What's more 10/4 miles or 5/2 miles

\(\\ \sf\longmapsto \dfrac{dy}{dt}\)

\(\\ \sf\longmapsto \dfrac{d}{dt}(3x+5)^3\)

\(\\ \sf\longmapsto \{3(3x+5)\}^2\)

\(\\ \sf\longmapsto (9x+15)^2\)

\(\\ \sf\longmapsto 9x^2+2(9x)(15)+(15)^2\)

\(\\ \sf\longmapsto 81x^2+270x+225\)

Step-by-step explanation:

\(y=(3x+5)^3\\\\\dfrac{dy}{dx}=\dfrac{d}{dx}(3x+5)^3\\\\\dfrac{dy}{dx}=3(3x+5)^2×\dfrac{d}{dx}(3x+5)\\\\\dfrac{dy}{dx}=3(3x+5)^2×\dfrac{d}{dx}3x+\dfrac{d}{dx}5\\\\\dfrac{dy}{dx}=3(3x+5)^2×3+0\\\\\dfrac{dy}{dx}=9(3x+5)^2\\\\\dfrac{dy}{dx}=9(9x^2+25+30x)\\\\\dfrac{dy}{dx}=81x^2+270x+225\)

Answer:

1/5525

Step-by-step explanation:

We now that a standard deck has 52 different cards. Also we know that a standard deck has four different suits, i.e., Spades, Hearts, Diamonds and Clubs.  We can find the following cards for each suit: Ace, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, Jack, Queen and King.

Now, the probability of getting any of these cards off the top of a standard deck of well-shuffled cards is 1/52. As we have 4 different sixes, we have that the probability of getting a six is 4/52. When we get a six, in the deck only remains 3 sixes and 51 cards, so, the probability of getting another six later is 3/51. When we get the second six, in the deck only remains 2 sixes and 50 cards, so, the probability of getting the third six is 2/50. As we have independet events, we should have that the probability of getting 3 sixes off the top of a standard deck of well-shuffled cards is

(4/52)(3/51)(2/50)=

24/132600=

12/66300=

6/33150=

3/16575=

1/5525

The required probability is 1/5525.

Probability denotes the possibility of the outcome of any random event. The meaning of this term is to check the extent to which any event is likely to happen.

We now that a standard deck has 52 different cards.

Also we know that a standard deck has four different suits, i.e., Spades, Hearts, Diamonds and Clubs.  

We can find the following cards for each suit: Ace, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, Jack, Queen and King.

Now, the probability of getting any of these cards off the top of a standard deck of well-shuffled cards is 1/52.

As we have 4 different sixes, we have that the probability of getting a six is 4/52.

When we get a six, in the deck only remains 3 sixes and 51 cards, so, the probability of getting another six later is 3/51.

When we get the second six, in the deck only remains 2 sixes and 50 cards, so, the probability of getting the third six is 2/50.

As we have independent events, we should have that the probability of getting 3 sixes off the top of a standard deck of well-shuffled cards is

= (4/52)(3/51)(2/50)

= 24/132600

= 12/66300

= 6/33150

= 3/16575

= 1/5525

Hence the required probability is 1/5525.

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We conclude that after 7/4 years the value of the jet ski is $4,784

The value of the jet ski is given by the exponential equation:

f(t) = 8,500*(0.72)^t

Where t is the time in years, to get the value of the jet ski after 7/4 years, we just need to evaluate the above function in t = 7/4, where evaluating means that we need to replace the variable t by the given number, then we will get:

f(7/4) = 8,500*(0.72)^(7/4) = 4,783.55

If now we need to round it to the nearest dollar, then we round upwards to 4,784

In this way, we conclude that after 7/4 years the value of the jet ski is $4,784

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Answer:

We aren't going to do all your homework for you. That's why no one is answering. If you have one specific question, I can help. No one is going to do this whole assignment/homework.

Answer: C

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

84.9

Step-by-step explanation:

SA: 4×pi×r^2

the radius is the line (2.6cm)

Answer:

\((-2,16,2)=2(0,3,4)+3(0,0,-2)-2(1,-5,0)\)

Step-by-step explanation:

We verify this linear combination indeed gives \((-2,16,2)\).

\(2(0,3,4)+3(0,0,-2)-2(1,-5,0)=(0,6,8)+(0,0,-6)+(-2,10,0)=(-2,16,2)\)

Answer:yes

Step-by-step explanation:

As the Amount is unknown Hence X = Any amount Unless the water amount is given the instructions is yes as she added 120ML Of juice into water which is currently X

Answer:

36 green marbles

Step-by-step explanation:

If 60% of the 60 marbles in the bag are green, then the number of green marbles can be calculated as:

Green marbles = 60% x 60 marbles

To simplify this calculation, we can convert 60% to a decimal by dividing by 100:

Green marbles = 0.60 x 60 marbles

Green marbles = 36 marbles

Therefore, Rudy received 36 green marbles.

