Use the diagram of the parallelogram to answer the question. 18 m 10 m 6 m *not drawn to scale What is the perimeter of the parallelogram? A. 34 m B. 54 in O C. 56 m D. 62 mm OE. E. 108 m
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Answer:

429

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

This is the combination of two cones with same radius but different heights.

Equation for volume of the cone:

The volume of the given figure is:

The maximum and minimum points of the function are (a) (3π/2, -1) (-π/2, -1), (π/2, 3)

From the question, we have the following function that can be used in our computation:

y = –2 cos (x + π/2) + 1.

Calculating the maximum

Here, we have

y = –2 cos (x + π/2) + 1.

Next, we plot the graph of the function

From the graph of the function, we have the maximum points to be (π/2, 3)

Calculating the minimum

Here, we have

y = –2 cos (x + π/2) + 1.

Next, we plot the graph of the function

From the graph of the function, we have the minimum points to be

(3π/2, -1) (-π/2, -1)

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Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

mrk brainliest plz

Answer:

0.1111

Step-by-step explanation:

From the given information;

Number of staffs in the actuary = 80

Out of the 80, 10 are students.

i.e.

P(student actuary) = 10/80 = 0.125

number of weeks in a year = 52

off time per year = 10/52 = 0.1923

P(at work || student actuary) = (50 -10/52)

= 42/52

= 0.8077

P(non student actuary) = (80 -10)/80

= 70 / 80

= 0.875

For a non-student, they are only eligible to 4 weeks off in a year

i.e.

P(at work | non student) = (52-4)/52

= 48/52

= 0.9231

∴

P(at work) = P(student actuary) × P(at work || student actuary) + P(non student actuary) × P(at work || non studnet actuary)

P(at work) =  (0.125 × 0.8077) + ( 0.875 × 0.9231)

P(at work) = 0.1009625 + 0.8077125

P(at work) = 0.90868

Finally, the P(he is a student) = (P(student actuary) × P(at work || student actuary) ) ÷ P(at work)

P(he is a student) = (0.125 × 0.8077) ÷ 0.90868

P(he is a student) = 0.1009625 ÷ 0.90868

P(he is a student) = 0.1111

Answer: 2nd and 4th set

Step-by-step explanation:

1st set has no solution because the left side of the second equation is that of the first equation divided by 3, but the right side is not.

2nd set has 1 solution because it is the set of 2 lines with different slopes and y-intercepts.

3rd set has infinitely many solutions because multiplying the top equation by 1/3 gives you the bottom equation.

4th set has only solution for the same reason as 2nd set.

5th set has no solution because the two lines are parallel, but have different y intercepts, meaning they never intersect.

Answer:

  (d)  yes; -7

Step-by-step explanation:

The differences between terms are ...

  12 -19 = -7

  5 -12 = -7

  -2 -5 = -7

These are all the same, so this difference is "common". A sequence in which terms have a common difference is an arithmetic sequence.

This sequence is arithmetic, with a common difference of -7.

.0147

I am a jedi master

As per the concept of vector, the while loop for integers is written below.

The term vector refers  a quantity or phenomenon that has two independent properties: magnitude and direction.

Here we need to write the  a quantity or phenomenon that has two independent properties: magnitude and direction.

While we looking into the given question, we have know that,

Here the input is 1 6 5 3 -1, then

the output is: 1 6 5 3

Then the function for the given statement is written as,

while ((char1 = getchar()) != '-1')  

    {  

        if (char1 == ' ')  

            sp_ct1++;  

        else if (char1 == '\n')  

            nl_ct1++;  

        else  

            other1++;  

    }  

Therefore, the above function is used to  read integers from input until -1 is read.

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Answer: you should plot it a -3.2

Step-by-step explanation:

The equation of the line that passes through points (5, 8) and
(-2.2, -6.4) is y = 2x - 2.

Option D is the correct answer.

We have,

We can use the point-slope form of the equation of a line, which is:

y - y1 = m(x - x1)

where (x1, y1) is a point on the line and m is the slope of the line.

Slope.

m = (y2 - y1) / (x2 - x1)

= (-6.4 - 8) / (-2.2 - 5)

= (-14.4) / (-7.2)

= 2

Next, we can use one of the two given points and the slope to write the equation of the line in the point-slope form:

y - 8 = 2(x - 5)

Expanding the right side and simplifying.

y - 8 = 2x - 10

y = 2x - 2

Therefore,

The equation of the line that passes through points (5, 8) and
(-2.2, -6.4) is y = 2x - 2.

