When nursing professionals use data, information, knowledge, and wisdom as a foundational framework to provide care, they are working in the **nursing role of the knowledge worker**.
The knowledge worker role in nursing involves the utilization of various forms of information, including data, to make informed decisions and provide evidence-based care. Nurses gather and analyze data, transform it into meaningful information, apply their knowledge and expertise to interpret that information, and ultimately use wisdom to make sound judgments and decisions in the care of their patients.
By integrating data, information, knowledge, and wisdom, nurses are able to deliver holistic and patient-centered care. They stay updated with current research and best practices, critically analyze data to identify patterns and trends, and apply their expertise to individualize care plans and interventions for optimal patient outcomes. The knowledge worker role reflects the importance of using information and knowledge to drive nursing practice and enhance the quality of care provided.
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Unit Test
This Venn diagram compares two pharmacy reference books. Each circle contains information particular to each sentence, and the overlap is the comparison between the two references.
Title 1
-Information for physicians
-Tables for comparing similar
-Indications for drugs
Warnings and side effects of drugs
Title 2
-Monographs of pharmacy
-Information on history of pharmacy
Which choice shows the BEST titles for each circle?
A. Title 1 is Remington: The Science and Practice of Pharmacy and Title 2 is Facts and Comparisons.
B. Title 1 is Physician's Desk Reference (PDR) and Title 2 is Remington: The Science and Practice of Pharmacy.
C. Title 1 is Physician's Desk Reference (PDR) and Title 2 is Facts and Comparisons.
D. Title 1 is Remington: The Science and Practice of Pharmacy and Title 2 is Physician's Desk Reference (PDR)
Please select the best answer provided
Answer:
D. Title 1 is Remington: The Science and Practice of Pharmacy and Title 2 is Physician's Desk Reference (PDR)
Explanation:
I calculated it logically
The authority granted to an agent through the agents contact is referred to as
Answer:
The authority granted to an agent through the agent's contract is referred to as. Express Authority.
Explanation:
Answer:
Express Authority
Explanation:
(Express authority is the authority a principal deliberately gives to its agent. Express authority is granted by means of the agent's contract, which is the principal's appointment of the agent to act on its behalf.)
Maintaining a lifelong fitness regime can be challenging. Describe some possible reasons that maintaining a fitness routine might be a struggle for a middle school student, a person with a physical disability, and an elderly person.
Answer:
It is a struggle for middle class student but not for a person with a physical disability, and an elderly person.
Explanation:
Maintaining a fitness routine might be a struggle for a middle school student because there is less time available to the middle school student. The middle school student has very busy schedule and very little or sometime no time is available for a fitness routine. The physical status is a main problem for a person with a physical disability, and an elderly person because their body can't perform hard exercises but there is plenty of time with them for their fitness routine.
the term that means a malignant and invasive epithelial tumor is
The term that means a malignant and invasive epithelial tumor is carcinoma.
Carcinoma is a type of cancer that begins in cells that make up the skin or the lining of organs such as the lungs, liver, or intestines. It is a malignant tumor that can invade surrounding tissues and spread to other parts of the body through the lymphatic system or bloodstream. Carcinomas are classified based on the type of cells they affect and their location in the body. Some examples of carcinoma include lung carcinoma, prostate carcinoma, breast carcinoma, and colon carcinoma. Treatment for carcinoma depends on the stage and location of the cancer, and may include surgery, radiation therapy, chemotherapy, targeted therapy, or immunotherapy.
The term that means a malignant and invasive epithelial tumor is "carcinoma". This type of cancer starts in the tissues that form the skin or the lining of internal organs, such as the lungs, liver, and kidneys. Carcinomas account for the majority of all cancer cases and can spread to other parts of the body through the bloodstream or lymphatic system.
Carcinomas are classified based on the type of cells that are affected. For example, squamous cell carcinoma arises from the flat cells that form the surface of the skin, while adenocarcinoma affects glandular cells that produce mucus or other fluids. The prognosis and treatment options for carcinoma depend on several factors, including the location of the tumor, the stage of the cancer, and the overall health of the patient. Early detection and prompt treatment can improve the chances of successful outcomes.
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A participant missed several study visits and the research site staff becomes aware of a participant's death searching through public records. What is the most appropriate next course of action?
