What is the volume of this fish tank?
l=50 cm h=12 cm w=20 cm

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

Volume(v)= l×w×h

= 50cm×20cm×12cm

= 12000cm^3

ans.


Related Questions

3. How did the government support settlement of the West?

Answers

The government protected western settlement with troops and pushed the Native Americans off western lands. The Federal government also financed the constructed of the first transcontinental railroad in the west.

in a testcross, if all the offspring show the dominant phenotype, then the individual with the unknown genotype was:

Answers

The homozygous dominant genotype will show all dominant offspring in test cross.

To as certain whether or not the dominant trait is heterozygous, a text cross between a person expressing a recessive trait and one exhibiting a dominant trait is performed. An individual expressing a dominant trait could have two copies of the dominant allele (homozygous dominant) or one copy of each dominant and recessive allele, according to the law of dominance in genetics (heterozygous dominant). A test cross can be used to ascertain whether a person is homozygous dominant or heterozygous dominant. An individual is bred with another who is homozygous for the recessive trait in a test cross, and the children of the test cross are then evaluated. The allele that the homozygous recessive person passes on determines the phenotype of the progeny because they can only transmit recessive alleles. Thus, this test has two potential outcomes:

Hence, test cross is used to determine genotype of offspring.

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mary planted five similar plants in the same soil.she observed that the plants grew more slowly each year. for a hypothesis for mary's observation

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Based on Mary's observation that the five similar plants she planted in the same soil grew more slowly each year, a hypothesis could be that the soil's nutrient content became progressively depleted over time.

The hypothesis suggests that the plants' growth rate decreased because the soil lacked sufficient nutrients necessary for optimal growth.

Over the years, as the plants extracted nutrients from the soil, they were not replenished adequately, leading to a gradual decline in nutrient availability. This nutrient depletion hypothesis assumes that the soil's initial nutrient composition was sufficient to support the plants' growth but became insufficient over time.

To test this hypothesis, Mary could conduct soil tests to measure nutrient levels, both initially and after each year of growth. Comparing nutrient concentrations with the growth rates of the plants would provide evidence to support or refute the hypothesis. Mary could consider other factors such as soil pH, water availability, or pest infestations, which could also contribute to the observed decrease in plant growth rate over time.

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Indicate the roles of growth factors in the cell cycle. Check all that apply.
1. They act as repair proteins that fix DNA damage in the cell.
2. Growth factors bind to a receptor and initiate a signal cascade in the cell.
3. Their binding changes gene transcription.
4. They allow the cell the progress through the cell cycle.

Answers

Based on your question and the terms provided, the roles of growth factors in the cell cycle include:
2. Growth factors bind to a receptor and initiate a signal cascade in the cell.
3. Their binding changes gene transcription.
4. They allow the cell to progress through the cell cycle.

Growth factors play a crucial role in the regulation of the cell cycle by initiating a signal cascade that leads to changes in gene transcription and ultimately allows the cell to progress through the different phases of the cell cycle. They do not act as repair proteins that fix DNA damage in the cell.

2. Growth factors bind to a receptor and initiate a signal cascade in the cell.
3. Their binding changes gene transcription.
4. They allow the cell to progress through the cell cycle. To know more about

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In an energy pyramid, which level will generally have the LARGEST number of organisms?

Answers

The top will have more energy unless there is something telling you otherwise
the lowest level generally has the most organisms. they're the producers. a pyramid is shaped wider at the bottom and narrows as it goes up like this ⚠️.

How would these cells appear under a microscope at a higher magnification? What
parts of the cells would be visible?

Answers

This transmission electron micrograph clearly shows the cell wall, nucleus, vacuoles, mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus, and ribosomes.

How do you magnify cells to view them more clearly?

Once you can see the cells, carefully turn the coarse focus slider. Once the cells are in focus and are clearly visible, carefully turn the fine focus knob. To see the cells in greater detail, repeat steps 1 through 5 with the higher power magnification.

So, to study cells, scientists utilize microscopes. Compared to light, electron microscopes offer greater magnification, more resolution, and more detail.

What cell components may be seen under a microscope?

Under a light microscope, the nucleus, cytoplasm, cell membrane, chloroplasts, and cell wall can all be seen as organelles. Although mitochondria can still be seen under a light microscope, extensive investigation is not possible.

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Using a testcross, geneticists can analyze gene recombination by crossing an individual that is homozygous for the _______ alleles of two genes with a doubly _______ individual.

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Using a testcross, geneticists can analyze gene recombination by crossing an individual that is homozygous for the recessive alleles of two genes with a doubly heterozygous individual.

Each gene in each of us has two alleles, or variations. You are considered to be homozygous for a gene if you have two identical copies of it. In contrast, a genotype with heterozygosity has different alleles. Everyone who has a recessive trait, like red hair or blue eyes, is homozygous for that particular gene. A scientist can perform a test cross to establish if an organism exhibiting a dominant trait is homozygous or heterozygous for a specific allele.

A set of gene variants known as a dominant genotype have dominant alleles that, in circumstances of total dominance, prevent heterozygous people from expressing recessive alleles.

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Fill in the blanks DNA REPLICATION

Fill in the blanks DNA REPLICATION

Answers

Answer:

leading

Explanation:

leading strand is the new DNA formed after replication. lagging strand is the old DNA strand

Why is it necessary to chelate the metal ions from solution during the boiling/lysis step at 100C? What would happen if you did not use a chelating agent such as the InstaGene matrix?

Answers

A chelating agent is required because it attracts and traps metal ions, which are cofactors in enzyme processes. If they were not removed from the solution, they would catalyse processes that would destroy the DNA, similar to DNAase devouring DNA.

Chelation is a sort of bonding that occurs between ions and molecules and metal ions. The creation or existence of two or more distinct coordinate bonds between a polydentate (many bound) ligand and a single central metal atom is required.

Chelants, chelators, chelating agents, and sequestering agents are all names for these ligands. They are often organic molecules, however this is not always the case, as with zinc and its usage as a maintenance treatment to limit copper absorption in persons with Wilson's disease.

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what is the main fate of pyruvate in skeletal muscle when oxygen is limited, such in the first minute of high intensity exercise? what is the purpose of this reaction in muscle during exercise? what happens to the product of this reaction in the body?

Answers

NAD+ is produced during the production of lactate, and it can be recycled during glycolysis.

Intensity and an example are what?

According to the dictionary, intensity is the characteristic of being extremely powerful, concentrated, or difficult, or the strength or difficulty level of anything. Being able to run at your full speed for miles on end is an example of intensity. The speed at which a treadmill is going is an illustration of intensity. noun.

What is light intensity?

The pace at which light disperses over a surface of a specific region some distances from a source is referred to as intensity. The intensity changes depending on the source's power and distance from it.

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Conversion Chart
5 milliliters
=
1 teaspoon
768 teaspoons = 1 gallon
1 gallon = 4 liters
1000 milliliters
=

Calculate the area affected if the following ships were involved in an accident & spilled their oil:
A tanker truck holding 8,000 gallons or 32,000 liter.
A ship holding 300,000 gallons or 1.2 million liters.
A supertanker holding 83,000,000 gallons or 332 million liters.
2. How could an oil spill affect bird nesting near the contaminated body of water?

Answers

The area affected by the ship that were involved in an accident is = 333 million liters

An oil spill can affect bird nesting near a contaminated body of water through its food chain.

What is oil spillage?

Oil spillage is defined as the release of used or oil wastes into a water body through a tanker, offshore drilling rig, or underwater pipeline.

The area affected by the ship that were involved in an accident can be calculated by the addition of the various areas affected by the tanker, ship and super tanker.

That is, 32,000 + 1,200,000 + 332,000,000

= 333,232,000

Which is approximately 333 million liters.

A bird that is nesting near the contaminated body of water can be affected through its food chain.

This is because birds which depends on fish can eat fish for this contaminated water which must have accumulated some level of harmful organic substances on its body surfaces.

Therefore when eaten by the bird their health would be affected negatively.

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Sheila weighs 60 kg and is riding a bike. Her momentum on the bike is 340 kg • m/s. The bike hits a rock, which stops it completely and throws Sheila forward onto the pavement. If there is no net force on the system, what is Sheila’s velocity immediately after she is thrown from the bike?

Answers

Answer:

5.7 m/s     

Explanation:

The computation of Sheila 's velocity right after she gets thrown out of the bike is shown below:

1) The Physical principle: conservation of momentum.

If there is no net external force operating on a system, so the system's total momentum is conserved

The momentum, p, is a vector magnitude that is determined as the product of the mass by the velocity:

P = mv.

2) Taking into account therefore that there is no net force on the device, Sheila and the momentum of the bike are the identical pre and post collision.

Based on this, the calculation is as follows

Momentum before the collision:

       \(P_1 = (mass\ of\ Sheila + mass\ of\ the\ bike) \times velocity\)

       \(P_1 = (60kg + m) \times v_1\)

= 340 kg m/s

Now Momentum after the collision:

      \(P_2 = mass\ of\ sheila \times velocity\ of\ Sheila + mass\ of\ the\ bike \times velocity\ of\ the\ bike\)

\(P_2 = 60kg \times v_2 + m \times 0 = 60kg \times v_2\)

\(P_1 = P_2\)

\(= (60kg + m) \times v_1\)

\(= 60kg \times v_2\)

\(= 340 kg .\ m/s\)

\(= 60kg \times v_2\)

\(v_2 = \frac{340\ kg .\ m/s }{60\ kg}\)

= 5.7 m/s     

The velocity of Sheila immediately after she is thrown from the bike is 5.67 m/s.

The given parameters;

mass of Sheila, m = 60 kgmomentum of Sheila, P = 340 kg.m/s

The velocity of Sheila immediately after she is thrown from the bike is calculated as follows;

P = mv

where;

v is the velocity Sheila

\(v = \frac{P}{m} \\\\v = \frac{340}{60} \\\\v = 5.67 \ m/s\)

Thus, the velocity of Sheila immediately after she is thrown from the bike is 5.67 m/s.

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If there are 3000 calories of energy available at the zooplankton, how much energy will there be at the shark?

Answers

Answer:

30 calories of energy

Explanation:

In an aquatic ecosystem, zooplanktons are primary consumer i.e. they feed on primary producers e.g phytoplanktons. They are fed on by smaller fishes e.g tilapia, which in turn is fed on by sharks. Based on this, we have a food chain as follows:

phytoplankton → zooplankton → tilapia fish → shark

From this food chain, it appears that ZOOPLANKTON is a primary consumer while SHARK is a tertiary consumer. Since only about 10% of energy is transferred to each trophic level when organisms feed on one another, if there are 3000 calories of energy available at the zooplankton, the following will be available for sharks:

For secondary consumer = 10/100 × 3000 = 300 calories for tilapia fish

For tertiary consumer = 10/100 × 300 = 30 calories for shark.

what condition might result from an excess of aquaporins?

Answers

Answer:

fluid retention in pregnant women Aquaporins transport water. An excess of aquaporins during pregnancy can result in fluid retention. Water movement is important in urine formation in the kidneys.

Explanation:

Mendelian inheritance does not apply to the inheritance of alleles that result in incomplete dominance and codominance.

Why? How are the alleles in these two situations different from the alleles that Mendel studied?

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

Phenotypes that Mendel studied was controlled by one gene that had two possible alleles, dominant and recessive allele. This made it possible to see just one or the other phenotype (total of 2 phenotypes).

Well now we know that a characteristic may be controlled by one gene with two alleles, but the two alleles may not have a traditional relationship of dominant and recessive. Which is why we see the patterns like codominance and incomplete dominance.

Codominance is when both alleles are expressed equally in the phenotype of the heterozygote. For example, you have a black flower and red flower, a codominant flower would have both black petals and red petals. Do you see how the traditional relationship of one being dominant and other being recessive no longer holds because you express both alleles.

Incomplete dominance occurs when the phenotype of the offspring is somewhere in between the phenotype of both parents. SO a black and red flower would make an offspring with purple petals where neither of the alleles reigns supreme over other rather we get a mixture of both alleles.

The passing of the alleles from the parent to the offspring in a particular manner was given by Mendel, he defined the passing of the recessive and the dominant allele in a specific way from generations.

Mendelian inheritance does not apply to incomplete and co-dominance.

The exception of the Mendelian inheritance can be explained as:

The condition in which the allele is not completely expressed in the progeny is called incomplete dominance while the expression of both the recessive and the dominant allele in the progeny together is called co-dominance.

In the co-dominance case of hetero-zygotic phenotype, the allele is depicted equally. The law of recessive and dominance does not apply here and both the alleles are expressed in the progeny in equal ratio.

In the incomplete dominance condition, the phenotypic character of the progeny is in the middle and a mixture of both the dominant and the recessive allele.

Therefore, the Mendelian inheritance law does not apply to incomplete dominance and co-dominance.

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Consider the mutated sequence for Tay Sachs Disease. How many amino acids are changed by the insertion mutation? Multiple Choice
A. All of the sino acids starting at the site of the insertion
B. There is no meaningful change to most of the sequence
C. The This changed to Tyt
D. Only the two amino acids impacted at the site of the insertion (Thr to Tyr and Pro)
E. All of the amino acids in the sequence

Answers

The answer is D. Only the two amino acids impacted at the site of the insertion (Thr to Tyr and Pro).

A gene mutation is a permanent alteration in the DNA sequence that makes up a gene, such that the sequence varies from what is found in most people. A gene mutation can be passed down from one or both parents, causing a genetic disorder like Tay Sachs Disease.Tay Sachs disease is caused by a mutation in the HEXA gene on chromosome 15, which causes a deficiency in the enzyme hexosaminidase A (Hex-A).

The missing or insufficient enzyme results in a build-up of GM2 gangliosides in the brain, which can eventually cause the destruction of brain cells.Therefore, the answer to the question above is D. Only the two amino acids impacted at the site of the insertion (Thr to Tyr and Pro).

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The diagram shows the process of mitosis.CDParent cellDNA replicates2 DaughtercellsWhat is the purpose of this process?O It helps the cell function efficiently.O It helps the cell form energy molecules,O It helps the cell make an exact copy of itself.O It helps the cell increase its genetic material.

Answers

It helps the cell make an exact copy of itself.

Mitosis in a process where a cell is devided, resulting in two identical daughter cells.

outline what happens to the proteins produced by free and bound ribosomes

Answers

Proteins produced by free ribosomes enter the cells cytosol, where they are rapidly subjected to post-translational modifications. These modifications include glycosylation, proteolytic cleavage and acetylation.

Whereas these proteins are responsible for the normal functioning of the cell, those produced by bound ribosomes are involved in a variety of functions. Bound ribosomes synthesize proteins associated with the endoplasmic reticulum, such as enzymes and structural proteins.

These proteins are subject to further modifications before being shipped out of the endoplasmic reticulum into other organelles such as the Golgi apparatus, lysosomes, and secretory vesicles.

From there the proteins are exported from the cell for use in the external environment, such as hormones, enzymes, and toxins. When the proteins are no longer need they are broken down by lysosomal enzymes and recycled for other uses.

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Many promoter regions contain CAAT boxes containing consensus sequences CAAT or CCAAT approximately 70 to 80 bases upstream from the transcription start site. How would you determine if this region is important for transcription?
a. Delete the CAAT box sequence and measure the transcription rate.
b. Make mutations in the CAAT box sequence and measure the transcription rate.
c. Introduce extra CAAT box sequences and measure the transcription rate.
d. All of the above would be good ways to determine the influence of CAAT boxes on transcription rate.

Answers

Option D is the correct answer to the following question. Your answer: d. All of the above would be good ways to determine the influence of CAAT boxes on transcription rate.

Option d. All of the above would-be good ways to determine the influence of CAAT boxes on transcription rate. Deleting the CAAT box sequence or making mutations in it can help determine if it is essential for transcription initiation, while introducing extra CAAT box sequences can help determine if they enhance transcription. By measuring the transcription rate after performing these manipulations, we can determine the influence of CAAT boxes on transcription.

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genetic information of plants, animals, bacteria and many viruses is stored in deoxyribonucleic acid polymers (dna). the backbone of the polymer is a made up of the phosphorylated carbohydrate ribose with one less oh group on it. based on what you know about amino acid properties and the charge of phosphates at physiological ph what amino acids would be best at binding dna? group of answer choices positively charged ones like k and r negatively charged ones like d and e uncharged polar ones like t and c nonpolar ones like a and g

Answers

Amino acids best at binding DNA are positively charged ones like k and r as DNA is negatively charged which will bind more effectively with positively charged amino acids.

Amino acids are natural compounds that contain both amino and carboxylic corrosive useful bunches.

Even though hundreds of amino acids exist in nature, by distance, the foremost critical are the alpha-amino acids, which include proteins. As it were 22 alpha amino acids show up within the hereditary code.

Lysine and arginine are essential amino acids since their side chain bunch contains a full positive charge at the physiological ph. Histidine is additionally considered essential, but it can have a positive or an impartial charge on its side chain gathered at the physiological ph.

Among the 20 common amino acids, five have a side chain that can be charged. At pH=7, two are negatively charged: aspartic corrosive (Asp, D) and glutamic corrosive, and three are positively charged: lysine, arginine, and histidine (His, H) (fundamental side chains).

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Magma Chambers:
What is magma?

Answers

a flowing long-trained ceremonial vestment with ermine or silk hood worn by cardinals, bishops, and a few other prelates.

Any help is appreciated.

"Energy inputs occur via __________ or ingesting food; this energy drives the flow of matter into and out of the cell. The energy is released by __________ and eventually cycles back into the ecosystem as __________."

A. photosynthesis; respiration; waste
B. photosynthesis; respiration; heat
C. respiration; photosynthesis; waste
D. respiration; photosynthesis; heat

Answers

Answer:

photosynthesis; respiration; heat

Explanation:

What is one environmental drawback of the fracking process of extracting natural gas. (not related to WATER use).

Answers

One environmental drawback of fraction is Air pollution due to the toxic chemicals used during fracking.

Fracking also increases greenhouse gases, and causes earthquakes.

Enzyme activity within metabolic pathways is regulated by
O food consumption
O activators and inhibitors
O oxidation
O neurons

Answers

The answer is oxidation

Answer:

activators and inhibitors

Explanation:

chimpanzees, bonobos, and gorillas have a part of the brain that is ____.

Answers

Chimpanzees, bonobos, and gorillas, like humans, have a part of the brain called the prefrontal cortex that is highly developed.

The prefrontal cortex is responsible for higher cognitive functions such as decision-making, problem-solving, self-control, and social behavior.This region plays a crucial role in complex thinking, planning, and the regulation of emotions.

The prefrontal cortex in these great apes is particularly well-developed, reflecting their advanced cognitive abilities. It enables them to exhibit sophisticated social behaviors, maintain complex social relationships, and engage in intricate problem-solving tasks.

This brain region allows them to navigate their social environments, exhibit empathy, and engage in cooperative behaviors.

The presence of a highly developed prefrontal cortex in chimpanzees, bonobos, and gorillas highlights their advanced cognitive capacities and their ability to adapt and thrive in their respective environments.

It emphasizes the evolutionary continuity and shared cognitive traits between humans and these great apes.

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why does the government of nepal encourage farmers to establish boigas plants?write two reasons

Answers

Answer: The government is expanding its efforts to encourage public institutions, municipalities and commercial sectors to convert biodegradable wastes into energy by constructing large-scale biogas plants.

The deepening energy crisis as a result of Indian blockade along the major trade borders has offered an opportunity to become energy-independent as well as to improve solid waste problem by generating electricity from it, officials said.

Alternative Energy Promotion Centre (AEPC), the government body responsible for promotion and development of renewable and alternative energy technologies, is joining hands with the security agencies to build over 500 large-scale biogas plants across the country, said Sushim Man Amatya, programme officer working on Large Biogas and Waste to Energy at the AEPC.

The agreement between the AEPC and the security agencies, including Nepal Army, Nepal Police and Armed Police Force, to build institutional biogas plants is expected to take place within this month.

How many atp equivalents are expended to convert 2 pyruvates to 1 glucose? a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8

Answers

4 ATP and 2 GTP equivalents are expended to convert 2 pyruvates to 1 glucose in gluconeogenesis.

The process through which glucose is produced from non-carbohydrate metabolites is known as gluconeogenesis. Pyruvate, lactate, a few gluconeogenic amino acids, and glycerol, which is mostly produced by fat metabolism, are the main gluconeogenic precursors. Four ATP, two GTP, and two NADH are required to produce each molecule of glucose from two pyruvate molecules. At a cost of 6 ATP molecules used in gluconeogenesis, glycolysis generates 2 ATP molecules.Pyruvate is converted back to glucose during gluconeogenesis by the following steps:

2 Pyruvate+ 4 ATP + 2 GTP + 2 NADH + 2 H > Glucose + 4 ADP + 2 GDP + 6 Pi + 2 NAD + (2)

Even though it includes many of the same processes as glycolysis,Must make use of a variety of "new" reactions to avoid hugeFavorable improvements in standard free energy

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Which of the following best describes how the amount of DNA in the cell changes during M phase?
a)The amount of DNA is halved as the cell divides into two daughter cells.
b)It produces four genetically identical gametes.
c)Shorter cell cycle
d)None of these

Answers

The amount of DNA in the cell remains constant. So, the correct option is D. The purpose of mitosis is to ensure that each daughter cell receives an identical copy of the genetic material present in the parent cell.

Prior to entering the M phase, the DNA in the cell is replicated during the S phase of the cell cycle, resulting in two identical copies of each chromosome.  These replicated chromosomes then separate during mitosis to ensure that each daughter cell receives a complete set of chromosomes, maintaining the same amount of DNA as the parent cell. The correct option is D.

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the head of the humerus fits into the ________ of the scapula.

Answers

The joint most people picture as the shoulder is the glenohumeral joint. A shallow cup-shaped socket (glenoid) in the scapula and a ball (head) at the top of the humerus fit together to form the joint, allowing for a large range of motion.

What is Shoulder Anatomy?Scapula, which is the shoulder blade, clavicle, and humerus are the three bones that make up the shoulder (upper arm bone). The acromioclavicular joint, where the highest point of the scapula (acromion) meets the clavicle, and the glenohumeral joint allow the shoulder to move.The smooth, elastic cartilage that covers the surfaces of the bones where the ball and socket meet allows the joint to move freely and absorbs trauma.The shallow shoulder socket necessitates a reliance on the soft tissues around it to support the joint and keep the parts secured. In order to construct a protective capsule that is lined with a thin membrane known as the synovium, many of these soft tissues surround the joint.For the purpose of lubricating and cushioning the joint, the synovium secretes a fluid called synovial fluid.The labrum, a fibrous ring of cartilage that surrounds the glenoid, or shoulder socket, creates a deeper socket for the ball to stabilize the joint. The rotator cuff is a network of muscles and tendons that covers the top of the humerus, or upper arm bone, to hold it in place and allow the arm to rotate. The deltoid, the shoulder's largest and strongest muscle, gives the arm the strength to lift.the forearm may rotate and the elbow can bend thanks to the biceps muscle, which is attached to the biceps tendon that originates at the top of the shoulder socket.

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A metapopulation is a regional assemblage of interacting, local
populations whose dynamics are influenced by what 2 processes?

Answers

A metapopulation is a regional assemblage of interacting, local populations whose dynamics are influenced by two processes, colonization and extinction. Colonization and extinction are the two processes that influence the dynamics of a metapopulation.

These processes are natural factors that affect the occurrence and disappearance of species in a given area, which is important in the regulation of population dynamics. When the number of colonized habitats exceeds the extinction rate, metapopulations persist. However, when the extinction rate exceeds the colonization rate, metapopulations can become extinct. The term metapopulation refers to the entire group of populations, rather than a single population in a given location.

Each population in a metapopulation can experience independent fluctuations in abundance due to environmental variation, stochasticity, and other factors. In addition, migration occurs between populations, which can help sustain the entire metapopulation.

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