when babies head appears out of vaginal canal check for

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Answer 1

When a baby's head appears out of the vaginal canal, it is important to check for a few things to ensure the safety of both the baby and the mother.

Firstly, the baby's position should be confirmed to ensure that it is in the correct position for delivery. The healthcare provider should check for the presence of the umbilical cord around the baby's neck, as this can cause complications during delivery. The healthcare provider should also check for any signs of distress in the baby, such as meconium staining or a slow heart rate.

Once the baby's head is out, the healthcare provider should wait for the next contraction to deliver the rest of the baby's body. This allows for the baby to be delivered smoothly and without unnecessary force. Once the baby is fully delivered, the healthcare provider should assess the baby's overall condition, including their breathing, heart rate, and muscle tone.

In summary, when a baby's head appears out of the vaginal canal during delivery, it is important to check for the baby's position, the presence of the umbilical cord, signs of distress, and to deliver the rest of the body smoothly. This ensures the safety of both the baby and the mother.

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Related Questions

Kevin is 11 years old with no chronic medical conditions who comes to your pharmacy on September 30 for his flu shot. He completed the primary series of DTaP, IPV, hepatitis A, hepatitis B, and Hib, and had a physician-diagnosed case of chickenpox at 2 years of age. Which of the following would also be appropriate to recommend for Kevin today?
Tdap, HPV, MenACWY, MMR

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Kevin is 11 years old and has already completed the series of DTaP, IPV, hepatitis A, hepatitis B, and Hib vaccine and has had chicken pox at the age of 2. The vaccines which will be now recommended to him are Tdap, HPV, MenACWY and MMR.

The correct option is option a,

Tdap vaccine basically can prevent against tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis. Tetanus results in painful stiffening of the muscles in the body. Diphtheria leads to heart failure, difficulty in breathing, and even paralysis, or sometimes death. Pertussis is also known as the whooping cough.

Human papillomavirus vaccines are the vaccines which prevent infection by some particular types of the human papillomavirus. The MenACWY vaccine is basically given through a single injection in the upper arm and basically protects against four different strains of meningococcal bacteria The MMR vaccine is a vaccine which is given against measles, mumps, and rubella, abbreviated as MMR.

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--The given question is incomplete, the complete question is

"Kevin is 11 years old with no chronic medical conditions who comes to your pharmacy on September 30 for his flu shot. He completed the primary series of DTaP, IPV, hepatitis A, hepatitis B, and Hib, and had a physician-diagnosed case of chickenpox at 2 years of age. Which of the following would also be appropriate to recommend for Kevin today?

a. Tdap, HPV, MenACWY, MMR

b. DTaP, HPV, PCV13, MMR

c. Tdap, HPV, MenACWY, PCV13

d. HPV, MenACWY, PCV13, MMR"--


A patient is prescribed Keflex 0.5 g by mouth twice a day for 7 days. How many capsules should be
provided for the entire week if each table contains 500 mg/capsule?

Answers

Answer:

Keflex 0.5 g is equivalent to 500 mg. The patient is prescribed 500 mg twice a day for 7 days, which is a total of 14 doses. Since each capsule contains 500 mg, the patient will need 14 capsules for the entire week.

Answer:

To determine the number of capsules needed for the entire week, we need to calculate the total dosage required and divide it by the dosage strength per capsule.

The patient is prescribed Keflex 0.5 g (or 500 mg) by mouth twice a day for 7 days. Therefore, the total dosage required for the week is:

Total dosage = Dosage per dose × Number of doses per day × Number of days

Total dosage = 0.5 g × 2 × 7 = 7 g

Since each capsule contains 500 mg (0.5 g), we can calculate the number of capsules needed by dividing the total dosage by the dosage strength per capsule:

Number of capsules = Total dosage / Dosage per capsule

Number of capsules = 7 g / 0.5 g = 14 capsules

Therefore, for the entire week, 14 capsules should be provided.