Answer:
A. Report this as a Serious Adverse Event (SAE).
Explanation:
When undergoing a trial using a medical product, subjects might sometimes experience certain negative effects referred to as Serious Adverse Events. These effects might range from, hospitalization, death, congenital defects, disabilities, etc.
If the medical personnel suspects that the negative effect was as a result of the medical product used, it becomes necessary to report such as a Serious Adverse Event. So, in the scenario above where a participant suddenly misses participation and his death becomes known through public records, suspicions might be that the death was a serious adverse event caused by the study.
Interpret the following order. Cyanocobalamin 1 mL SC stat and then q month
A) cyanocobalamin one milliliter under tongue tomorrow and then twice a month
B) cyanocobalamin one milliliter by injection subcutaneously now and then once a month
C) cyanocobalamin one microliter subcutaneously standing then four times a month
D) cyanocobalamin one quart by mouth while standing then once a month
E) cyanocobalamin one milliliter starting now and then monthly
The correct option is (E) cyanocobalamin one milliliter starting now and then monthly.
Interpretation: Cyanocobalamin 1 mL SC stat and then q month "Cyanocobalamin" is a form of vitamin B12 that the body requires to maintain a healthy nervous system and blood cells, as well as to generate DNA, the genetic material in all cells. It's known as a "water-soluble vitamin" because it dissolves in water and is eliminated from the body through urine. Cyanocobalamin 1 mL SC stands for Cyanocobalamin 1 milliliter subcutaneously. It means that the drug should be given by injection under the skin.
Subcutaneous injections are delivered into the fatty layer of tissue located beneath the skin. They are commonly given in the thigh, hip, or the upper arm. Cyanocobalamin 1 mL SC stat and then q month implies that a single dose of cyanocobalamin, 1 mL subcutaneously, should be given right away (stat), and then monthly (q month) injections of the same dose should be continued. Hence, the right answer is cyanocobalamin one milliliter starting now and then monthly.
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the np is reviewing mrs. oglethorpe's medication list and recognizes that which drug listed below has been associated with increased risk for mi in women?
The medication that has been associated with an increased risk of MI in women is hormone replacement therapy (HRT).
Hormone replacement therapy involves the administration of synthetic hormones to alleviate menopausal symptoms. Estrogen, which is the primary hormone in HRT, is known to increase the risk of blood clots, which in turn can lead to heart attack and stroke.The National Provider (NP) is a healthcare provider who is responsible for the health and well-being of patients. In Mrs. Oglethorpe's case, the NP is reviewing her medication list and has identified that HRT is associated with an increased risk of MI in women.
In general, hormone replacement therapy is prescribed to women who have reached menopause. Menopause is a period of hormonal imbalance that can lead to hot flashes, mood swings, and other unpleasant symptoms. Specifically, women who use HRT for more than five years are at a higher risk of developing blood clots, which can cause these serious conditions.
The link between HRT and MI has been studied extensively over the years. In one study, researchers found that women who used HRT were at a 30% higher risk of developing heart disease than women who did not use HRT. This increased risk persisted even after the women stopped using HRT.In another study, researchers found that HRT use was associated with a 41% increased risk of stroke in women. However, it is believed that the synthetic hormones in HRT may interfere with the body's natural clotting mechanisms, leading to the formation of blood clots. Additionally, HRT may also have an impact on blood vessel function, which can contribute to the development of heart disease and stroke.
In conclusion, the NP is correct in identifying HRT as a drug that is associated with an increased risk of MI in women. Additionally, women who are already using HRT should discuss the risks and benefits of continuing treatment with their healthcare provider on a regular basis.
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Coordination of the balance in the body movement is controlled by the?
Cerebellum
The bodies functions that occur without conscious effort are related by the BLANK nervous system.
Autonomic
The central nervous system (CNS) is composed of the?
Cerebellum and Brain.
The cervical spine is composed of BLANK vertebra.
7
The BLANK contains about 75% of the brain's total volume.
Cerebrum
The five sections of the spinal column, in descending order, are the:
Cervical, Thoracic, Lumbar, Sacral, and Coccygeal.
The hormone responsible for the actions of the sympathetic nervous system is:
Epinephrine
The BLANK is the best-protected part of the C.N.S. and controls the functions of the cardiac and respiratory system.
