which communication technique should the nurse avoid when interviewing children and their families? group of answer choices using cliches directing the focus defining the problem using silence

Answers

Answer 1

The communication technique that the nurse should avoid when interviewing children and their families is using clichés, as it can hinder and meaningful communication.

When interviewing children and their families, using clichés should be avoided as a communication technique. Clichés are overused expressions or phrases that may lack authenticity and fail to address the specific concerns or emotions of the individuals being interviewed.

Children and their families require sensitive and individualized communication to establish trust and facilitate open dialogue. Using clichés can come across as insincere or dismissive, potentially hindering the establishment of a therapeutic relationship. Instead, the nurse should employ active listening, empathy, and open-ended questions to encourage families to share their thoughts, concerns, and experiences, creating a supportive and collaborative environment for effective communication.

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Related Questions


Dr. Mullis conducting testing on a fourth grade student who is having difficulty with math. He is most likely a?

Answers

Answer:

Dr. Mullis is most likely a psychologist testing for dyscalculia or another math learning disability rather than simply needing extra support in math. A psychologist can also give input as to the possibility of other learning differences, such as ADHD or dyslexia.

is very painful injury is most often caused by a hard fall to the buttocks ​

Answers

Answer:

yes

Explanation:

yes

Not really, one of the most common injuries and one of the most painful is ankle sprains.

How might a scientist use experimental design to investigate the effect of a new medication on an organism that infects humans?

Answers

Answer:

by abducting them then experimenting on them like lab rats

Explanation:

Critical thinking and problem solving

Answers

Answer:

Is this a question or a statement? Please clarify.

Explanation:

What is the importance of interlocking the fingers and rubbing while washing hands?

Answers

Answer:

it helps us clean the places that are hard to clean all at the same time while making suds to get rid of the dirt and dust that lies in the crevecas of your hands and interlocking the spreads the crevaces to get the dirt/dust out

Explanation:

To be able to get rid of germs

How many essential minerals does your body need

Answers

you need at least 30 essential minerals
there’s five major minerals - calcium, phosphorus, potassium, sodium and magnesium

Which assessment finding supports the administration of protamine sulfate?
a. Low blood pressure
b. Elevated heart rate
c. Low blood glucose levels
d. Increased respiratory rate

Answers

The correct answer to the question is "c. Low blood glucose levels."Protamine sulfate is an antidote that is administered to individuals who receive heparin overdose.

A heparin overdose occurs when the individual has too much heparin in their system, which results in excessive blood thinning. The administration of protamine sulfate is supported by low blood glucose levels.

Assessment findings that support the administration of protamine sulfate include prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), hematuria, rectal bleeding, gum bleeding, petechiae, and low blood glucose levels. Protamine sulfate is a heparin antagonist, which means it neutralizes the effects of heparin, reducing the risk of bleeding or blood clots.

Low blood glucose levels are a sign of an overdose of heparin, and administering protamine sulfate is necessary to counteract the effects of heparin and stabilize the patient's blood glucose levels. It is crucial to note that protamine sulfate should be administered slowly to avoid adverse effects such as anaphylaxis, hypotension, and pulmonary hypertension.

In conclusion, low blood glucose levels support the administration of protamine sulfate.

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What are the requirements when checking in C3-5 products

Answers

Handwritten marks such as circles, checkmarks, slashes, and so on are required.

What are C3-5 and pse?

The C3-5 and Pse are certificates that give the products a grade. Using CFRX, all Cill-Vs should be checked into the electronic delivery check-in screen.

Each page of the invoice contains a signature. Each page of the invoice must include the date received.

The date when the Ciii-v and Pse products were obtained must be documented on each page of the invoice.

As a result, the prerequisites are handwritten marks such as circles, checkmarks, slashes, and so on.

Thus, these are the basic requirements when checking in C3-5 products.

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A woman who has just become pregnant is used to drinking 2 pots of coffee a day. what adjustments should she make in her caffeine consumption

Answers

Answer:

limit coffee consumption to 2 cups a day

Explanation:

how would you heal a broken finger?

Answers

you need to compress your finger

a client is scheduled to undergo diagnostic testing with the administration of parenteral radiographic contrast media containing iodine. since the client is taking metformin, you know that:

Answers

a client is scheduled to undergo diagnostic testing with the administration of parenteral radiographic contrast media Metformin should be discontinued at least 48 hours before and after diagnostic tests that use contrast medias.

Metformin is an oral medication used to treat type 2 diabetes. It helps to lower blood sugar levels by reducing the amount of glucose produced by the liver and improving the body's sensitivity to insulin. Metformin also helps to lower insulin resistance and improve glucose uptake in muscle and fat tissues. It is often the first-line treatment for type 2 diabetes, and it is also used in combination with other medications to control blood sugar levels. Metformin is generally well-tolerated, with gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and diarrhea being the most common. It is important to use metformin exactly as prescribed, and to monitor blood sugar levels regularly, as it can cause low blood sugar (hypoglycemia) when used in combination with other medications.