Explain the positive and negative aspects of the living arrangements for the elderly listed below. Be sure to thoroughly evaluate each option. Living in own home Living with their children Assisted living facility Nursing home with intermediate care Nursing home with skilled nursing care and make recommendations for healthy and disabled elderly

Answers

Answer:

See explanation below

Explanation:

Living arrangements for the elderly refers to the composition and organization of the living environment of elderly people.

There are various kinds of living arrangements available for the elderly and they are:

1.) Living in own home: This is a preferred option for most elderly people. It involves them living in their own homes with occasional assistance. The positive side to this is that they maintain and enjoy the comfort of their homes and also the sense of independence that comes with it. The negative aspect is the cost of having a paid caregiver and the constant support from family and friend. Living in own homes can also have mental effects on them - they may lonely and start overthinking.

2.) Living with Children: Elderly ones that have good relationships with their children are advised to live with them. It is a very good economic decision because the cost of having and maintaining a different house and catering for a cared giver will be eliminated. There is also the advantage of companionship and reduced stress because family is around to help. The negative side to this is the tightness of the house for families with small houses.

3.) Assisted Living Facility: This is a facility that offers personal care services to the elderly such as: transportation, meals, bathing and dressing. It is like a community with active adults who need personal care services. The positive side to this is the feeling of having a community, the daily activities that keep them occupied. The major negative side is the cost of living in an assisted living facility. Another is the loss of flexibility and privacy.

4.) Nursing Home with Intermediate Care: This is very similar to the Nursing Home with skilled nursing cares. It is usually regarded as a lower level skilled nursing care facility. The difference is that residents of an intermediate care facility require less assistance with their daily lives. 8 hourly supervision is enough for a day. The advantages and disadvantages are also the same with the skilled nursing care facility.

5.) Nursing Home with Skilled Nursing Care: This is a facility licensed to offer personal as well as medical services. They are usually a 24-hour care facility with nurses and licensed medical professionals around. The downside to this kind of facility is the unsatisfaction because the facility may be understaffed and there may be so many people that need to be attended to. And also the cost of both personal and medical services.

RECOMMENDATIONS

There are things to consider in choosing a living arrangement for elderly ones. They include: financial budget, medical. physical and emotional needs. It is also important to speak with a doctor first.

Healthy Elders are healthy and have no issues and can live in their own homes may opt to hire caregivers if they want

Disabled Elders should register in assisted living facilities where they have access to enough personal care services.

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THIS TOOK ME ONE HECK OF AN HOUR

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Which of the following is an appropriate guideline for maintaining safety when using sharps

Answers

Answer:

Keep the object pointed away from yourself and other people at all times

The nurse is assessing a patient. Which assessment would cue the nurse to the potential of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?
a. Increased oxygen saturation via pulse oximetry
b. Increased peak inspiratory pressure on the ventilator
c. Normal chest radiograph with enlarged cardiac structures
d. PaO2/FiO2 ratio > 300

Answers

The correct answer is option b, increased peak inspiratory pressure on the ventilator.



Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a severe lung condition that can result from a variety of underlying medical conditions, such as pneumonia, sepsis, or trauma. ARDS is characterized by the sudden onset of severe respiratory distress, which can lead to significant hypoxemia and respiratory failure.

One of the hallmarks of ARDS is increased airway resistance, which can manifest as an increase in peak inspiratory pressure (PIP) on the ventilator. As the lungs become more difficult to ventilate, the PIP required to deliver a tidal volume of air may increase, which can be a sign of impending respiratory failure in patients with ARDS.

While the other options may provide some information about the patient's respiratory status, they are not specific to ARDS. Increased oxygen saturation via pulse oximetry (option a) may indicate improved oxygenation, but it does not provide information about the underlying cause of the respiratory distress. A normal chest radiograph with enlarged cardiac structures (option c) may suggest heart failure or other cardiac problems, but it does not provide information about the lungs or airways. A PaO2/FiO2 ratio > 300 (option d) is generally considered a good indicator of adequate oxygenation, but it is not specific to ARDS and may not be a reliable indicator of disease severity.