Brain Stem
The meninges, along with the cerebrospinal fluid (C.S.F.) that circulates in between each meningeal layer, function by:
Acting as shock absorbers for the brain and spinal cord.
The BLANK nervous system consists of 31 pairs of spinal nerves and 12 pairs of cranial nerves.
Peripheral
The spinal cord is encased in and protected by the:
Spinal Canal
The tough, fibrous outer meningeal layer is called the:
Dura Mater
What part of the nervous system controls the body's voluntary activities?
Somatic
What nerve carries information from the body to the brain via the spinal cord?
Sensory Nerve
A 45-year-old male was working on his roof when he fell approximately 12 feet, landing on his feet. He is conscious and alert and complains of an ache in his lower back. He is breathing adequately and has stable vital signs. You should:
Immobilize his spine and perform a focused secondary exam.
A female patient with a suspected spinal injury is breathing with a marked reduction in title volume. The most appropriate airway management for her includes:
Assisting ventilations at an age appropriate rate
An epidural hematoma is most accurately defined as:
Bleeding between the skull and dura mater.
An indicator of and expanding intercranial hematoma or rapidly progressing brain swelling is:
A rapid deterioration of neurologic signs.
Any unresponsive trauma patient should be assumed to have:
An accompanying spinal injury.
A patient who cannot remember the events that preceded his or her head injury is experiencing:
Retrograde Amnesia
A short backboard or vest-style immobilization device is indicated for patients who:
are in a sitting position and are clinically stable.
A tight-fitting motorcycle helmet should be left in place unless:
It interferes with your assessment of the airway.
Common signs and symptoms of a serious head injury include all of the following.
C.S.F leakage from the ears.
Combative behavior.
Decreased sensory function.
Common signs of a skull fracture include all of the following:
Mastoid process bruising.
Ecchymosis around the eyes.
Noted deformity to the skull.
During your primary assessment of a semiconscious 30-year-old female with closed head trauma, you note that she has slow, shallow breathing and a slow, bounding pulses. As your partner maintains manual in-line stabilization of her head, you should:
Instruct him to assist her ventilations while you perform a rapid assessment.
Following a head injury, a 20-year-old female opens her eyes spontaneously, is confused, and obeys your commands to move her extremities. You should assign her a G.C.S score of:
14
Laceration to the scalp:
Maybe an indicator of deeper, more serious injuries.
The Glasgow Coma Scale (G.C.S.) is used to assess:
Eye-opening, verbal response, and motor response.
The ideal procedure for moving in injured patient from the ground to a backboard is:
The Log Roll.
The most common in serious complication of a significant head injury is:
Cerebral Edema.
When assessing a conscious patient with an M.O.I. that suggests spinal injury, you should:
Determine if the strength in all extremities is equal.
When immobilizing a child on a long backboard, you should:
Place padding under the child's shoulders as needed.
When immobilizing a patient on a long backboard, you should:
Ensure that you secure the torso before securing the head.
When immobilizing a trauma patients spine, the E.M.T. manually stabilizing the head should not let go until:
The patient has been completely secured to the backboard.
When opening the airway of a patient with suspected spinal injury, you should use the:
Jaw-Thrust Maneuver.
Answer:
Cerebellum
Explanation:
With CPT codes changing each year, why is it important that the medical office obtain a new code book each year? What are the dangers of not obtaining this book? Why should coding books for the two previous years be kept?
Answer:
A new code book needs to be obtained each year to accurately identify all patient care accurately. ... Having two previous years' books on hand is important during an audit to understand the CPT codes entered into each patient's record during that time.
A new code book needs to be obtained each year to accurately identify all patient care accurately.
What is CPT codes?Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) exists as a medical code set that exists utilized to report medical, surgical, and diagnostic techniques and services to entities such as physicians, health insurance companies, and accreditation institutions.
A CPT code exists as a 5-digit numeric code that is utilized to represent Medical, surgical, Radiology, Laboratory, anesthesiology, and evaluation management Services of Physicians hospitals, and other care providers. there exist approximately 7,800 CPT codes. Including two previous years' books on hand exists significant during an audit to understand the CPT codes entered into each patient's record during that time.
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what is inflammation and what is the underlying mechanism?
