor Quick Request Form and any other required reports or forms.
No, this was not a minor incident. Cindy's decision not to administer the experimental drug could have serious consequences for the student and may require significant follow-up by her supervisor and other healthcare providers.
If Cindy had accepted the assignment to administer the experimental drug, she would have violated the standards in Rule 217.11 related to accepting only assignments that are within her scope of practice and for which she is qualified to perform.
Apply the Six-Step Decision Making Model to this case.
Step 1: Identify the problem or decision to be made. Cindy has been asked to administer an experimental drug to a student but does not feel qualified or confident to do so.
Step 2: Gather information. Cindy considers the possible risks and complications of administering the drug and assesses her own skills and resources.
Step 3: Consider alternatives. Cindy determines that she cannot safely administer the drug and begins the process of invoking Safe Harbor.
Step 4: Choose a course of action. Cindy completes the Safe Harbor Quick Request Form and reports her concerns to her supervisor.
Step 5: Take action. Cindy works with her supervisor to find a safe alternative assignment for the student.
Step 6: Evaluate the decision. Cindy ensures that all necessary documentation is complete and accurate before leaving for the day.
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a client is being treated for hyperthyroidism with propylthiouracil. the nurse suspects the client's dose of medication is inadequate when assessing which signs and/or symptoms? select all that apply.
The signs and symptoms of an inadequate dose of Propylthiouracil for treating hyperthyroidism include rapid heartbeat, sweating, irritability, fatigue, weight loss, muscle weakness, and increased sensitivity to heat.
If a nurse suspects that the dose of Propylthiouracil is inadequate, they should observe the client for these signs and symptoms and then assess the need for adjusting the dose. The nurse should also monitor the client’s thyroid function tests for any changes in T3, T4, and TSH levels. In some cases, changes in dose or a switch to a different medication may be necessary to adequately treat the hyperthyroidism.
If the nurse suspects the dose is inadequate, they should discuss the need for an adjustment with the physician and any other members of the healthcare team. In some cases, the physician may order additional tests to better assess the need for an adjustment. The nurse should carefully document the findings and any action taken as a result of the assessment.
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pathologists have specific codes for clinical pathology consultations. (True or False)
Answer: True
Explanation: Pathologists have specific codes for clinical pathology consultations
The given statements "Pathologists have specific codes for clinical pathology consultations" is True. These codes are essential for accurate documentation, billing, and communication within the healthcare system.
Clinical pathology consultations involve the examination and interpretation of patient specimens, such as blood, tissue, or other bodily fluids, to diagnose and monitor diseases.
The American Medical Association (AMA) maintains the Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) codes, which are a standardized set of codes used to describe medical, surgical, and diagnostic services. Pathologists utilize these codes to identify and classify clinical pathology consultations. These codes provide a uniform language for healthcare professionals, ensuring consistency and clear communication.
There are different CPT codes for various types of clinical pathology consultations, ranging from general consultations to more specialized examinations, such as cytopathology, surgical pathology, and hematopathology. By using the appropriate codes, pathologists can effectively communicate the type of consultation performed, the extent of the service provided, and the level of complexity involved.
In conclusion, it is true that pathologists have specific codes for clinical pathology consultations. These codes, part of the larger CPT system, ensure accurate documentation, billing, and communication among healthcare professionals. By consistently using these codes, pathologists contribute to a more efficient and well-organized healthcare system.
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Krisha goes to check on her roommate and finds her unconscious. Krisha
confirms that her roommate has no pulse, but is untrained in CPR. What
should Krisha do while waiting for the ambulance to arrive?
I think it’s A) Krisha should administer chest comprehension while waiting for the ambulance to arrive
Answer:
Kirsha should administer chest compressions while waiting for the ambulance to arrive.
Explanation:
Just in case you don't understand the other answer!
Explain the mechanism for cell mediated immunity
Answer:
the answer c
Explanation:
can a consumer who qualifies for low income subsidy receive financial assistance for their part of medicare part d cost?
Answer:
Individuals with incomes up to 150 percent of the federal poverty level can receive help with their Part D costs for premiums, deductibles and co-pays through the Part D Low Income Subsidy (known as “LIS” or “Extra Help”), which is administered by the Social Security Administration.
Explanation:
Answer:
Explanation:Through subsidies that offer lower or no cost monthly premiums and lower or no cost copays
A 24-year-old bme student was studying late at night for an examination. as he looked at his textbook, he realized that his left arm and left leg were numb. he dismissed the complaint, recalling that 6 or 7 months ago he had similar symptoms. he rose from his desk and noticed that he had poor balance. he queried whether his vision was blurred, and remembered that he had some blurred vision approximately 1 to 2 years earlier, but that this resolved. he had not seen a physician for any of these previous symptoms. he went to bed and decided that he would seek medical consultation the next day. the blurry vision 2 years ago was most likely:
The next day, he would contact a doctor. the eyesight was hazy I believe that was two years ago. Several Sclerosis
Why is my eyesight now fuzzy?