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Answer:

obtuse

Step-by-step explanation:

Let 5 = a, 7 = b, 10 = c

if a^2 + b^2 = c^2, then the triangle is a right triangle by the converse of the Pythagorean Theorem

If a^2 + b^2 > c^2, then the triangle is an acute triangle by Theorem 8-4

if a^2 + b^2 < c^2, then the triangle is an obtuse triangle by Theorem 8-3

a^2 = 25

b^2 = 49

c^2 = 100

25 + 49 < 100, therefore the triangle is an obtuse

Cos x = 5 / 9 ==》 Cos x = 0.55

==》 x = 56 degrees

Answer:

\(8 {x}^{2} - 6x - 5 = x\)

\(8 {x}^{2} - 7x - 5 = 0\)

x = (7 + √((-7)^2 - 4(8)(-5)))/(2×8)

= (7 + √(49 + 160))/16

= (7 + √209)/16

= -.4661, 1.3411 (to 4 decimal places)

Answer:

\(y^{-9}\neq \dfrac{1}{y^{-9}}\)

Step-by-step explanation:

Tyler simplified the expression: \(x^{-3}y^{-9}\)  as shown below:

\(x^{-3}y^{-9}=\dfrac{1}{x^3}X \dfrac{1}{y^{-9}}=\dfrac{1}{x^3y^{-9}}\)

We notice that in Tyler's work:

\(y^{-9}= \dfrac{1}{y^{-9}}\)

Whereas, the correct form would have been:

\(y^{-9}= \dfrac{1}{y^{9}}\)

Making our solution:

\(x^{-3}y^{-9}=\dfrac{1}{x^3}X \dfrac{1}{y^{9}}=\dfrac{1}{x^3y^{9}}\)

The depreciation expense for each year of the asset's useful life is $10

Algebra is the study of abstract symbols, while logic is the manipulation of all those ideas.

The acronym PEMDAS stands for Parenthesis, Exponent, Multiplication, Division, Addition, and Subtraction. This approach is used to answer the problem correctly and completely.

We are given that;

Asset cost=78000

After 5 years=8000

Now,

a. Straight-line method:

Depreciable cost = Cost - Salvage value

Depreciable cost = $78,000 - $8,000

Depreciable cost = $70,000

Depreciation expense per year = Depreciable cost / Useful life

Depreciation expense per year = $70,000 / 5 years

Depreciation expense per year = $14,000

Therefore, the depreciation expense for each year of the asset's useful life under the straight-line method is:

Year 1: $14,000

Year 2: $14,000

Year 3: $14,000

Year 4: $14,000

Year 5: $14,000

b. Double-declining-balance method:

Straight-line rate = 1 / Useful life

Straight-line rate = 1 / 5

Straight-line rate = 0.2 or 20%

Double-declining-balance rate = 2 x Straight-line rate

Double-declining-balance rate = 2 x 0.2

Double-declining-balance rate = 0.4 or 40%

Year 1 depreciation expense = Book value x Double-declining-balance rate

Year 1 depreciation expense = $78,000 x 40%

Year 1 depreciation expense = $31,200

Book value at the end of Year 1 = Cost - Year 1 depreciation expense

Book value at the end of Year 1 = $78,000 - $31,200

Book value at the end of Year 1 = $46,800

Year 2 depreciation expense = Book value x Double-declining-balance rate

Year 2 depreciation expense = $46,800 x 40%

Year 2 depreciation expense = $18,720

Book value at the end of Year 2 = Book value at the end of Year 1 - Year 2 depreciation expense

Book value at the end of Year 2 = $46,800 - $18,720

Book value at the end of Year 2 = $28,080

Year 3 depreciation expense = Book value x Double-declining-balance rate

Year 3 depreciation expense = $28,080 x 40%

Year 3 depreciation expense = $11,232

Book value at the end of Year 3 = Book value at the end of Year 2 - Year 3 depreciation expense

Book value at the end of Year 3 = $28,080 - $11,232

Book value at the end of Year 3 = $16,848

Year 4 depreciation expense = Book value x Double-declining-balance rate

Year 4 depreciation expense = $16,848 x 40%

Year 4 depreciation expense = $6,739.20

Book value at the end of Year 4 = Book value at the end of Year 3 - Year 4 depreciation expense

Book value at the end of Year 4 = $16,848 - $6,739.20

Book value at the end of Year 4 = $10,108.80

Year 5 depreciation expense = Book value x Double-declining-balance rate=$10

Therefore by algebra answer will be $10.

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Answer:

72 in²

Step-by-step explanation:

We obtain the value of EC:

From Pythagoras :

EC = √CD² - DE²

EC = √10² - 6²

EC = √100 - 36

EC = √64

EC = 8

To obtain AE:

AE = √AB² - BE²

AE = √(√52)² - 6²

AE = √52 - 36

AE = √16

AE = 4

Hence, we can obtain the areas of each triangle :

△ABE = △ADE

△BCE = △CDE

AREA OF △ABE = 1/2 * base * height

= 1/2 * 4 * 6 = 12 in²

AREA OF △BCE = 1/2 * base * height

= 1/2 * 6 * 8 = 24 in²

HENCE, total area of fabric :

(2 * 12) + (2 * 24)

24 in² + 48 in²

= 72 in²

a) The angle swept out  since kelsey started skiing: 1.1498 radians

b) The distance Kelsey skied:  3.334 km

In this question, we have been given Kelsey is skiing along a circular ski trail that has a radius of 2.9 km. she starts at the 3-o'clock position and travels in the ccw direction. kelsey stops skiing when she is 1.185 km to the right and 2.647 km above the center of the ski trail.

Consider the following figure for reference.

We need to find the angle θ and the distance kelsey skied (i.e., the arc length)

Here, the horizontal distance x = 1.185 km and the vertical distance y = 2.647 km

a. the tangent of angle θ would be,

tan(θ) = y/x

tan(θ) = 2.647/1.185

tan(θ) = 2.2337

θ = arctan(2.2337)

θ = 65.88°

θ = 1.1498 radians

b. The length of the arc is:

s = rθ

s = 2.9 * 1.1498

s = 3.334 km

Therefore, a) the angle swept out : 1.1498 radians

b) the distance Kelsey skied:  3.334 km

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Without additional information about the model house, it is impossible to accurately describe the surface that Molly does not need to paint. It could be any surface that will not be visible when the model house is displayed, such as the underside of a roof, the back of a wall, or the bottom of a floor.

Jessica would have to drive 20 miles for the cost to rent a moving truck for one day to be the same at Rentals Plus and Speedy Move.

Let's assume the number of miles driven is represented by 'm'. The cost of renting a moving truck for one day at Rentals Plus can be calculated using the equation:

Cost at Rentals Plus = $5.24 + $4.46 * m

Similarly, the cost of renting a moving truck for one day at Speedy Move can be calculated using the equation:

Cost at Speedy Move = $85.24 + $0.46 * m

To find the number of miles that makes the costs equal, we can set up the equation:

$5.24 + $4.46 * m = $85.24 + $0.46 * m

By rearranging the equation, we can solve for 'm':

$4.46 * m - $0.46 * m = $85.24 - $5.24

$4 * m = $80

m = $80 / $4

m = 20

Therefore, Jessica would have to drive 20 miles for the cost to rent a moving truck for one day to be the same at Rentals Plus and Speedy Move.

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Answer:

How do you describe the solution set to a system of linear inequalities?

Step-by-step explanation:

The solutions of a system of linear inequalities are all the ordered pairs that make all the inequalities in the system true.

Answer:

The Commutative Law of Addition.

Step-by-step explanation:

Basically, this law says we can swap numbers over and still get the same number when we add. This has demonstrated exactly that.

Hope this helped!

Answer:

Associative property

Answer:

Vertex v corresponds to vertex A

/_ S corresponds to /_ E

Step-by-step explanation:

After doing a rotation, reflection and translation, the sides will all match up and you'll see it then.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

2/(n+4)

To find the exact value of (7π/6) using the unit circle, locate the angle (π/6) on the unit circle in the second quadrant, determine the coordinates, and adjust the y-coordinate to be negative. The final answer is (√3/2, -1/2). This answer is obtained by understanding the reference angle and using the coordinates of the point where the angle intersects the unit circle.