Answer:
Inflammation is a response triggered by damage to living tissues. The inflammatory response is a defense mechanism that evolved in higher organisms to protect them from infection and injury. A coordinated series of common effector mechanisms of inflammation contrib- ute to tissue injury, oxidative stress, remodeling of the extracellular matrix, angiogenesis, and fibrosis in di- verse target tissues.
Explanation:
Which statement about hydrocortisone is NOT correct?
Answer: Hydrocortisone is classified as a corticosteroid. Hydrocortisone inhibits vascular leak due to proinflammatory mediators.
An older adult client with osteoarthritis has tearfully admitted to the nurse that she is no longer able to climb the stairs to the second floor of her house due to her knee pain. What nursing diagnosis is suggested by this client's statement
Explanation:
activity intolerance Related to knee pain.
Which statement about internal customers is true?
A)Internal customers rely on someone else at the same company to help them do their job
B)Internal customers can be guest customers or clients
C)Each individual should have no more than five internal customers
D)Internal customers are more important an external customers
Answer:
The correct answer is A. Internal customers rely on someone else at the same company to help them do their job.
Explanation:
In the corporate structure of a company or organization, those members of the company who go to a certain area of the company are called internal clients for the purpose of being advised or guided on a specific topic or situation. Thus, an internal customer is one who, belonging to the structure of the company, seeks a solution to its problems within it. Thus, unlike the external client, the internal client requires advice to develop activities of the company, which is a feedback between different areas of the same company.
The nurse is preparing to use an otoscope for an examination. Which statement is true regarding the otoscope
Answer:
otoscope is a medical device which is used to look into the ear.it is used to investigate ear symptoms it gives a view of ear canal and tympanic membraneit is used by medically licensed peopleit is used in condition like:for the examination of earto find out the cause of pain in earWhich of the following patient instructions would not immediately follow a surgical dental procedure?
The answer to the task given above about a client instructions which would not immediately follow a surgical dental procedure is bed rest
The correct answer choice is option a.
Why resting on bed would not be followed by dental procedureFrom the task given above, such as chewing exercise requires a dentist to perform certain assessment. But when a patient is on bed rest, it does not necessarily means that a dental surgical procedure would be observed as dental procedure and assessment can be done even while standing or in a sitting position.
So therefore, it can be deduced that a patient in a hospital bed rest is not an instruction which is immediately after a dental process.
Complete question:
Which of the following patient instructions would not immediately follow a surgical dental procedure?
a. Bed rest
b. Chewing exercises
c. Taking an antibiotic
d. Clear liquid diet.
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Which of the following statements is WRONG about performing chest
compressions? *
Allow the chest to completely rise back up after a chest compression
Press down at least 6 inches in adults
Position yourself at the victim's side
Keep interruptions to a minimum
a 87 year- old caucasian woman is seen in the office with the sudden onset of severe back pain in the mid dorsal region, occurring after she lifted her dog to give it a bath. her previous health has been good, though she had a mastectomy for carcinoma 14 years previously and she has a chronic cough, which has lately been worse. she smokes over a pack a day and has for more than 30 years. examination reveals a thin woman with prominent dorsal kyphosis. she is very tender to dorsal spine percussion and splints the back markedly, preventing most motion. what diagnosis seems most likely?
The diagnosis seems most likely to be osteoporotic fracture of the thoracic spine.
What is thoracic spine?
The upper and middle region of the back is where the thoracic spine is found. The thoracic spine contains twelve vertebrae, labelled T-1 through T-12. T-1 through T-5 nerves affect muscles in the upper chest, mid-back, and abdominal muscles. Each number on the spinal column corresponds to the nerves that run through that region of the spinal cord.
What is osteoporotic fracture?Osteoporotic fractures, also known as fragility fractures or low-trauma fractures, are those brought on by falls of at least one metre from the ground and without significant trauma, such as a car collision. The spine is where osteoporosis-related fractures most frequently happen. In the United States, there are an estimated 1.5 million vertebral compression fractures, often known as spinal fractures. They occur roughly two times as frequently as other fractures, like shattered hips and wrists, that are typically associated with osteoporosis.
Thus from above conclusion we can say that the diagnosis seems most likely to be osteoporotic fracture of the thoracic spine.