Answer: 36

Step-by-step explanation:

60 is 6/10 of 100 so if you are taking a percent of 60 just multiply the percentage by 6/10. 6/10 of 60 is 36

Step-by-step explanation:

x = 36

y = 48

z = 72

hope it helps

Answer:

Hello!

answer x = 46

z = 24

y = 14

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Exchange rates are the rates at which one currency can be exchanged for another currency. They represent the value of one currency relative to another currency.

Answer:

57 centimeters = 57 × 0.39370078740175 = 22.4409448819 inches.

57 inches is 144.78 centimeters.

The Volume of each bead is approximately 1.767 mm^3 when rounded to the nearest tenth.

The volume of each bead, the volume of a sphere using its diameter. The formula for the volume of a sphere is given by:

V = (4/3) * π * r^3

where V is the volume and r is the radius of the sphere.

Given that the diameter of each bead is 1.5 millimeters, we can calculate the radius as half of the diameter:

r = 1.5 mm / 2 = 0.75 mm

Now, we can substitute the value of the radius into the volume formula:

V = (4/3) * π * (0.75 mm)^3

Using the value of π ≈ 3.14 and performing the calculations:

V ≈ (4/3) * 3.14 * (0.75 mm)^3

V ≈ (4/3) * 3.14 * 0.421875 mm^3

V ≈ 1.767 mm^3 (rounded to the nearest tenth)

the volume of each bead is approximately 1.767 mm^3 when rounded to the nearest tenth.

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Answer:

15cm and 45cm

Step-by-step explanation:

If one part is one third of the other, then the long one is three times as long as the short one.

If the short one has length x

x + 3x = 60cm

4x = 60cm

x = 15cm

So short one is 15cm and the long one is 3*15cm = 45cm

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  1/2 mL/min

Step-by-step explanation:

  \(\dfrac{2\text{ mg}}{\text{min}}\div\left(\dfrac{2\text{ g}}{500\text{ mL}}\times\dfrac{1000\text{ mg}}{\text{g}}\right)=\dfrac{2\times500\text{ mL}}{2\times1000\text{ min}}=\boxed{\dfrac{1}{2}\text{ mL/min}}\)

__

Additional comment

The units analysis tells you how to work this problem. In order to get from mg/min to mL/min, you need to multiply by a factor with units mL/mg. Those units are the inverse of the concentration in mg/mL, which is found from g/mL.

Answer:

1.5 feet

Step-by-step explanation:

1 feet = 12 inches

18 inches --> x feet

18/12 = 1.5 feet

Answer:

1.5 feet

Step-by-step explanation:

12 inches in 1 foot 12/18= 1.6 So 1 foot and 6 inches or 1.5 feet

Answer:

pi

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 8 to take Lara and Hayden to volunteer the same number.

Mathematical expression is defined as the collection of the numbers variables and functions by using operations like addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division.

Given that;

Lara already volunteered 50 hours and will volunteer 5 hours more each week.

And, Hayden already volunteered to 10 hours and will volunteer 10 hours each week .

Now, For Lara;

⇒ 50 + 5x

And, For Hayden;

⇒ 10 + 10x

So, For same number of volunteer is,

⇒ 50 + 5x = 10 + 10x

⇒ 50 - 10 = 10x - 5x

⇒ 40 = 5x

⇒ x = 40/5

⇒ x = 8

Thus, There are 8 to take Lara and Hayden to volunteer the same number.

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Step-by-step explanation:

Given: Radius , r =21 cm

The angle at the center of the circle, n° =140°

Length of an arc =?

W.K.T Formula, Length of an arc = 2πr( n°÷360°) units

= 2*(22/7)*21*(140°/360°)

= 154/3

= 51.33cm

Answer:

2*(22/7)*21*(140°/360°)

= 154/3

= 51.33cm

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

38

Step-by-step explanation:

28-9=19

19x2=38

Answer:

an equation

Step-by-step explanation:

this is because there is an unknown value (some number)

Answer:

The answer is A.

Step-by-step explanation:

For this graph, you are using the linear equation formula: y = mx + b

Answer:

43.6 has 3 significant figures.

Answer:

2 kilometers

Step-by-step explanation:

every 1 kilometer is a 1/2 hour. double that and you get 2

Answer:11

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

See explanation below.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given transformed function:

\(y=-2 \sin \left[2(x-45^{\circ})\right]+1\)

The parent function of the given function is:  y = sin(x)

The five key points for graphing the parent function are:

(See attachment 1)

Standard form of a sine function:

\(\text{f}(x)=\text{A} \sin\left[\text{B}(x+\text{C})\right]+\text{D}\)

where:

Therefore, for the given transformed function:

\(y=-2 \sin \left[2(x-45^{\circ})\right]+1\)

See attachment 2.