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1255 - your patient is allergic to bee stings. she suddenly began having watery eyes and itching in her arms. she does not remember being stung. vital signs: bp 130/80, p 110, r 16. you should

Answers

In this situation, since patient is experiencing watery eyes and itching in her arms, which could be symptoms of an allergic reaction, you should monitor her closely for any worsening symptoms.

Keep track of her vital signs, which are currently: BP 130/80, P 110, and R 16. If her condition deteriorates or she shows signs of a severe allergic reaction, such as difficulty breathing, call for medical assistance immediately. Additionally, it may be helpful to ask her if she has any prescribed allergy medications, like an EpiPen, and assist her in using it if necessary.

The blood pressure of 130/80, pulse rate of 110 beats per minute, and respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute fall within the normal range, indicating stable vital signs. However, it's important to note that vital signs alone do not provide a complete picture of the patient's condition.

Considering the patient's allergy history and the emergence of allergic symptoms, it is advisable to take the following steps:

Assess the patient's airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs): Ensure that the patient's airway is open and that breathing and circulation are not compromised. If the patient shows signs of respiratory distress or if there is any indication of worsening symptoms, immediate medical intervention may be required.

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what vitamin do you give measels patietns

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Vitamin A is given to measles patients to help reduce the risk of complications and improve outcomes.

Measles is a highly contagious viral infection that can cause serious complications, especially in individuals with weakened immune systems or malnutrition. Vitamin A is essential for maintaining a healthy immune system and for promoting normal growth and development. Studies have shown that supplementing with vitamin A can help reduce the risk of severe complications and mortality in individuals with measles, especially in children. Vitamin A supplementation has been shown to reduce the incidence of pneumonia and other respiratory infections, which are common complications of measles. It is typically administered in the form of a high-dose oral capsule, and the dosage depends on the age and weight of the patient. Therefore, vitamin A supplementation is an important part of the management of measles and can help improve outcomes in affected individuals.

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Mr. Ziegler is turning 65 next month and has asked you what he can do, and when he must do it, with respect to enrolling in Part D. What could you tell him?

Answers

Answer:

The answer is below

Explanation:

Considering his age and situations, I will let Mr. Ziegler know that, he is at the moment in the Part D Initial Enrollment Period (IEP) already. And at this point in time, he has the option of picking between different Part D enrollment choices available at his disposal, including enrollment in a stand-alone Part D plan or a Medicare Advantage -Prescription Drug plan.

14 Bross ID, Gibson R. Risks of lung cancer in smokers who switch to filter cigarettes. Am J Public Health Nations Health 1968;58:1396-403.

Answers

14 Bross ID, Gibson R. Risks of lung cancer in smokers who switch to filter cigarettes. Am J Public Health Nations Health 1968;58:1396-403.

Contemporary efforts to reduce the risks of smoking are a good example of the challenges our technological societies have in successfully addressing the negative impacts of technical products. The evidence has been clear for more than 12 years that smoking is one of the biggest public health issues of our day. There are numerous technology tools available for reducing the risks associated with smoking. Filter tips are one technological method for lowering the amount of tar and nicotine in the smoke. But ongoing debates about whether any of these strategies actually minimize the threats to humans have slowed down development in this and other areas.

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the beneficial consequence of a person's expecting that a treatment will be therapeutic is known as__. fill in the blank

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The beneficial consequence of a person's expecting that a treatment will be therapeutic is known as a placebo effect. The placebo effect is the desirable physiological and psychological consequences that result from taking placebos.