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describe the process of communication between two neurons at the synaptic cleft. how do SSRI’s impact this communication? Use the following words in the explanation, Action potential, Axon terminal, Dendrite, Neurotransmitter, receptor, synapse, vesicles, calcium ions
Berry good Eating blueberries and strawberries might improve heart health, according to a long-term study of 93,600 women who volunteered to take part. These berries are high in anthocyanins due to their pigment. Women who reported consuming the most anthocyanins had a significantly smaller risk of heart attack compared to the women who reported consuming the least. What conclusion can we draw from this study
Answer:
A significant study links berry consumption with improved heart health. You can't get the same benefit from a pill or supplement. You won't need a spoonful of sugar to help this medicine go down: eating more blueberries and strawberries may be a tasty way to protect your heart.
Explanation:
We can conclude that eating blueberries and strawberries will improve the condition of the heart as a result of the presence of anthocyanins present in them.
Anthocyanins are found in fruits such as strawberries and blueberries as a result of their pigment. However, a research study was done which shows that the consumption of anthocyanins help to improve the heart condition.
These findings however means that in order to have a healthier heart, it is advisable to eat food which is rich in anthocyanins and examples include strawberries and blueberries.
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Mr. Diaz continued working with his company and was insured under his employer’s group plan until he reached age 68. He has heard that there is a premium penalty for those who did not sign up for Part B when first eligible and wants to know how much he will have to pay. What should you tell him?
I should tell him that since Mr. Diaz maintained continuous coverage under his employer's group plan, he will not be subject to any penalties.
The premium is the sum that the insured pays on a regular basis to the insurer to cover his risk. The risk is transferred from the insured to the insurer under an insurance arrangement. The insurer levies a fee known as the premium in exchange for taking on this risk.
The term "premium penalty" refers to the fine imposed under this part and ERISA section 4007 for failure to pay a premium in full and on time. For the number of full, uncovered months you were without Part D or creditable coverage.
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Mr. Liu turns 65 on june 19. He has never previously qualified for medicare so his first medicare eligibility date will be by june 1. Mr. Liu’s icep and part d iep begin march 1 and end on september 30. He wants prescription drug coverage with his part a and part b benefits. What advice can you provide him?.
Answer:He can enroll in a MA-PD as long as he enrolls in Part B and is entitled to Part A.
Explanation: There is no requirement to enroll in Original Medicare when he first becomes Medicare eligible. Because both his ICEP and Part IEP are occurring now, he is eligiblle amd could enroll in a MA-PD if he choises.
A nurse is teaching a client who has a hiatal hernia about dietary recommendations. which client statements indicate understanding of these guidelines? (select all that apply.)
"I will consume less caffeine and fewer spicy foods"
"I will sleep with the head elevated"
"I will try not to gain weight"
What is hiatal hernia?When the upper portion of the stomach pushes through a tear in the diaphragm and into the chest cavity, a hiatal hernia results. The slender muscular wall that divides the chest cavity from the belly is known as the diaphragm. The esophagus and stomach connect at the aperture in the diaphragm. A hiatal hernia can develop in persons of any age and gender, although it most usually affects those in their 50s and older. Individuals who are overweight or obese and smokers are more likely to develop a hiatal hernia.
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How did john watson have different view from sigmund freud
Explanation:
John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism.
Freud incorporated the concept of the unconscious to explain transference. Watson understood and was intrigued by Freud's definition of sexual transference, but he was searching for an explanation of transference that did not involve the unconscious (Watson & Morgan, 1917)
Answer:
John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism. After failing to explain psychoanalysis in terms of William James's concept of habit, Watson borrowed concepts from classical conditioning to explain Freud's discoveries. Watson's famous experiment with Little Albert is interpreted not only in the context of Pavlovian conditioning but also as a psychoanalytically inspired attempt to capture simplified analogues of adult phobic behavior, including the "transference" of emotion in an infant. Watson used his behavioristic concept of conditioned emotional responses to compete with Freud's concepts of displacement and the unconscious transference of emotion. Behind a mask of anti-Freudian bias, Watson surprisingly emerges as a psychologist who popularized Freud and pioneered the scientific appraisal of his ideas in the laboratory.
Explanation:
set as brainliest
Splinting is used to immobilize the injured area, so that it cannot move. The splint should be
A- directly on the injured area
B- taped above and below the injury
C- taped above but on the injured area
D- taped below and on the injured area
a nurse is caring for a client that is 8 weeks pregnant with a diagnosis of hyperthyroidism. what medication does the provider expect to administer to this patient?
