What is an asymptomatic carrier?

Answers

Answer 1

Asymptomatic carrier

An asymptomatic carrier is a person or other organism that has become infected with a pathogen, but that displays no signs or symptoms. Although unaffected by the pathogen, carriers can transmit it to others or develop symptoms in later stages of the disease.

Answer 2

Answer:

An Asymtomatic carrier is someone who is carrying a disease but doesn't feel the side effects

Explanation:

Example somebody may have (the 2020 disease)but doesn't feel the dry cough or any of the other symptoms


Related Questions

What energy is used to power the sglt (na -glucose secondary active transporter)?

Answers

The SGLT, which stands for Sodium-Glucose Linked Transporter, is powered by the electrochemical gradient of sodium ions. This secondary active transport system moves glucose and sodium ions against their concentration gradients.

The SGLT cotransporter is responsible for the glucose uptake across the apical membrane of the small intestine and the renal proximal tubule.The Na+-glucose cotransporter or sodium-glucose linked transporter (SGLT) is a transport protein present in the membrane of the epithelial cells lining the lumen of the small intestine and the proximal tubule of the kidney. The energy used to power the SGLT is the energy derived from the sodium ion electrochemical gradient established by the Na+/K+ ATPase that pumps Na+ ions out of the cell and K+ ions into the cell to establish a concentration gradient.

The Na+/K+ ATPase creates a negative potential inside the cell with respect to the outside environment, with a Na+ ion concentration that is lower inside the cell than outside, and a K+ ion concentration that is higher inside the cell than outside.

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stock refers to inventory that is held in addition to cycle stock to guard against uncertainty in demand and/or lead time. a. base b. pipeline c. speculative d. buffer

Answers

Answer:

D. Buffer

Explanation:

Buffer stock refers to inventory that is held in addition to cycle stock to guard against uncertainty in demand and/or lead time.

Hope this helps!


SpongeBob loves to garden and wants to grow lots of pink flowers for his pal Sandy.
special Flower Power fertilirer to see if will help plants produce more flowers. He plants two plants of
the same size in separate containers with the same amount of potting soil. He places one plant in a sunny
window and waters it every day with fertilized water. He places the other plant on a shelf in a closet and
waters it with plain water every other day.

What should SpongeBob do to test the effectiveness of Flower Power fertilizer? Write an experiment.

Answers

He should use one with normal water, then One with fertilized water

Samantha is a basketball player who wonders whether different pairs of shoes will help her jump higher. She ran the same set of jumping drills in four different pairs of shoes and had a friend measure how high she could jump in each. Did Samantha use scientific inquiry?

No, because she did not have an investigation about the natural world.
Yes, because she asked a question about the natural world and investigated it.
No, because she is not a scientist.
Yes, because she asked a question.

Answers

She ran the same set of jumping drills in four different pairs of shoes and had a friend measure how high she could jump in each which means that she used scientific inquiry because she asked a question about the natural world and investigated it which is denoted as option B.

What is Scientific inquiry?

This is referred to as a form of problem-solving and questioning that helps people come to a greater understanding of observable phenomena.

In this scenario, the question asked was which was suitable for jumping higher and she performed experiments by using all the shoes to test in which different height measurement were taken which indicates a scientific inquiry.

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human white blood cells are often multinucleated. how many chromosomes would be present in a white blood cell with two nuclei?

Answers

White blood cells with two nuclei have 46 chromosomes since most of our cells have two sets of chromosomes, making a total of 46 (or 23 pairs) in most cells.

Do human white blood cells frequently have several nuclei?

Human white blood cells frequently have several nuclei (in other words, have more than one nucleus). What would the number of chromosomes be in a white blood cell with two nuclei. Depending on the gender, it differs.

Are there two chromosomes in humans?

One of the twenty-three pairs of human chromosomes is known as chromosome 2. This chromosome is often found in two copies in humans. The second-largest human chromosome, chromosome 2, accounts for over 8% of the DNA in human cells and spans more than 242 million base pairs.

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The liver manufactures all of the following plasma proteins, except:

Answers

All of the following plasma proteins, excluding hemoglobin, are produced by the liver. Here option D is the correct answer.

The liver plays a crucial role in the synthesis of various plasma proteins that are essential for maintaining several vital physiological functions in the body. These proteins include albumin, fibrinogen, immunoglobulins, and many others. However, out of the given options, the liver does not manufacture hemoglobin.

Hemoglobin is a protein found in red blood cells (RBCs) that is responsible for carrying oxygen from the lungs to the tissues and organs of the body. It is a complex protein made up of four subunits, each containing a heme group that binds to oxygen molecules. While the liver does produce heme, which is an essential component of hemoglobin, the synthesis of hemoglobin occurs primarily in the bone marrow, where RBCs are produced.

Albumin is the most abundant plasma protein, synthesized exclusively by the liver, and plays a crucial role in regulating the osmotic pressure of blood and transporting various molecules, including drugs and hormones.

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Complete question:

The liver manufactures all of the following plasma proteins, except:

A) Albumin

B) Fibrinogen

C) Immunoglobulins

D) Hemoglobin

using your knowledge of skeletons and land adaptations, put the subgroups of chordate animals in their order of complexity (reptile, jawless fish, amphibian, bony fish, bird, and Amphioxus)

Answers

Bony fish, amphibian, reptile, bird, and mammal.

define amphibian ?

Amphibians are four-limbed, ectothermic animals that belong to the class Amphibia. The phylum Lissamphibia includes every extant amphibian. They live in a broad range of habitats, with the majority of species being found in freshwater aquatic, terrestrial, fossorial, or arboreal settings. Therefore, amphibians normally begin their lives as aquatic larvae, but certain species have evolved behavioural adaptations to get around this.

The young typically transition from a larval stage with gills to an adult form with lungs. Some tiny terrestrial salamanders and frogs rely solely on their skin for respiration, whereas amphibians use their skin as a supplementary respiratory surface. Although they resemble lizards on the surface, reptiles, like mammals and birds, are amniotes and do not need bodies of water to survive.

Bony fish, amphibian, reptile, bird, and mammal.

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Autoclaving is the most effective among all moist heat-related antimicrobial methods. (True or False)

Answers

Answer:

True.

Explanation:

Autoclaving is the most effective among all moist heat-related antimicrobial methods because this method can kill all the harmful microbes such as bacteria, fungi and viruses. Moist heat causes destruction of microorganisms by denaturation of macromolecules that is present in their body such as proteins. Autoclaving is a very common method for moist sterilization. It is an effective method in killing fungi, bacteria, spores, and viruses but it does not eliminate prions.

5. The diagram below shows a root system, study it carefully and

answer questions that follow.

7

ཀྱི་དྲ་བ་

Name the root system above

Answers

The root system shown above is a taproot system. A taproot system is a type of root system where the primary root grows straight down into the soil and forms the central axis of the root system.

From this primary root, smaller lateral roots called secondary roots grow out and may themselves branch off into tertiary roots. The taproot system is common in dicotyledonous plants, such as trees, shrubs, and many garden plants. This type of root system is beneficial for anchoring the plant in the soil and for accessing deep water sources. However, it may also be a disadvantage in areas with shallow soil or compacted soil, as the taproot may not be able to penetrate these soils effectively.
 

Taproot systems have one main root, called the taproot, which grows vertically downward with smaller lateral roots branching off from it. Examples of plants with taproot systems include carrots and dandelions Fibrous root systems have numerous smaller roots that spread out in all directions near the soil surface. These roots do not have one main root but instead have multiple root strands of similar size. Examples of plants with fibrous root systems include grasses and many types of trees.

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most u.s. beaches are shrinking or encroaching on the land rather than growing or moving seaward, so the land of the u.s. is getting smaller, not bigger. which of the following is a likely cause for loss of at least some of our beaches: group of answer choices sea-level rise as the last ice age drained river valleys to get rid of bays, and sediment now is transported to the coast rather than being trapped in bays. dams have greatly increased the sediment supply to deltas that feed longshore drift to grow beaches. land is sinking in some places as it recovers from being bulged up beyond the edge of the ice-age ice sheets. water, oil and gas are being pumped into the ground in some places, causing the land to rise.

Answers

Sea-level rise as the last ice age drained river valleys to get rid of bays, and sediment now is transported to the coast rather than being trapped in bays.

What is sediment deposition?

Deposition is the act of depositing sediment that has been carried by wind, water, or ice. Pebbles, sand, mud, and salts dissolved in water are all examples of sediment movement. Later on, salts may be accumulated through evaporation or organic activity (such as the formation of seashells).

If the sediment is not restored, beaches will shrink because they lose it to deep sea. The heads of bays like the Chesapeake Bay, which were created when the lower portion of the Susquehanna valley was flooded by sea level rise at the end of the ice age, are today home to a lot of silt. As a result, the sediment from the Susquehanna does not reach the Atlantic beaches. As a result, the beaches get narrower as silt is lost to deep water, and during storms, waves cross the beaches to erode the land behind the beaches in order to collect sediment. Historically, there was a global sea level fall; however, this has no current impact on beaches. And if the ground were rising due to injection wells, the land would be expanding rather than contracting.

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Bacteria grow best in foods that are highly acidic true or false

Answers

Answer:

I think this is false. Bacteria grow best in an environment that is neutral or slightly acidic.

What’s is the punnet square?

Whats is the punnet square?

Answers

Answer:

The Punnett square is a tabular summary of possible combinations of maternal alleles with paternal alleles. These tables can be used to examine the genotypical outcome probabilities of the offspring of a single trait (allele), or when crossing

I need help djdbdjbdfndbdjdnd

I need help djdbdjbdfndbdjdnd

Answers

ok what is ur question bud i got you no cap don’t worry bro.

in a 3-point testcross, the nonrecombinant progeny are e f g and efg. double crossover progeny are ef g and e fg. which locus is in the middle?

Answers

A 3-point testcross is a type of genetic cross used to determine the relative order and distances between three loci on a chromosome

The cross involves a heterozygous individual for three linked genes (A-B-C) crossed with a homozygous recessive individual (aabbcc). The progeny are then analyzed to determine the order of the three loci and their genetic distances from each other.

In the given scenario, the nonrecombinant progeny are e f g and efg, which suggests that the e and g loci are on either side of the f locus. This is because nonrecombinant progeny are the result of no crossovers between the loci on the chromosome during meiosis.

The double crossover progeny are ef g and e fg, which tells us that the e and g loci are farthest apart from each other because the double crossover events occurred between the e and f loci and between the f and g loci. The f locus is in the middle because it is the only locus that is present in both the nonrecombinant progeny and the double crossover progeny.

Therefore, in the given scenario, the f locus is in the middle of the chromosome with the e and g loci on either side.

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How many ATP equivalents are consumed by the reactions of the urea cycle? (b) Operation of the urea cycle actually generates more ATP than it consumes. Explain

Answers

(a) 4 ATP equivalents in total are consumed by the reactions of the urea cycle. Here's a breakdown of ATP consumption in the urea cycle:

1. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I uses 2 ATP molecules to convert ammonia and bicarbonate into carbamoyl phosphate.
2. Argininosuccinate synthetase uses 1 ATP molecule to convert citrulline and aspartate into argininosuccinate.
3. Argininosuccinate lyase then generates arginine and fumarate, without using any ATP.
4. Finally, arginase converts arginine into urea and ornithine, without using any ATP. However, ornithine needs to be transported back into the mitochondria by the ornithine-citrulline antiporter, which uses the equivalent of 1 ATP to power the transport.

(b) Although the urea cycle itself consumes 4 ATP equivalents, it generates more ATP than it consumes indirectly. The reason for this is that one of the byproducts of the urea cycle, fumarate, can enter the citric acid cycle (also known as the Krebs cycle or TCA cycle).

Within the citric acid cycle, fumarate is eventually converted to oxaloacetate, which generates NADH and FADH2. These molecules are used in the electron transport chain to generate ATP, resulting in a net gain of ATP overall.

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which of the following molecules contains all of the information needed to make a protein

Answers

Messenger RNA OR “mRNA”
RNA can make proteins

compare protein 2 to protein 1. does the amino acid sequence of protein 2 differ from the sequence of protein 1? if yes, which amino acid(s) differ?

Answers

A protein is made up of an amino acid that is connected by peptide bonds to form a string. The order and amount of amino acids in each form of protein vary.

A protein is made up of a sequence of amino acids that's also connected by peptide bonds to form a string. The primary distinction between an amino acid and a protein is that an amino acid is a protein's building block, but a protein serves as both a functional and structural component for the body. The R groups on the side chains of amino acids are what separate them from one another. A polypeptide core with connected side chains makes up a protein. It is the pattern of the chemically distinct side chains since each kind of protein varies in the quantity of amino acids and amino acid sequence it contains.

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What role do antigens play in many autoimmune diseases?A. they are how some diseases are inherited B. they cause an immune response C. they destroy all body cells D. they destroy the immune system

Answers

Autoimmune diseases are those in which the Immune System can't differ the healthy and normal cells from the pathogens that could be causing diseases. The result is that the Immune System ends up attacking the body, instead of attacking a specific disease.

An antigen is what stimulates a immune response, activating the white blood cells (leukocytes), which will fight the disease. It can be present in bacterias, viruses and other pathogens. But, in autoimmune diseases, the Immune System attacks antigens that are present in healthy cells from the organism, causing an immune response.

So, the antigens are what triggers the immune response, they are not how the diseases are inherited (they are what triggers the response, but not how the disease is inherited), therefore a) is incorrect.

They are not responsible for destroying the body cells, they trigger this reaction but leukocytes are responsile for destroying the cells that are identified as a threat, So c) is also wrong.

They do not destroy the immune system as well. Some diseases may weaken the |mmune System enough so it barely works, leaving the body unprotected, but even on this cases the antigen is always the thing that triggers the immune response, not the response itself, so d) is also incorrect.

As the role of the antigens is to stimulate the immune response, the correct answer is b) they cause an immune response.

The effect of a neurotransmitter on the muscle cell membrane is to modify its ion permeability properties temporarily.

Answers

Neurotransmitters temporarily modify the ion permeability properties of muscle cell membranes.

Neurotransmitters play a vital role in the communication between neurons and muscle cells in the nervous system. When a neurotransmitter binds to its specific receptor on the muscle cell membrane, it triggers a series of events that lead to the modification of ion permeability properties temporarily.

Typically, neurotransmitters cause ion channels on the muscle cell membrane to open or close, altering the flow of ions such as sodium (Na+), potassium (K+), and calcium (Ca₂⁺). This modulation of ion permeability influences the electrical potential across the membrane, ultimately affecting muscle cell excitability and contraction.

For example, acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter that binds to receptors on muscle cells, opening ion channels and allowing sodium ions to enter the cell, which initiates muscle cell depolarization and contraction.

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Why do chromosomes form during mitosis

Answers

Answer: so they can copy.

Explanation:

During mitosis, chromosomes reorganise into compact cylindrical bodies so that the spindle can distribute one copy of the genome to each daughter cell

HELP PLZ I IN CLASS RN AND I NEED HELP[ PLZ coupons are a handy way for businesses could benefit most from a penetration stratategy?
a nail salon entering a competitive market
b a jewlry store with little competition
c a fast-food franchise
d a business that produces trophie

Answers

A nail salon entering a competitive market

Is overfishing density dependent or density independent?

Answers

Answer: Overfishing is density dependent.

Overfishing is density dependent because as the number of fish decreases, the negative effects of overfishing become stronger. When there are a lot of fish, they can reproduce and replenish their population. However, if too many fish are caught and the population becomes small, it becomes difficult for them to reproduce enough to sustain their numbers. This makes the impact of overfishing even more harmful and harder for the fish population to recover.

A pituitary tumor that increases secretion of growth hormone releasing hormone above normal will result in ______.

Answers

A pituitary tumor that increases the secretion of growth hormone releasing hormone above normal will result in excessive production of growth hormone.

The pituitary gland is responsible for producing and releasing various hormones that regulate bodily functions, including growth hormones.

When a tumor develops in the pituitary gland and increases the production and release of growth hormone-releasing hormone, it leads to excessive production of growth hormone, a condition known as acromegaly.

Acromegaly causes abnormal growth of bones and tissues, particularly in the face, hands, and feet, as well as other health issues such as joint pain, hypertension, and diabetes mellitus. Treatment for pituitary tumors and acromegaly may involve surgery, radiation therapy, and medications to regulate hormone levels.

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what can override brainstem control of breathing in an infant

Answers

In an infant, various factors can override brainstem control of breathing. This includes factors such as hypoxemia, hypercapnia, pain, fear, and anxiety.

The brainstem is the lower section of the brain that connects the cerebrum with the spinal cord. The brainstem regulates several vital functions, including breathing, heart rate, blood pressure, and consciousness. In infants, the brainstem is not fully developed, and as such, various factors can override brainstem control of breathing. This includes factors such as hypoxemia (low oxygen levels), hypercapnia (high carbon dioxide levels), pain, fear, and anxiety.

If an infant's oxygen levels drop too low, or if there's too much carbon dioxide in their bloodstream, their body will try to correct the problem by speeding up breathing. In some cases, however, the brainstem may fail to respond adequately to these changes, leading to irregular breathing or pauses in breathing. This condition is known as apnea of prematurity, and it is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality in premature infants.

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How do enzymes help maintain accuracy of DNA during replication?

Answers

Answer:

Well for instance, DNA polymerase is an enzyme that assists in the replication process by catalyzing the addition of nucleotides to the growing chain of DNA.

Why do some plant and animals produce so many offspring?

Question 2 options:

Because none will survive


Because only a few will survive


Because none will survive

Answers

the second answer: because only few will survive:)

a scientist hypothesized that one species of dinosaur was the ancestor of a later species of dinosaur. she then found fossil evidence in several places that this was so. why can't her hypothesis become a scientific theory at this point? (2 points)

Answers

A hypothesis is a statement made by a scientist to explain a set of observations or answer a particular question. When scientists have sufficient data to support their hypothesis, they develop it into a scientific theory.

An explanation can only become a scientific theory if it meets a variety of criteria. It must be testable, falsifiable, have evidence to support it, and be consistent with existing research. What constitutes as a scientific theory?

A scientific theory is an explanation of an aspect of the natural world based on empirical data, tested and confirmed through the scientific method. Scientific theories are a compilation of observations and evidence that have been meticulously analyzed and have withstood the test of time. They are supported by a large body of evidence, providing a comprehensive and complete explanation of phenomena. It's worth noting that while a hypothesis can be tested with an experiment, it can't be proven correct. When a hypothesis has been rigorously tested and is generally accepted as an explanation for a phenomenon, it can be elevated to the level of scientific theory. The fossil evidence collected by the scientist in the scenario is merely supporting evidence, not conclusive. The scientist needs to gather more empirical data and test her hypothesis before it can be considered a scientific theory.

Thus, her hypothesis cannot become a scientific theory at this point as it needs further testing and evidence to support it.

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According to decay theory, why does forgetting occur? Select one: a. because of the deterioration of the nervous system with increasing age.
b. because of competition from other memories
c. because of ineffective encoding of information.
d. because of the passage of time.
Which of the following is reflected in Sigmund Freud's concept of repression? Select one: a. ineffective encoding b. interference
c. decay d. retrieval failure

Answers

According to decay theory, forgetting occurs because of the passage of time.

Sigmund Freud's concept of repression reflects the idea of retrieval failure.

Forgetting is a common phenomenon in human memory, and decay theory suggests that it happens due to the natural fading or weakening of memories over time. When information is encoded into our memory, it creates neural connections and pathways in the brain. However, these connections can gradually weaken or decay if they are not reinforced or accessed frequently.

The main idea behind decay theory is that memories that are not regularly reinforced or retrieved may gradually decay, becoming more difficult to retrieve accurately. This decay occurs at the neural level, as the connections between neurons weaken over time, making the memory traces less effective in retrieving the information. As a result, memories that are not actively maintained through rehearsal or retrieval can become less accessible and eventually fade away.

Repression is a concept introduced by Sigmund Freud in psychoanalytic theory, and it refers to the unconscious blocking of traumatic or distressing memories from conscious awareness. According to Freud, individuals may repress memories that are too threatening or painful to consciously remember, pushing them into the unconscious mind.

Repression aligns with the concept of retrieval failure because the memories that have been repressed are not readily accessible to conscious retrieval. While the memories may still exist in the unconscious, they are effectively blocked or "forgotten" from the conscious awareness.

When attempts are made to retrieve repressed memories, they may remain inaccessible due to the psychological defense mechanism of repression. These memories are effectively "hidden" from conscious recall, making retrieval difficult or even impossible without specialized therapeutic techniques.

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The reflex arc of pain according to Descartes. The fire (a) is a stimulus afflicting the skin (b) and moving the fine thread (c), which goes to valves (d, e). The valves open the cavity (f), from which an animal spirit is released, which in turn makes the head turn and move the hand and the foot

Answers

prDescartes oposed a reflex arc of pain, where a stimulus (fire) afflicts the skin, causing a fine thread to move and activate valves. The valves open a cavity, releasing animal spirit, which then induces movements in the head, hand, and foot.

The provided description refers to René Descartes' concept of the reflex arc of pain. Descartes believed that pain sensations were triggered by a stimulus, in this case, fire, affecting the skin (b). The stimulus activates a fine thread (c) connected to valves (d, e). When the thread moves, the valves open, releasing a cavity (f). From this cavity, an "animal spirit" is released.

According to Descartes' theory, the released animal spirit influences the head, causing it to turn, as well as the hand and foot, resulting in movements. Descartes proposed this concept as a way to explain how pain sensations could lead to physical responses without the involvement of conscious thought or volition.

It is important to note that Descartes' theory of pain and the reflex arc described in the question is an outdated explanation that does not align with modern understanding of neurophysiology. Contemporary research has provided more nuanced and accurate explanations for the complex processes involved in pain perception and reflex responses.

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Describe the changes you see in a microscope image when you go from a scanning objective to low
power to high power.

Answers

Hello there is your availability for the next update on the route I sent you you have a good day to microscope
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