The placebo effect is a beneficial response to a therapeutic treatment that is not caused by the treatment's properties. The human body has its self-healing capacity, and the placebo effect demonstrates that fact. Placebo is frequently used in medicine to evaluate the efficacy of a new drug against a fake one. They're frequently given to people who are involved in a clinical study to compare the outcomes to those of the actual drug.The placebo effect, on the other hand, is a double-edged sword. Although it may be beneficial in some situations, it may also cause significant harm. A patient's hope and expectations may be dashed if a treatment is ineffective, which may exacerbate their ailment. Furthermore, the placebo effect may not provide long-term therapeutic advantages.

The use of placebos in clinical trials necessitates ethical considerations. Doctors must inform patients that they may be receiving a placebo so that they can make an informed decision about participating in the study. In any event, the key point is that the placebo effect, although not always effective, should not be ignored as it may be helpful. The beneficial consequence of a person's expecting that a treatment will be therapeutic is known as a placebo effect. The placebo effect is the desirable physiological and psychological consequences that result from taking placebos. The placebo effect is a beneficial response to a therapeutic treatment that is not caused by the treatment's properties. The human body has its self-healing capacity, and the placebo effect demonstrates that fact.

The beneficial consequence of a person's expecting that a treatment will be therapeutic is known as a placebo effect. The placebo effect is the desirable physiological and psychological consequences that result from taking placebos. Even though it may be beneficial in some situations, the placebo effect may also cause significant harm. Furthermore, the placebo effect may not provide long-term therapeutic advantages.

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Explain the glycemic index and how it impacts the digestion of carbs within the body. Include information regarding different types of sugar and breakdown of carbs for energy and the role of fiber 

Answers

The glycemic index (GI) is a measure of how quickly carbohydrates in food are digested and absorbed into the bloodstream, causing a rise in blood sugar levels. Foods with a high GI value (such as white bread, potatoes, and sugary drinks) are quickly broken down and cause a rapid increase in blood sugar levels, while foods with a low GI value (such as whole grain bread, vegetables, and legumes) are digested more slowly and cause a slower, more gradual rise in blood sugar levels.

When we eat carbohydrates, they are broken down into glucose (a type of sugar) in the digestive system, which is then absorbed into the bloodstream and used by the body for energy. The hormone insulin helps to regulate the amount of glucose in the bloodstream, by signaling cells to take up the glucose and use it for energy or store it for later use.

Different types of sugar can have different effects on blood sugar levels. For example, fructose (found in fruits and some sweeteners) is metabolized differently than glucose and can cause a slower rise in blood sugar levels because it is converted to glucose more slowly. However, consuming large amounts of fructose can also lead to other health problems, such as insulin resistance, which can increase the risk of type 2 diabetes.

Fiber is a type of carbohydrate that is not digested or absorbed by the body, but rather passes through the digestive system relatively intact. Fiber can help to slow the digestion of other carbohydrates, leading to a slower and more gradual rise in blood sugar levels. It can also help to promote feelings of fullness and satiety, which can be helpful for weight management.

Overall, paying attention to the glycemic index of foods can be a helpful tool for managing blood sugar levels, particularly for people with diabetes or other conditions that affect blood sugar regulation. However, it is important to remember that the GI is just one factor to consider when making food choices, and that the overall nutrient content of a food (including fiber, protein, and fat) is also important for health.

the geocentric approach is the most popular because it is the least expensive to implement.

Answers

The geocentric approach is a staffing method that involves hiring the most qualified individuals for the job, regardless of their nationality.

It is a global staffing strategy that considers both the parent company's and the host country's interests. The geocentric approach considers the availability of suitable candidates worldwide and selects the most competent people for positions, regardless of their nationality. In this approach, the candidates' expertise is critical rather than their citizenship.The approach is cost-effective as it lowers recruitment and training expenses, enabling organizations to employ highly competent staff, which enhances the company's productivity. Organizations using this strategy benefit from the diversity of employees, which results in a range of viewpoints and ideas that contribute to the company's growth and development. The geocentric strategy may face obstacles, including difficulties in acquiring work permits or dealing with language and cultural barriers.In conclusion, while it is true that the geocentric approach can be a cost-effective staffing strategy for organizations that are willing to be global in their approach, it is not always the most popular due to its challenges. The geocentric approach's popularity depends on various factors, including the organization's objectives and its capacity to manage the approach's associated difficulties.