To find the exact value of (7π/6) using the unit circle, follow these steps:

1. Start by understanding the reference angle. The reference angle for (7π/6) is (π/6).

2. Locate the angle (π/6) on the unit circle. This angle lies in the second quadrant.

3. Determine the coordinates of the point where the angle intersects the unit circle. For (π/6), the x-coordinate is √3/2 and the y-coordinate is 1/2.

4. Since (7π/6) lies in the second quadrant, the x-coordinate will remain the same, but the y-coordinate will be negative. Therefore, the coordinates for (7π/6) are (√3/2, -1/2).

5. The exact value of (7π/6) is (√3/2, -1/2).

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An equation for S in terms of n representing Dianelys' salary after working n years for the company is equal to S = 40000 + 2500(n-1).

As given in the question,

Dianelys' first year salary is equal to $40000.

Raise given to Dianelys' every year is $2500

Table to represent the value for different years

First year = $40000

Second year = 40000 + 2500(1)

                    = $42500

Third year = 42500 + 2500

                = 45000

                 = 40000 + 2500(2)

Fourth year = 45000 +2500

                  = $47500

                  = 40000 +2500(3) .....

An equation for S in terms of n years

S = 40000 + 2500(n -1)

Therefore, an equation for S in terms of n representing Dianelys' salary after working n years for the company is equal to

S = 40000 + 2500(n-1).

The complete question is:

Dianelys accepted a new job at a company with a contract guaranteeing annual raises. In the first year, Dianelys' salary will be $40000, and she will get a raise of $2500 every year. Make a table of values and then write an equation for S, in terms of n, representing Dianelys' salary after working n years for the company.

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Answer:

Lets be honest we all come to this website just to get answers but the answer would be either C or A

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The main flaw of this  proof is that it did not take into consideration the fact a 4 cent postage must be made with a 4 cent stamp  and a 3 cent postage  must be made with a 3 cent stamp but only looked at allocating the stamps based on the total amount of postage

Step-by-step explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The  proof is

Every postage stamp of three cents or more can be formed using just 3 cent and 4 cent stamps.  

 Basic Step : We can form postage of 3 cents with a single 3 cent stamp and we can form postage of 4 cents using a single four cents tamp

Inductive Step: Assume that we can form postage of j cents for all non negative integers j with j <= k using just 3 cent and 4-cent stamps. We can then form postage of k+1 cents by replacing one 3 cent stamp with a 4-cent or two 4-cent stamps with three 3-cent stamps

  FLAW IDENTIFICATION

Looking the inductive step, the statement ''by replacing one 3 cent stamp with a 4-cent or two 4-cent stamps with three 3-cent stamps '' means that it is possible to use a 3-cent stamp for postage that requires a 4 -cent stamp  and this is not correct according the statement in the basic step

Generally the main flaw of this  proof is that it did not take into  consideration the fact a 4 cent postage must be made with a 4 cent stamp  and a 3 cent postage  must be made with a 3 cent stamp but only looked at allocating the stamps based on the total amount of postage

The probability of getting a black card and a numbered card is 9/26.

To calculate the probability of getting a black card (E1), we need to determine the number of black cards in a standard deck of 52 cards.

There are 26 black cards in total, which consist of 13 spades (black) and 13 clubs (black).

Therefore, the probability of drawing a black card (P(E1)) is:

P(E1) = Number of favorable outcomes / Total number of possible outcomes

P(E1) = 26 / 52

Simplifying this fraction, we get:

P(E1) = 1/2

So the probability of drawing a black card is 1/2.

To calculate the probability of drawing a numbered card (E2), we need to determine the number of numbered cards (2 through 10) in a standard deck.

Each suit (spades, hearts, diamonds, clubs) contains one card for each numbered value from 2 to 10, totaling 9 numbered cards per suit.

Therefore, the probability of drawing a numbered card (P(E2)) is:

P(E2) = Number of favorable outcomes / Total number of possible outcomes

P(E2) = 36 / 52

Simplifying this fraction, we get:

P(E2) = 9/13

So the probability of drawing a numbered card is 9/13.

To calculate the probability of both events occurring together (getting a black card and a numbered card), we multiply the individual probabilities:

P(E1 ∩ E2) = P(E1) × P(E2)

P(E1 ∩ E2) = (1/2) × (9/13)

Simplifying this fraction, we get:

P(E1 ∩ E2) = 9/26

Therefore, the probability of getting a black card and a numbered card is 9/26.

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