Long durations of sustained eye concentration can tire the eyes. Reading in low light, using a smartphone or computer for an excessive amount of time, and driving in poor visibility can all result in eye strain, which may eventually cause abrupt impaired vision.
When is vision blur a cause for concern?
One should dial 911 or proceed to the nearest emergency facility if they experience abrupt blurred vision and one or more of the following stroke symptoms: On one side of the body, there is numbness or weakness in the face, leg, or arm. bewilderment, as well as trouble communicating or comprehending people.
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During a biceps curl, the triceps play what role in contraction?
a.Antagonist
B.Assistant
c. Prime mover
d.Agonist
Answer:
A. Antagonist
Explanation:
The triceps, acting in opposition, is called the antagonist. Because the two muscles are located on opposite sides of the arm, the triceps must relax enough to allow the biceps to tense and contract during a curl. As it contracts, it shortens. As the triceps relaxes, it lengthens. (google)
How can a sports nutrition professional help an athlete decide whether or not to use a nutritional ergogenic aid
A sports nutrition professional can assist an athlete by providing evidence-based information, evaluating the athlete's individual needs and goals, and considering the risks and benefits of the specific aid.
A sports nutrition professional plays a crucial role in helping athletes make informed decisions regarding the use of nutritional ergogenic aids. Firstly, they provide evidence-based information about the various ergogenic aids available, including their potential benefits and risks. This information helps athletes understand the scientific foundation behind these aids and make educated choices.
Secondly, a sports nutrition professional evaluates the athlete's individual needs and goals. They consider factors such as the athlete's specific sport, training regimen, dietary habits, and any underlying medical conditions. By assessing these factors, the professional can determine whether a particular ergogenic aid aligns with the athlete's nutritional requirements and performance objectives.
Additionally, the sports nutrition professional takes into account the potential risks associated with the ergogenic aid. They consider any possible side effects, interactions with other medications or supplements, and the long-term implications on health. Based on this evaluation, they provide personalized recommendations and guidance to help the athlete make an informed decision.
Overall, a sports nutrition professional assists athletes in deciding whether or not to use a nutritional ergogenic aid by providing evidence-based information, considering the athlete's individual needs and goals, and weighing the potential risks and benefits. This collaborative process ensures that the athlete receives accurate guidance to optimize their performance while prioritizing their health and well-being.
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a nurse in a clinic is caring for a client who is at 11 weeks of gestation and reports that she has had slight occasional vaginal bleeding over the past 2 weeks. following an examination by the provider, the client is told that the fetus has died and that the placenta, fetus, and tissues remain in the uterus. how should the nurse document these findings?
The nurse document the disposition of the patient's body, the telephone number, the address of the funeral home, and the list of family members present at the time of death.
What is nursing documentation?
It is the record of nursing care that is planned and delivered to individual clients by qualified nurses or other caregivers under the direction of a qualified nurse.
The nursing document is clear, concise, and accurate. It should include assessment, planning, implementation, and evaluation of care.
Women with vaginal bleeding during late pregnancy are at risk of losing the baby. Sometimes due to more loss of blood, blood pressure becomes dangerously low or blood clots form throughout the bloodstream.
Reasons for vaginal bleeding during the second trimester include:
Placenta previaplacenta accretaplacental abruptionintrauterine fetal demisespontaneous miscarriagehigh blood pressureHence nurse documents include stillbirth which is the medical term for a dead fetus after 20 weeks of pregnancy and vaginal bleeding of the client over the past 2 weeks.
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You are driving down a street when you notice a house is on fire. A person who you
assume is the owner is sitting on the front lawn, although you cannot immediately tell if
the person is injured or just upset. Emergency medical services (EMS) personnel are not
on the scene-in fact, it appears that no one is even aware of the situation. You decide to
stop and help. What are the first basic steps you should take?
The first step you should take in the given situation is to call 911, so that emergency medical services (EMS) personnel will be informed.
There are some basic steps in providing first aid and they include the following;
Assess the situationPlan for intervention Implement first aidEvaluate the situationFor the given scenario, after assessing the situation, you will definitely notice that the situation is a critical one. The first step to take as untrained professional is to get help before approaching the scene.
You can help by calling 911 so that emergency medical services (EMS) personnel will be informed, after which you keep the person safe before the emergency team arrives.
Thus, we can conclude that the first step in the given situation is to call 911.
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Answer:
911
Explanation: