What is the volume of this rectangular prism? 1cm,6cm,2cm

Answer:

I think it is b and d .

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Hello again! Both D and B are rectangles.

Step-by-step explanation:

You know that a rectangle has 4 sides like a quadrilateral but it is different. Both of the oppiosite sides are the same length. C would not be one because it is not connected therefore it is not a full shape. Because of  A´s even sides, A is not a rectangle. I hope this helps! :]

Sorry I messed up! :]

Chad used the scale of 1 scale inch which is equal to 9 feet.

In the conventional system of measuring, an inch is a unit of length. Either in or " can be used to denote length in inches. For instance, 16 in or 16" can be used to write 5 inches.

Given that,

The length of the gym in real life = 81 feet

The length of the gym in scale drawing = 9 inches

1 scale inch = length of the gym in real life/length of the gym in the scale drawing

1 scale inch = 81/9 = 9

Thus, Chad used the scale of 1 scale inch which is equal to 9 feet.

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The correct option is B• "The LP has multiple optimal solutions". Because  feasible region, intersects with the objective function in multiple points.

The given linear programming (LP) problem consists of two constraints and two decision variables, x1 and x2. The objective function to be minimized is x1 + 2x2.

To determine the nature of the LP problem, we need to analyze its feasible region and objective function.

The first constraint, x1 + x2 ≤ 4, defines a region in the xy-plane that lies below the line x1 + x2 = 4. The second constraint, x1 - x2 ≥ 5, defines a region that lies to the right of the line x1 - x2 = 5. The feasible region is the intersection of these two regions.

By analyzing the feasible region, we can determine the potential optimal solutions. Since the feasible region is a bounded region, there are finite points within it. The objective function, x1 + 2x2, represents a straight line in the xy-plane with a positive slope. As long as this line intersects the feasible region, there will be multiple points of intersection, each representing a potential optimal solution.

Therefore, the LP problem has multiple optimal solutions because there are multiple points of intersection between the objective function and the feasible region.

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1. It is easy to visually distinguish between hot glass and cold glass.

2. Hot plates are hot when turned on.

3. Hot plates can melt and burn plastic and paper.

When glass is heated, it undergoes thermal expansion, causing visible changes such as glowing or a change in color. These changes make it relatively easy to visually distinguish between hot and cold glass.

Hot plates generate heat and become hot when turned on. They are designed to reach and maintain high temperatures for cooking or heating purposes.

Hot plates can reach high temperatures that are capable of melting or burning plastic and paper.

It is important to exercise caution and avoid placing these materials directly on a hot plate to prevent accidents or damage.

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Answer:

3.4h

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

C      3.4 hours

Step-by-step explanation:

Explanation:

The angles marked with a single arc pair up and are congruent (angles ACB and DFE). This forms one "A" of "ASA". The other "A" refers to the angles BAC and EDF as shown by the double arcs.

The "S" refers to the pair of congruent sides between the angles mentioned. Specifically, the diagram shows that AC = FD based on the tickmarks on those segments.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

let the number=y

60%x y=120

or

60/100 x y= 120

simplify

3/5x y=120

transpose

y=120x3/5

y=360/5

y=72

the number is 72

82% of 72=59.04

Answer:

Each student club must contribute $ 33.33 in order to meet the fundraising goal.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that a school fundraiser has a minimum target of $ 500. Faculty have donated $ 100 and there are 12 student clubs that are participating with different activities, to determine how much money should each club raise to meet the fundraising goal, the following calculation must be performed:

(500 - 100) / 12 = X

400/12 = X

33,333 = X

Thus, each student club must contribute $ 33.33 in order to meet the fundraising goal.

The probability that it will rain both days is \(\frac{1}{4}\).

According to the question

Mr. and mrs. smith plan to roof the cabin on 2 consecutive days.

Assuming that the chance of rain is independent of the day

Probability is the chance that some event will happen.

It is the ratio of the number of ways a certain event can occur to the number of possible outcomes.

Probability = Number of ways it can occur/Total number of outcomes

Probability of rain on first day = 1/2

Probability of rain on second day = 1/2

Then

Probability of rain on both days = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × \(\frac{1}{2}\) = 1/4

Hence,

The probability that it will rain both days is \(\frac{1}{4}\).

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Answer:

fraction- 9 37/100     decimal-.0937

Step-by-step explanation:

The absolute value of the price elasticity of demand for chicken breast is and the price elasticity of demand is 4.25 elastic. Thus, option b is correct.

We are given that the price of chicken breast rises from $3.30 to $3.63 per pound, which is a 20% increase:

Price elasticity = percent change in quantity/percent change in price

percent change in price = (3.63 - 3.30) / 3.30

percent change in price =  0.09 = 9%

We are also given that the demand for chicken breast falls by 40%, which is a 40% decrease:

percent change in quantity demanded = -40%

Using these values in the formula, we get:

Price elasticity of demand = (-40%) / (9%)

Price elasticity of demand = -9 %

Since we are interested in the absolute value of the price elasticity of demand, we have:

|Price elasticity of demand| = |-4.25| = 4.25

A price elasticity of demand greater than 1 is considered elastic, and a price elasticity of demand less than 1 is considered inelastic.

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Answer:

3^14

Step-by-step explanation:

Multiplication of two values with same base and different exponent:

When we are multiplicating two values with the same base and different exponents, we keep the base and add the exponents. For example:

In this question:

w ≤ 250

This inequality can be used to represent the maximum weight that a stepladder can hold, which is 250 pounds. In other words, the weight, w, must be less than or equal to 250 pounds.

The weight, w, must be less than or equal to 250 pounds. This inequality can be used to represent the maximum weight that a stepladder can hold, which is 250 pounds. In other words, if the weight of the object being placed on the stepladder is greater than 250 pounds, it is not safe to use the stepladder. This inequality helps to ensure the safety of the person using the stepladder, as it limits the amount of weight that can be placed upon it. Furthermore, it also helps to protect the stepladder itself, as it prevents it from being overloaded with too much weight, which could cause it to break or malfunction. In conclusion, the inequality w ≤ 250 represents the maximum weight that a stepladder can safely hold.

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Answer:

0.002

-0.005

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:-27

Step-by-step explanation:

-3 x -3 = 9

9 x -3 =27

The given argument is invalid. It says that if one person has more gray hair in their beard than another person, then they have a higher percentage of gray hair in their beard.

The argument is invalid because it is possible for one person to have a higher percentage of gray hair in their beard but a lower number of gray hairs in total.One possible counterexample by model is:Suppose Plato has 200 hairs in his beard and 50 of them are gray. So, 1/4 of his hairs are gray. Now, let's suppose Aristotle has 400 hairs in his beard, and 300 of them are gray. So, 3/4 of his hairs are gray. Even though Plato has fewer gray hairs than Aristotle, his percentage of gray hairs is more significant (1/4) than Aristotle's (3/4).

Therefore, the given argument is invalid since Aristotle's beard contains more gray hairs in quantity, but Plato has a higher percentage of gray hair in his beard.

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Answer:60$ spend

Source:trust me bro

Using the Well-Ordering Principle (WOP), it can be proven that in every tournament with n players (where n is a natural number), there is at least one top player, defined as someone who either beats every other player or beats someone who beats the other player.

We will prove this statement by contradiction. Assume that there exists a tournament with n players where there is no top player. This means that for each player, there exists either another player who beats them or a chain of players such that each player beats the next one. Now, consider the set S of all players in this tournament. Since S is a non-empty set of natural numbers, it has a least element, let's say k.

Now, player k either beats every other player in the tournament, making them a top player, or there exists a player, let's say player m, who beats player k. In the latter case, we have a chain of players: k, m, p_1, p_2, ..., p_t, where p_1 beats p_2, p_2 beats p_3, and so on until p_t.

However, this contradicts the assumption that there is no top player, as either player k beats every other player (if m does not exist), or player m beats someone who beats the other player (if m exists). Hence, by contradiction, we have shown that in every tournament with n players, there is at least one top player.

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A chi-square test of independence is indeed a one-tailed test. The reason for this is that we are testing whether the observed frequencies of two categorical variables are significantly different from the expected frequencies.

We square the deviations between the observed and expected frequencies, and since deviations can only be positive, the test statistic always lies at or above zero. Hypothesis tests are one-tailed when dealing with sample data because we have a specific direction for our research question. In the case of a chi-square test of independence, we are interested in whether one variable is dependent on the other variable, so we have a directional hypothesis. Furthermore, the chi-square distribution is positively skewed, meaning that the majority of the distribution is on the right-hand side. This is important to consider when interpreting the results of a chi-square test.

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Answer:

B. 4/5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

b) 4/5

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 5 marks between 0 and 1.

So it would be 4/5 or 0.8

Hope this helps!

Answer:

Yes, the data provides convincing evidence that men and women have different average BF%s

Step-by-step explanation:

The given parameters are;

The number of the subjects ages 20 to 80 = 13,601

The body fat percentage, BF%, for the 6,580 men, \(\overline x_1\) = 23.9

The body fat percentage, BF%, for the 7,021 women, \(\overline x_2\) = 35.0

The standard error for the difference between the average men and women = 0.144

The null hypothesis, H₀; \(\overline x_1\) = \(\overline x_2\)

The alternative hypothesis, Hₐ; \(\overline x_1\) ≠ \(\overline x_2\)

The test statistic = (35.0 - 23.9)/(0.114) = 97.368

Therefore, given that the z-test is larger than the critical-z, we reject the null hypothesis, H₀, therefore, there is convincing statistical evidence to suggest that men and women have different body average BF%

The expected return for Umbrella Company is .40.

Expected Return for Umbrella Company is calculated by the following formula;`ER = p1r1 + p2r2`

Where `ER` is the expected return, `p` is the probability and `r` is the return for each state.

Therefore, the expected return for Umbrella Company can be calculated as follows:

\($$ER = (.60 \times .20) + (.40 \times .70)$$$$

ER = .12 + .28$$$$

ER = .40$$\)

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Answer:

2.5t 7.3=18.25

Step-by-step explanation:

250/100,please mark as brilliant

Answer:

y= 2x

Step-by-step explanation:

(0,0) and (2, 4)

m= (y2-y1)/ (x2-x1)

m= (4-0)/(2-0)

m= 4/2

m=2

y- y1= m(x -x1)

y - 4= 2(x - 2)

y-4= 2x - 4

y= 2x

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

y=mx+b where m is the slope and b is the y intercept. Since there is point (0,0) we know that b=0 so we only need to find m

m=(y2-y1)/(x2-x1)

m=(4-0)/(2-0)=4/2=2 so the line is

y=2x

The gold was stacked neatly in a shape of a cube, measuring about 1 meter on a side.  one cubic meter of gold weight approximately 19.32 tons.

To calculate the weight of one cubic meter of gold in tons, follow these steps:
1. Determine the density of gold: The density of gold is approximately 19,320 kilograms per cubic meter (kg/m³).
2. Calculate the weight of one cubic meter of gold: Since the gold is stacked neatly in a shape of a cube measuring about 1 meter on each side, its volume is 1 cubic meter (1m x 1m x 1m). To find the weight, multiply the volume by the density of gold:
Weight = Volume x Density
Weight = 1 m³ x 19,320 kg/m³
Weight = 19,320 kg
3. Convert the weight to tons: There are 1,000 kg in a metric ton, so divide the weight in kilograms by 1,000 to convert it to tons:
Weight in tons = Weight in kg / 1,000
Weight in tons = 19,320 kg / 1,000
Weight in tons = 19.32 tons
So, one cubic meter of gold weighs approximately 19.32 tons.

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We can change the number of shapes on it by putting one rectangle to the right and put two triangles to the left.

A quadrilateral with parallel sides that are equal to one another and four equal vertices is known as a rectangle. It is also known as an equiangular quadrilateral for this reason. Rectangles can also be referred to as parallelograms because their opposite sides are equal and parallel.

A triangle is a polygon with three vertices and three sides. The angles of the triangle are formed by the connection of the three sides end to end at a point. The triangle's three angles add up to 180 degrees in total.

Let's say the circle is A, Triangle is B, and Rectangle is C.

2A + 4C = 2A + 4B + 2C

So, C = 2B    ( 4C = 4B + 2C, 2C = 4B, C = 2B)

That one rectangle and two triangles are equally weighed. So, put one rectangle to the right and put two triangles to the left. The hanger is still in the balance.

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The GCD of 2⁸ * 3⁹ * 5⁹ and 2⁴ * 3⁴ * 5⁴ is 810,000.

To find the GCD of 2⁸ * 3⁹ * 5⁹ and 2⁴ * 3⁴ * 5⁴, we will examine the prime factors of both numbers individually and compare their powers.

Prime factorization of the first number, 2⁸ * 3⁹ * 5⁹:

2⁸ = 2 * 2 * 2 * 2 * 2 * 2 * 2 * 2 = 256

3⁹ = 3 * 3 * 3 * 3 * 3 * 3 * 3 * 3 * 3 = 19683

5⁹ = 5 * 5 * 5 * 5 * 5 * 5 * 5 * 5 * 5 = 1953125

Prime factorization of the second number, 2⁴ * 3⁴ * 5⁴:

2⁴ = 2 * 2 * 2 * 2 = 16

3⁴ = 3 * 3 * 3 * 3 = 81

5⁴ = 5 * 5 * 5 * 5 = 625

Now, let's compare the powers of the common prime factors in both numbers:

The common prime factor 2 appears with a higher power in the first number (2⁸) than in the second number (2⁴). Therefore, the highest power of 2 that divides both numbers is 2⁴ = 16.

The common prime factor 3 appears with a higher power in the first number (3⁹) than in the second number (3⁴). Therefore, the highest power of 3 that divides both numbers is 3⁴ = 81.

The common prime factor 5 appears with a higher power in the first number (5⁹) than in the second number (5⁴). Therefore, the highest power of 5 that divides both numbers is 5⁴ = 625.

To find the GCD, we multiply the common prime factors with the lowest powers:

GCD = 2⁴ * 3⁴ * 5⁴ = 16 * 81 * 625 = 810,000.

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In rounding a number to nearest multiple of 10, look at the digit to the right of the number to be rounded:

402053 rounded to the nearest thousand

　　　　‎‎\( \tt 3 \: - Ones \\ \tt 5 \: - Tens \\ \tt 0 \: - Hundreds \\ \tt 2\: - Thousands \\ \tt 0 \: - Ten \: Thousands \\ \tt 4 \: - Hundred \: Thousands\)

Since, 2 is on hundreds place look at the right digit to be rounded. So, 0 si on right digit let's round off from 2 let's keep it 2 then replace the other digits of zero.

Therefore, 402053 is now 402000

When rounded to the nearest thousand, the number 402053 becomes 400000.

Rounding a number to the nearest thousand means finding the closest multiple of 1000 to the given number. Let's work with the number 402053 and round it to the nearest thousand.

First, let's look at the digit in the thousands place, which is the digit in the "hundreds of thousands" position. In 402053, this digit is 4.

Next, look at the digit immediately to the right of the thousands place, which is the hundreds place. In 402053, this digit is 0.

Since the hundreds place is 0, we don't need to round up. So, the nearest thousand to 402053 is simply 400000.

Therefore, when rounded to the nearest thousand, the number 402053 becomes 400000.

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