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Value: 1
When caring for a resident, it is best to avoid the use of restraints whenever possible. If a restraint is ordered and
must be used, which practice is not recommended?
O a. Observe the resident frequently.
O b. Maintain a calm environment.
O c. Approach care with a gentleness, kindness and respect.
O d. Determine effectiveness by testing out a different restraint on the resident.

Answers

The weird option that sounds is the statement number 4. Option 4 is the correct answer.

What is the best thing that is done in this situation ?

In this situation the best things that is done to keep calm and handle the situation peacefully.

Observe the resident again and again to check the response that is given by the body so that a problem has not occured in the fractions of the time. Maintaining a calm and peaceful environment is very important as the haste makes up the waste.

Approach care with a gentleness, kindness and respect to avoid any kind of panic situations that can happen.  Determine effectiveness by testing out a different restraint on the resident sounds wrong because it is not wise to directly experiment without having much of the ideas.

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during a childbirth education class, the nurse educator describes signs of impending labor. which statement made by a class participant requires further teaching?

Answers

Lightening, a bloody period, and back pain are all indicators that labor is about to start. By settling the fetal head into in the mother's pelvis, the pregnant uterus moves forwards, or "lightens."

Describe a fetal head.

The fetal head has an egg-like shape, is wider in the back, and is symmetrical without even any irregularities in the contour. By twelve weeks of gestation, the skull vault has fully osseified, with both the sutures still being visible.

Why do fetuses have small heads?

A few diseases during pregnancy, like CMV, toxoplasmosis, or rubella severe malnutrition, which refers to a lack of nutrition or inadequate calorie intake. exposure to dangerous chemicals, such as poisonous chemicals, alcoholism, or particular medicines.

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N
which would most likely be a routine risk? check all that apply.
earthquakes
o regular fire drills
quarantined patients
o "wet floor" signs
barricades in construction zones

Answers

Routine risk include the following below such as:

"Wet floor" signs.Barricades in construction zones.

What is Routine risk?

This is defined as the routine exposures which are easier to control than others and is usually man made.

The options listed above can be easily controlled through proper attention and observation and is predictable unlike fire and earthquakes which aren't as a result of their natural causes.

This is therefore the reason why they were chosen as the most appropriate choice.

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the main difference between clinical nurse specialists (cnss) and nurse practitioners (nps) is

Answers

While both clinical nurse specialists (CNSs) and nurse practitioners (NPs) are advanced practice registered nurses (APRNs) who have completed graduate-level education, there are some differences in their roles and responsibilities.

Clinical nurse specialists are experts in a specific area of nursing practice, such as oncology, critical care, or pediatrics. They provide direct patient care, but they also work to improve systems and processes within healthcare organizations.

CNSs focus on the delivery of high-quality, evidence-based care and are involved in developing policies and procedures, conducting research, and providing education to other nurses.

Nurse practitioners, on the other hand, are licensed to provide a broader range of primary and specialty care services. NPs can diagnose and treat common illnesses and injuries, prescribe medications, and order and interpret diagnostic tests.

They work in a variety of settings, including primary care clinics, hospitals, and specialty clinics, and can provide care to patients across the lifespan.

In summary, the main difference between CNSs and NPs is that CNSs are specialists in a specific area of nursing practice and focus on improving systems and processes, while NPs provide a broader range of primary and specialty care services.

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What is Body Dysmorphic Disorder?

Answers

Body Dysmorphic Disorder (BDD) is a mental health condition characterized by a preoccupation with perceived flaws or defects in one's appearance that are either minor or not noticeable to others.

Individuals with BDD often spend hours each day obsessing over their appearance, checking their appearance in mirrors, or avoiding social situations due to their perceived flaws. BDD can lead to significant distress and impairment in daily functioning, and may also co-occur with other mental health conditions such as anxiety, depression, and obsessive-compulsive disorder. Treatment for BDD typically involves a combination of therapy and medication to manage symptoms and improve overall functioning. It is important to seek professional help if you suspect you may have BDD or know someone who is struggling with it.

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Sue has Type 1 diabetes, meaning she does not produce any insulin. Her parents give her 1 unit of insulin for every 15 grams of carbohydrate they feed her. Just before her afternoon snack of Cereal, Granola, Prepared (0.25 cups), how many units of insulin should they prepare to inject

Answers

Answer:

1 unit.

Explanation:

According to nutrition information provided by the USDA, 0.25 cups of Granola contain roughly 14 grams of carbohydrates. Since Sue needs to take 1 unit of insulin for every 15 grams of carbohydrates, her parents should prepare to inject her with 1 whole unit for her afternoon snack.

________________ is effective in determining the size, shape, location, and cause of a velopharyngeal gap, which is helpful for surgical planning.

Answers

Imaging, such as nasopharyngoscopy or video fluoroscopy, is effective in determining the size, shape, location, and cause of a velopharyngeal gap, which is helpful for surgical planning.

Imaging techniques such as nasopharyngoscopy and videofluoroscopy are commonly used to diagnose and evaluate the extent of velopharyngeal gaps, which can cause hypernasal speech and other related issues.

Nasopharyngoscopy involves the insertion of a thin, flexible tube with a camera through the nose to visualize the velopharyngeal anatomy in real-time, while videofluoroscopy uses a special X-ray technique to capture images of the swallowing process, allowing for a dynamic evaluation of the velopharyngeal mechanism.

By accurately assessing the size, shape, location, and underlying cause of the velopharyngeal gap, surgical planning can be optimized for the best possible outcome.

This information is particularly important in cases of cleft palate or other congenital abnormalities that affect the velopharyngeal mechanism.

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preindopril mechanism of action ?

Answers

Answer:

inhibition of ACE activity.

Explanation:

The mechanism through which perindoprilat lowers blood pressure. ACE is a peptidyl dipeptidase that catalyzes conversion of the inactive decapepetide, angiotensin i, to the vasoconstrictor, angiotensin ii.

Perindopril, and generally any medication ending in the suffix -pril, is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, meaning its mechanism of action is to block the conversion of blood hormone angiotensin 1 to vasoconstricting blood hormone angiotension 2, as well as increase increase plasma levels of enzyme renin and reduce levels of aldosterone, with the goal of causing systemic vasodilation which leads to a decrease in blood pressure in those with hypertension (HTN) and decreased risk of death from cardiovascular events in patients with coronary artery disease (CAD).

What non-visceral effectors that are controlled by the ANS?

Answers

Cardiac muscle, or the heart muscles, is one of the non-visceral effectors regulated by the ANS.

What organs are under the ANS's control?

System of the autonomic nervous: The autonomic nervous system is the portion of the nervous system that supplies the internal organs, such as the sweat, salivary, and digestive glands, blood vessels, stomach, gut, liver, kidneys, bladder, genitals, lungs, and pupils. Skeletal muscle is not an autonomic nervous system effector.

What do the ANS's effectors do?

The SNS uses acetylcholine (ACh), whereas the ANS uses either norepinephrine (NE) or NE. Adipose tissue, cardiac muscle glands, and smooth muscle are the ANS effectors, whereas skeletal muscles are the SNS effectors.

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If a person is interested in medicine but hates the sight of blood, would they be able to find a career in the Health Science cluster? Explain why or why not. Give an example to support your answer.

Answers

Answer:

yes

Explanation:

Health Science Career Cluster is a career pathway for the people that deals with wellness, health, diagnosis, and treats diseases and injuries.

But not all the career pathways are related to direct interaction with people while several other careers are involve in research into diseases or data collection.

So, people who love medicine but hate the sight of blood can make a career in the Health Science Career Cluster.

For example: Medical transcriptionists, who are responsible for the documentation of healthcare data.

Answer:

Health Science Career is a pathway for the people that deal with wellness, health, diagnosis, treats diseases, and injuries. Although, not all career pathways are related to direct interaction with people while several other careers are involved in research into diseases or data collection. For example, Medical transcriptionists, who are responsible for the documentation for the person’s health. Therefore, if someone doesn’t like the sight of blood but wants to be in the health pathway, their best choice would be Health Science.  

Explanation:

hope this helps you !

Your umbilicus (​bellybutton​) is (​anterior/posterior​) to your tushy.

Answers

the bellybutton is anterior to the butt
The belly button is in posterior to your

Which of the following is true about Michaelis-Menten kinetics?

Answers

Answer:

Explanation: Km is defined as the concentration of substrate at which enzyme is working at half of maximum velocity. It is also a measure of the affinity that the enzyme has for its substrate.

Explanation:

A person chooses a food item based on their friend's food choices (the "I'll have what she or he is having" phenomenon). The person is influenced by:.

Answers

Answer:

social factor

Explanation:

The “I’ll have what she or he is having” phenomenon is a social factor that influences a person’s food choices. This phenomenon is based on the idea that people are more likely to choose a food item based on their friend’s food choice

A liquid medicine is supplied in a concentration of 20mg/5ml .a patient requires 40mg orally three times a day for five days

Answers

Answer:

A liquid medicine is supplied in a concentration of 20 mg/5 mL. A patient requires 40 mg orally three times daily for 5 days, then 20 mg three times daily

Explanation:

A liquid medicine is supplied in a concentration of 20 mg/5 ml. A patient requires 40 mg orally three times a. day for 5 days, then 20 mg three times a .

There are three major types of cancer treatments: surgery to remove cancerous tissue, chemotherapy, and radiation. Which treatment would paclitaxel be considered

Answers

Answer:

Chemotherapy

Explanation:

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- Stimulation of these venous barorecptors results in reflex vasodilatation
However increase the heart rate!

Answers

Answer:

Baroreceptor reflexes are essential for normal cardiovascular homeostasis and ... heart rate (and cardiac output) by increasing parasympathetic activity and ... However, these two directions of responses should not be considered simply ... and in turn result in increases in sympathetic stimulation of the juxtaglomerular cells

What factors help a medical professional decide whether a patient needs remote or in-person care?

Answers

Answer:

well first and foremost their health if you can physically hear or see that a patient isn't doing do i would advise in person but if the patient isn't worried or any immediate family isn't either then remote is the best option. Another factor that plays a role is the physical environment  

Explanation:

The factors that help a medical professional decide whether a patient needs remote or face-to-face care is whether patients who do not necessarily need physical examinations, as well as patients who have already received care, can be followed remotely, leaving the face-to-face consultation for specific occasions.

Telemedicine

Telemedicine uses information and communication technologies to enable

CareEducation and Health research remotely.

One of the main advantages of these services lies in breaking down geographical barriers, resulting in increased access to health care.

With telemedicine, inhabitants of small towns or places far from large urban centers do not need to travel long distances to be treated by specialists. Patients with physical disabilities or reduced mobility have their daily lives facilitated, as they do not need to travel to an office or clinic, as they can receive care in the comfort of their homes.

Another advantage regarding consultations affects people with mental disorders, who can be observed by psychologists and psychiatrists in an environment in which they feel safe.

With this information, we can conclude that telemedicine is a good alternative, as it has several advantages, but when face-to-face care is needed, it should be requested.

Learn more about Telemedicine in https://brainly.com/question/3587379

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