The medication that the healthcare provider may administer to a pregnant patient with hyperthyroidism is propylthiouracil (PTU).
Propylthiouracil is an antithyroid medication that works by decreasing the production of thyroid hormone in the body. It is considered safe to use during pregnancy, especially in the first trimester, as it does not cross the placenta to a significant extent and has a lower risk of causing harm to the developing fetus than other antithyroid medications.
It's important to note that the specific medication and dosage should be determined by a healthcare provider after a thorough evaluation of the patient's individual condition and medical history. Pregnant patients with hyperthyroidism require careful monitoring throughout their pregnancy to ensure that their thyroid function remains stable and their fetus is developing properly.
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Topic Test
The rationale for twin studies is that twins do not normally develop under similar environments.
Please select the best answer from the choices provided
a. T
b. F
Answer:
B. False
Explanation:
I calculated it logically
The buffers that adjust to control acid-base balance is
Answer: Plasma proteins, phosphate, and bicarbonate and carbonic acid buffers.
Explanation: The kidneys help control acid-base balance by excreting hydrogen ions and generating bicarbonate that helps maintain blood plasma pH within a normal range.
A nurse is assessing a client who is 1 day postpartum and has a vaginal hematoma. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
A. Lochia serosa vaginal drainage
B. Vaginal pressure
C. Intermittent pressure
D. Yellow exudate vaginal drainage
The manifestations the nurse should expect after assessing a client who is 1 day postpartum and has a vaginal hematoma is B. Vaginal pressure.
A vaginal hematoma is a collection of blood within the vaginal tissues, usually resulting from trauma during childbirth. It can cause discomfort and pressure in the vaginal area. Other manifestations may include localized swelling, tenderness, and discoloration of the affected area.
Options A, C, and D are not typically associated with a vaginal hematoma. Lochia serosa vaginal drainage (Option A) is a normal vaginal discharge following childbirth that is pinkish-brown in color. Intermittent pressure (Option C) is not specific to a vaginal hematoma and may not be a typical manifestation. Yellow exudate vaginal drainage (Option D) is not typically associated with a vaginal hematoma and could indicate a different issue such as infection. Hence, the correct answer is Option B.
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Patients seeking care at the County General emergency room wait, on average, 8 minutes before seeing the triage nurse who spends, on average, 3 minutes assessing the severity of their problem. The most serious cases are seen first and the less serious often have to wait. On average, the wait time before being taken to the examination room is 110 minutes. In the examination room, a nurse spends about 10 minutes taking vitals and making notes on the patient's condition. The patient then waits for the doctor. This wait averages 13 minutes. Treatment times by the doctor average 21 minutes. Following treatment, patients wait 14 minutes for the nurse to come to discuss the post treatment instructions. It takes about 4 minutes to review with the patient these instructions before they leave. Considering any time spent interacting with a nurse or doctor as value-added time. What is the precent value-added time in a trip to the emergency room? Note: Round your answer as a percentage to 2 decimal places.
The percentage value-added time in a trip to the emergency room is 20.67%.
Value-added time is time spent on patient care, diagnosis, and treatment by healthcare providers. Considering any time spent interacting with a nurse or doctor as value-added time, the percentage value-added time in a trip to the emergency room is as follows:
The total time spent by the patient in the emergency room can be found by adding up the wait time, triage time, time with the nurse, time with the doctor, and time reviewing post-treatment instructions.
Total time = 8 + 3 + 110 + 10 + 13 + 21 + 14 + 4
= 183 minutes or 3.05 hours.
Value-added time = time spent on patient care and treatment
= 3 + 10 + 21 + 4
= 38 minutes or 0.63 hours.
The percentage value-added time in a trip to the emergency room = (Value-added time / Total time) × 100%
= (0.63 / 3.05) × 100%
= 20.66% or 20.67%
(rounded to 2 decimal places).
Therefore, the percentage value-added time in a trip to the emergency room is 20.67%.
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Can my 12 year old son take 10mg melatonin. As 5mg as not been working on him.
Answer:
I'm pretty sure he can take 10 mg, I'm 13 and 10 mg is working fine for me.
Explanation: