The flux of a uniform electric field of magnitude 350 N/C through a square, whose sides have a length of 2.0 m and is oriented at 30° with respect to the electric field, is 1,414 N·m²/C.
The flux of an electric field through a surface is given by the equation Φ = E⋅A⋅cos(θ), where E is the magnitude of the electric field, A is the area of the surface, and θ is the angle between the electric field and the normal vector of the surface.
In this case, the magnitude of the electric field is 350 N/C, and the area of the square is calculated by A = (side length)² = (2.0 m)² = 4.0 m².
To find the flux, we need to consider the component of the electric field that is perpendicular to the surface. The angle between the electric field and the surface is 30°. Taking the cosine of 30°, we have cos(30°) = √3/2.
Plugging in the values into the flux equation, we have Φ = (350 N/C) ⋅ (4.0 m²) ⋅ (√3/2) ≈ 1,414 N·m²/C.
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Study the scenario. The particles in some system are moving around quickly. A few minutes later, the particles are moving, on average, more slowly. How does this change in motion affect the temperature of the system? A. The temperature of the system did not change. The speed of the particles has no effect on the temperature, only the type of atom affects the temperature. B. The temperature of the system is higher now than it was initially. Slower moving particles result in a higher temperature for the system. C. The temperature of the system did not change. The speed of the particles does not affect temperature, the number of particles affects the temperature. D. The temperature of the system is lower now than it was initially. Faster moving particles result in a higher temperature for the system.
Answer:
The correct answer is option D.
Explanation:
With an increase in temperature, the particles increase kinetic energy and move quicker. The normal speed of the particles relies upon their mass just as the temperature – heavier particles move more gradually than lighter ones at a similar temperature.
The temperature increase in this system since the average kinetic energy of the particles increases and particles move quickly. And after some time the temperature of the system is lower now than it was initially.
Thus, the correct answer is option D.
The impact of the change in motion should be option D.
Impact on the temperature:In the case when there is an increase in temperature, the particles should increase kinetic energy and move faster. The normal speed of the particles believes their mass is like the temperature. The temperature rises in this system because the average kinetic energy of the particles should rised and particles move faster.
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Which of the following statements about the life of a star with a mass like the Sun is correct? a. the core of this star will be too massive to form a white dwarf b. before the star dies, it will fuse dozens of elements in its core c. as the star is dying, a considerable part of its mass will be lost into space
d. after the main sequence stage, there is no further fusion of hydrogen anywhere in the star e. at the end of its life, the star will explode as a supernova
The correct statement about the life of a star with a mass like the Sun is that, as the star is dying, a considerable part of its mass will be lost into space. This is option c.
Stars, including the sun, are born, evolve, and eventually die. Their lifespan and evolution depend on their mass. The mass of the star determines the energy produced by nuclear fusion in the core of the star. A star's mass determines how long it will live, what type of death it will experience, and what its remnants will be after death.Stars with a mass like the Sun will live longer than more massive stars, which will run out of fuel more quickly. These stars go through several phases of evolution. After the main sequence stage, hydrogen fusion continues in a shell around the helium core in these stars.
During this time, the star becomes redder and larger, eventually becoming a red giant. At this stage, fusion in the core can start helium fusion, causing the star to contract and heat up. Helium fusion only lasts for a short time, so the star expands and cools again. Eventually, the outer layers of the star are ejected into space, forming a planetary nebula.
The remaining core of the star collapses into a white dwarf, which will eventually cool down and become a black dwarf. The core of the star will not be too massive to form a white dwarf as given in option a. Before the star dies, it will fuse dozens of elements in its core is not true because the star does not have enough mass to create elements beyond iron.
After the main sequence stage, fusion of hydrogen continues in the shell around the helium core. So, option d is also incorrect. The star does not have enough mass to create a supernova. Therefore, option e is incorrect.
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PLEASE ANSWER FOR BRAINLIEST!! A guitar string vibrates with a frequency of 4 kHz. What is the period of the waves in seconds?
Answer:
T = 0.00025 secs
Explanation:
Given:
Frequency = 4 kHz = 4000 Hz
Required:
Time Period = ?
Formula:
T = 1/f
Solution:
T = 1/4000
T = 0.00025 secs
Answer:
0.00025 seconds
Explanation:
Time period = 1 / frequency
= 1/4000
= 0.00025 seconds
Hope this helps, and please mark me brainliest if it does!
on a roller coaster where is the maximum potential energy
The maximum potential energy occurs at the peak, where the coaster has reached its maximum height and is momentarily at rest before the downward descent.
The maximum potential energy on a roller coaster is typically reached at the highest point of the ride, which is often referred to as the "peak" or the "top" of the coaster.
At this point, the coaster has gained the maximum height in its trajectory and has the highest potential energy relative to the ground or a reference point.
When a roller coaster reaches the peak, it has converted most of its initial kinetic energy (energy associated with its motion) into potential energy (energy associated with its position). As the coaster descends from the peak, the potential energy is gradually converted back into kinetic energy, resulting in an increase in speed.
It's important to note that the potential energy of the roller coaster is dependent on its height and the gravitational force acting upon it. As the coaster moves higher, the potential energy increases, and as it moves lower, the potential energy decreases.
The maximum potential energy occurs at the peak, where the coaster has reached its maximum height and is momentarily at rest before the downward descent.
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what would happen if the space shuttle were launched with a speed greater than earth's escape velocity? group of answer choices it would travel in a higher orbit around earth. it would take less time to reach its bound orbit. it would orbit earth at a faster velocity. it would be in an unstable orbit. it would travel away from earth into the solar system.
The Earth can be orbited by spacecraft. When an object reaches light speed, its orbit transforms into an unbounded arc known as a parabola.
What might happen if a spacecraft launched at a speed lower than its escape velocity?The Kármán line, which is 100 kilometers in altitude, is typically used as the starting point for the notion of space. A rocket will attain orbit around Earth if it travels high and fast enough to reach space but not fast enough to reach escape velocity.
How is space-time affected by speed?In relation to another item, the fourth dimension of time moves more slowly the faster you move across the three factors that make up physical space. For the twin who traveled through space, time is measured differently.
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The Flash dodges 80 bullets in 20 seconds. How many bullets he dodges per second is called the "frequency". How long it takes to dodge one bullet is the "period. " In other words, a period is 1 cycle of oscillation, or the time it takes for one full revolution to occur.
Answer:
80:20
20/20=1
80/20=4
he doges 4 in 1 second
Explanation:
Hope this helps! =D
using one mindlin plate element, define a finite element model for this structural problem. to avoid shear lock use selective reduced integration (1 gaus point) on the shear term
The finite element model for the structural problem can be defined using one Mindlin plate element with selective reduced integration to avoid shear lock.
The Mindlin plate element is a two-dimensional element commonly used in the finite element analysis of plates and shells. It is commonly used in the analysis of thin plates, where the transverse shear stresses cannot be neglected. The element has six degrees of freedom at each node, which are three translations and three rotations. The use of selective reduced integration on the shear term helps to avoid the problem of shear locking.
Shear locking is a phenomenon that occurs when the finite element solution is dominated by the shear stiffness term, leading to inaccuracies in the results. The use of selective reduced integration reduces the number of Gauss points used to calculate the shear term, thereby avoiding the problem of shear locking. By using one Mindlin plate element with selective reduced integration, a finite element model can be defined for the structural problem, which provides accurate and reliable results.
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when an astronomer involved in a research project says he is going to look at the observatory's plate collection, what will he be looking at? a. what the special-of-the-day is in the observatory cafeteria b. a series of metal disks used for changing the aperture of reflecting telescopes c. a series of insulated plastic shields, which are used to prevent stray infra-red radiation from the observatory from interfering with observations d. a collection of souvenir plates, with painting of other observatories from around the world (astronomers collect these as a hobby) e. a series of glass plates, with light-sensitive chemicals on them, on which the appearance of the sky was recorded
When an astronomer involved in a research project says he is going to look at the observatory's plate collection, he will be looking at a series of glass plates, with light-sensitive chemicals on them, on which the appearance of the sky was recorded. Therefore, the correct answer is E.
An observatory is a building or complex that is dedicated to observing celestial objects. It is also a location used for observing terrestrial events like weather phenomena. Some observatories are used for scientific research while others are used for education purposes. There are a number of instruments used for observing the celestial bodies in the observatory such as telescopes, cameras, and spectroscopes.
Astronomers use photographic plates to record astronomical data. These photographic plates are made from glass and coated with a layer of silver bromide emulsion. After being exposed to light for a particular period, the photographic plate is developed in a chemical solution to create a photographic image. A plate collection is simply a collection of such plates. These plates are used to record the appearance of the sky or particular celestial objects, and they can be studied later for research or educational purposes.
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What happen to the frequency of transverse vibration of a stretched string if its tension is halved and the area of cross section of the string is doubled?
Answer:
The fundamental frequency of the stretched string is:
\(f=\) \(\frac{1}{2} \sqrt{\frac{T}{L} }\) [ T = Tension and μ = mass per unit length]
Here,
μ = \(\frac{m}{L} = \frac{Vp}{L} = Ap\)
\(f= \frac{1}{2} \sqrt{\frac{T}{Ap} }\)
If T is halved and A is doubled,
\(f= \frac{1}{2} \sqrt{\frac{T'}{A'p} } = \sqrt{\frac{1}{2* 2* A* p} } = \frac{1}{2} (\frac{1}{2} \sqrt{\frac{T}{Ap} } = \frac{1}{2} f\)
Thus, the frequency is reduced to half if its tension is halved and the area of cross-section of the string is doubled.
When the tension is halved and the area of cross section is doubled, the frequency increases by a factor of 1.414.
The frequency of transverse vibration of a stretched string is calculated as follows;
\(f = \frac{1}{2l} \sqrt{\frac{T}{\mu} }\)
where;
T is the tension on the stringμ is the mass per unit length\(f = \frac{1}{2l} \sqrt{\frac{T}{\mu} }\\\\f = \frac{1}{2l} \sqrt{\frac{Tl}{m} } \\\\f = \frac{l^2}{2l} \sqrt{\frac{T}{m} } \\\\f = \frac{A}{2l} \sqrt{\frac{T}{m}}\)
when the tension is halved and the area of cross section is doubled, the frequency is calculated as;
\(\frac{f_1}{A_1 \sqrt{T_1} } = \frac{f_2}{A_2\sqrt{T_2} } \\\\f_2 = \frac{f_1 A_2\sqrt{T_2}}{A_1 \sqrt{T_1} }\\\\f_2 = \frac{f_1 \times 2A_1\sqrt{0.5T_1} }{\sqrt{T_1} }\\\\f_2 = \frac{f_1 \times 2A_1 \times 0.7071\sqrt{T_1} }{\sqrt{T_1} }\\\\f_2 = 1.414 f_1\)
Thus, when the tension is halved and the area of cross section is doubled, the frequency increases by a factor of 1.414.
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the maximum force that a grocery bag can withstand without ripping is 250 n. suppose that the bag is filled with 20 kg of groceries, and lifted with an acceleration of 5.0 m/s2. do the groceries stay in the bag? justify your answer with calculations.
Yes, the groceries stay in the bag
What is newton's second law?
Newton's Second Law of Motion says that when a force acts on a mass, the mass will speed up (object). This law of motion can be seen at work when you ride your bike. The mass is your bike. The force is your leg muscles pushing on the pedals of your bike.
We calculate the force that is exerted on the bag using Newton's second law, which states that,
F= ma
m is the mass of the object in kilograms
a is the acceleration of the object in meters per second squared. And so, we got:
F= 20kg X 5 m^2
= 100 N
So, a force of 100 newtons is exerted on the bag. Since that is less than the required 250 newtons needed to rip the bag, then the bag doesn't rip, and so the groceries stay in the bag, due to the normal force exerted on them by the bag.
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A pulse displays all wave characteristics except:
Ofrequency
amplitude
velocity
energy
Answer: Pulses do not have energy, however, waves do.
Hope this helps (^_^)
Kepler's_____of planetary motion states that the planets have an elliptical orbit, with the sun at one focal point of the ellipse.
Answer:
First Law
Explanation:
Kepler's First Law of planetary motion states that the planets have an elliptical orbit, with the sun at one focal point of the ellipse.
Which one of the following is normally nor a characteristic of a simple
two-lens refracting astronomical telescope?
A) The angular size of the final image is larger than that of the object.
B) The final image is virtual.
C) The objective forms a virtual image.
D) The final image is inverted.
The characteristic of a simple two-lens refracting astronomical telescope that is normally not present is C) The objective forms a virtual image.
A simple two-lens refracting astronomical telescope consists of two lenses: an objective lens and an eyepiece lens. The objective lens gathers and focuses light from a distant object to form an intermediate real image. The eyepiece lens magnifies this intermediate image to create a final image that can be viewed by the observer.
Let's evaluate the given options:
A) The angular size of the final image is larger than that of the object.
This is a characteristic of a telescope. The purpose of the telescope is to magnify the object, allowing us to see it in greater detail. Therefore, the angular size of the final image is typically larger than that of the object.
B) The final image is virtual.
This is a characteristic of a telescope. The final image formed by the eyepiece lens is a virtual image, meaning that the light rays do not physically converge at that location. Instead, they appear to diverge from the image location, allowing us to view the magnified image.
C) The objective forms a virtual image.
This is not a characteristic of a simple two-lens refracting astronomical telescope. The objective lens forms an intermediate real image, which is then magnified by the eyepiece lens. The intermediate image is real because the light rays converge at that point before reaching the eyepiece.
D) The final image is inverted.
This is a characteristic of a telescope. Due to the way the lenses in a telescope are positioned, the final image is inverted compared to the object. This inversion does not affect the quality of the observation as our brain automatically adjusts and interprets the image correctly.
Therefore, the characteristic that is normally not present in a simple two-lens refracting astronomical telescope is option C) The objective forms a virtual image.
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Which change in the medium will likely cause the speed of light waves to decrease?
moving from a solid to a gas
moving from a liquid to a gas
moving from a gas to a liquid
moving from a solid to a liquid
Answer:
D
Explanation:
Which experiment shows light best as a particle? (2 points)
Interference
Photoelectric effect
Diffraction
All of the above
One experiment that best depicts light as a particle is interference (also known as Young's Interference Experiment or Double-slit Interference Experiment).
The Young's double-slit interference experiment is what.Two coherent light sources are spaced closely apart in Young's double-slit experiment. Most often, only a few orders of magnitude over the wavelength of light are employed. Young's double-slit experiment contributed to understanding of wave theory of light, which is illustrated by a figure.
What distinguishes Young's double-slit experiment from diffraction?The interference pattern created by diffraction has fringes of variable widths, whereas interference results in all of the fringes being the same width.
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The nurse assessing an 11-year-old who is having an asthma attack expects to hear adventitious sounds of:_______
The nurse assessing an 11-year-old who is having an allergies attack expects to hear adventitious sounds of: sibilant wheezes.
Can asthma can be cured?
There's no therapy for asthma. However, it is a especially treatable disease. In fact, some medical doctors say modern day allergies remedies are so effective, many humans have near-complete manipulate of their symptoms
What can be the cause of asthma?Exposure to more than a few irritants and components that set off allergies (allergens) can set off signs and symptoms of asthma.
Asthma triggers are exceptional from character to man or woman and can include: Airborne allergens, such as pollen, dirt mites, mould spores, pet dander or particles of cockroach waste.
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https://brainly.com/question/8473800#SPJ4What happens during 1/2 life of a radioactive isotope?
A radioactive isotope's half-life is the length of time it takes for one half of it to decay.
What is the radioisotopes' half-life?The duration needed for a quantity of a radioisotope to decay by half is known as its radioactive half-life. If an isotope has a half-life of only a few hours or less, the majority of the radioactivity will dissipate within a few days.
How does half-life work?A radioactive element's half-life is the amount of time it takes for it to decay to half of its original value. It can be concluded from this that a source's activity has a half-life if it takes some time before it drops to half its starting value.
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If a 6.0 kg bowling ball is rolled with a velocity of 3.5 m/s, what is the momentum of the ball? Show Work
Answer: 21 kgm/s
Explanation:
momentum
p=mv (mass*velocity )
m= 6kg
v=3.5 m/s
6*3.5= 21 kgm/s
what was Galleos contribution to the study of motion ?
Answer:
B ) He was the first to systematically study force and motion.
Explanation:
I seen this one before and know the answer since there's 4 options
Which of the following yoga poses is a good pose to help you practice proper posture? A. Triangle pose B. Mountain pose C. Warrior II pose D. Seated Wide-leg saddle
Answer:B. Mountain Pose
Explanation:
Assume a fabrication process improves the yield from 0.92 to 0.95. find the defects per area unit for each version of the technology given a die area of 200 mm.
The fabrication process improves the yield from 0.92 to 0.95. The defects per area unit for 0.92 and 0.95 technology are 0.042 per cm² and 0.026 per cm² respectively
The yield is increased by a manufacturing procedure from 0.92 to 0.95 the defects will be;
Given Data
Suppose the area of the die is 2 cm²
The defects per unit area with a yield of 0.92 and 0.95 must be determined
Solution
Equation for yield
Yield = 1/(1+(defects × die area/2)²
The yield equation has been rearranged
Defects = 2×(1√(yield)-1)/die area
First, we find for the technology of 0.92
Defects = 2×(1√(yield)-1)/die area
Putting the value of yield and die are 0.92 and 2 cm² respectively
Defects =2× (1√(0.92-1)/2
Defects = 0.042 per cm²
Now, find for the technology of 0.95
Putting the value of yield and die which are 0.95 and 2 cm² respectively
Defects=2× (1√(0.95-1)/2
Defects=0.026 per cm²
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What is the period of a water wave is 4 complete waves pass a fixed point in 10 seconds?
A: 0.25 s
B: 0.40 s
C: 2.5 s
D. 4.0 s
The period of a wave is the time it takes for one complete wave to pass a fixed point. We are given that 4 complete waves pass a fixed point in 10 seconds.
To find the period, we can divide the total time by the number of complete waves: 10 seconds ÷ 4 waves = 2.5 seconds per wave
To determine the period of a water wave, we need to know how much time it takes for one complete wave to pass a fixed point. In this case, 4 complete waves pass in 10 seconds.
Step 1: Find the time it takes for one complete wave to pass.
Divide the total time (10 seconds) by the number of complete waves (4 waves).
10 seconds / 4 waves = 2.5 seconds
Step 2: Identify the corresponding answer choice.
The period of the water wave is 2.5 seconds, which corresponds to answer choice C.
Your answer: C: 2.5 s
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A bazooka is actually a small rocket-launcher. the reason a bazooka does not have a recoil is that _______
The reason a bazooka does not have a recoil is that gases flow freely backwards.
A bazooka is actually a small rocket-launcher. The reason a bazooka does not have a recoil is that gases flow freely backwards.
Bazooka is the common name for a rocket launcher weapon that is man-portable recoilless anti-tank, that is widely deployed by the United States Army, especially during World War2.
The reason a bazooka does not have a recoil is that in bazooka, gases flow freely backwards and then the force on the rocket is exerted by the rocket exhaust, not by the launcher. Because of the gases flowing backwardly and they can damage the recoil, the bazooka is recoil free.
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What is the longest lasting solar panel?
The longest lasting solar panel is often composed of high-quality components and is built to resist harsh weather conditions like monocrystalline silicon.
Solar panels are devices that use sunlight to generate power. Several factors influence the longevity of a solar panel, including the materials used, manufacturing quality, and ambient conditions.
In average, solar panels are predicted to last 25 to 30 years. This means that the panels should continue to produce power at 80% or higher of their original capacity throughout the duration of the warranty. Monocrystalline silicon, a high-quality and long-lasting material, is used to make the most durable solar panels. To further extend their longevity, these panels are also coated with anti-reflective coatings and weather-resistant materials.
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a boy pulls his toy on a smooth horizontal surface with a rope inclined at 60° to the horizontal if the effective Force pulling the toy along the horizontal surface is 5-newton calculate the tension in the rope
Answer:
The tension in the rope is 10 N
Explanation:
The Force Vector
Like all vectors, the force has a magnitude and direction. Vectors can be decomposed into two perpendicular components on both axes.
The tension in the rope (F) can be calculated by using vector decomposition as follows.
The figure included below shows a force F which horizontal component is known to have a value of Fx= 5 Nw. The angle formed by the force and its horizontal component is 60°.
We can use the trigonometric ratio called the cosine to find the magnitude of F as follows:
\(\displaystyle \cos 60^\circ = \frac{5}{F}\)
Solving for F:
\(\displaystyle F = \frac{5}{\cos 60^\circ}\)
\(\displaystyle F = \frac{5}{\frac{1}{2}}\)
Thus, F = 10 N
The tension in the rope is 10 N
Which of the following best describes how regular exercise is beneficial to the brain?
Increased levels of endorphins are released into the brain, boosting a person's mood
Decreased levels of proteins are released, hindering the ability of the person to develop new brain cells
Increased levels of lactic acid are produced, stimulating the person's energy level and allowing for sustained exercise.
Decreased blood flow to the brain occurs both during and after the workout, allowing
The statement “Increased levels of endorphins are released into the brain, boosting a person's mood” best explains how the regular form of exercise is beneficial to the brain.
Generally, when individuals exercise regularly, their bodies tend to release chemicals named endorphins. Some of the significant characteristics of endorphins are listed as follows:
Endorphins behave like analgesics as they help in diminishing the perception of pain It interacts with receptors present in the brain to reduce the perception of pain They also act similar to sedatives It can also trigger the positive type of feelings in the body which is similar to the characteristics of morphineThus, we can conclude that regular exercise can boost a person’s mood by increasing the endorphin levels that are released into the brain. Hence, option A is the correct answer.
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the strength of a bar magnet's magnetic field decreases with distance according to what is known as an inverse cube law; multiplying the distance from the magnet by a factor of $k$ divides the magnetic field strength by a factor of $k^3$. suppose the magnetic field strength of the magnet is $64 \text{ gauss}$ at a distance of $10 \text{ cm}$ away. what is the magnetic field strength of the magnet, $20 \text{ cm}$ away?
The magnetic field strength with a factor of k³ is 64 Gauss at a distance of 10 cm, then the magnetic field strength at a distance of 20 cm = 8 Gauss.
One of the most fundamental ways to gauge the strength of the magnetic field is to utilize a physical quantity known as magnetic field strength.
The strength of a magnetic field at a point produced by a straight current-carrying conductor depends on the amplitude of the electric current and the perpendicular distance between the point and the conductor.
Since the magnet's strength diminishes as the inverse cube of the distance, it follows that:
= 64 x 1/ (\(\frac{20}{10}\))³
= 64 x \(\frac{1}{2}\) ³
= 8 Gauss
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riders on the tower of doom, an amusement park ride, experience 2.0 s of free fall, after which they are slowed to a stop in 0.50 s . part a what is a 65 kg rider's apparent weight as the ride is coming to rest? express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units.
By Newton's second law, the apparent weight of rider coming at rest is 3548 N.
According to formula, v = u + at
a = 39.2 m/\(s^{2}\)
Force, F = ma
F = m(a+g)
F = apparent weight
m = mass, given = 65 kg
a = acceleration, given = 39.2 m/\(s^{2}\)
g = 9.8 m/\(s^{2}\)
Put these values in formula, F = m(a+g)
F = 65(39.2+9.8)
F = 3548 N
Therefore, the apparent weight of rider coming at rest is 3548 N.
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Explain what is observed when the temperature of water, which has pollen grains
suspended in it, is raised.
(2 marks
Answer:
The phenomenon of the irregular movement of pollen grains suspended in water was observed by Robert Brown in 1827. Brownian motion, the name given to this process, was not given a rigorous mathematical treatment until almost one hundred years later by N.
Can someone help me PLEASEEE ASAP
Answer:
12 meters and 2 n
Explanation:
16 - u = 6 (8.0 + 11)