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The full question was here:

A client prescribed metformin is scheduled to undergo diagnostic testing with the administration of parenteral radiographic contrast media containing iodine. What fact should direct the nurse's plan of care for this client?

The client will be prescribed an extra dose of metformin due to address the contrast material's effect on the body.

Metformin should be discontinued at least 48 hours before and after diagnostic tests that use contrast medias.

The client needs to be encouraged to drink 1 to 2 L of water to flush the contrast media out the kidneys.

The metformin will be temporarily substituted for with insulin, to address the risk of potential kidney failure.

Conjugated estrogens tablets (PREMARIN) are available in strengths of 0.3 mg, 0.45 mg, 0.625 mg, 0.9 mg and 1.25 mg. If patient "A" took one tablet daily of the lowest dose and patient ‘‘B’’ took one tablet daily of the highest dose, what is the difference in the total quantities taken between patients ‘‘A’’ and ‘‘B’’ over a period of 30 days (a) 2.85 mg (b) 2850mg (c) 2.85 cg (d) 2.85dg​

Answers

Answer:

(c) 2.85 cg

Explanation:

Patient A:  

- Lowest dose >> 0.3 mg x 30 days = 9 mg

Patient B:  

- Highest dose >> 1.25 mg x 30days  = 37.5 mg

Comparison of dose between patients  = 37.5 mg - 9 mg = 28.5 mg >>>  1 centigram is equivalent to ten (10) milligrams (mg), thereby the correct answer is (c) 2.85 cg

Premarin is a medication that contains conjugated estrogens (hormones). It is commonly used in the USA to treat menopause symptoms like hot flashes and vaginal dryness.

1. There's a cure for lung cancer; about 85% of lung cancer patients get better within 5 years.

True
False

Answers

Answer:

False.

Explanation:

The statement is not accurate. While advances in treatments have improved the prognosis for some lung cancer patients, the cure rate for lung cancer is not as high as 85%. In fact, the 5-year survival rate for lung cancer is only about 18%. This emphasizes the importance of early detection and prompt treatment for lung cancer.

The answer is false. There is no cure for cancer, only treatments and surgeries…

The provider ordered heparin 4000 units subcutaneous, every 12 hours. The pharmacy supplies heparin in a 1-mL vial containing 5000 units per mL. What should the nurse administer per dose?

Answers

To administer 4000 units of heparin per dose, the nurse needs to withdraw a volume of heparin solution that contains 4000 units.

If the pharmacy supplies heparin in a 1-mL vial containing 5000 units per mL, then the nurse needs to calculate the volume of solution needed to deliver 4000 units:

4000 units ÷ 5000 units/mL = 0.8 mL

Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.8 mL of heparin solution per dose.

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Chloe was raised in a family where they did not discuss mental health. When she experiences PTSD following a severe car accident, her parents imply she should just stop thinking about it. For this reason, Chloe did not seek treatment for nearly five years when she finally reached a breaking point and a friend took her to the doctor. Chloe’s experience is an example of...
a. a felt stigma.
b. stigma and illness.
c. an enacted stigma.
d. stigma expectations.

Answers

(C)Chloe's experience is an example of enacted stigma. Enacted stigma occurs when individuals experience discrimination, prejudice, or mistreatment as a result of their mental health condition. In this case, Chloe's parents' response to her PTSD implied that she should just stop thinking about it, which is a form of stigma and could have contributed to her reluctance to seek treatment. By failing to provide her with appropriate support and understanding, Chloe's parents may have unintentionally perpetuated the stigma around mental health in her family.

How did David’s condition increase doctors and researchers understanding of the immune system and diseases such as cancer?

Answers

Studying David's Syndrome provided researchers with insights into the genetic mutations, molecular pathways, and immune response mechanisms, leading to a deeper understanding of the immune system's complexities and its role in combating diseases.

David's condition, often referred to as "David's Syndrome," presented a unique opportunity for doctors and researchers to deepen their understanding of the immune system and diseases like cancer.

David's Syndrome is a rare genetic disorder that rendered him with an exceptionally weak immune system, making him highly susceptible to infections and other immune-related complications.

Studying David's condition allowed researchers to explore the intricacies of the immune system in unprecedented detail. By examining the specific genetic mutations responsible for his weakened immune response, scientists gained insights into the genes and molecular pathways involved in immune function.

This knowledge contributed to a broader understanding of the immune system's complex mechanisms and its role in fighting diseases. Moreover, David's susceptibility to infections offered valuable insights into the body's defense mechanisms against pathogens.

Researchers closely analyzed how his immune system responded to various infectious agents, leading to a better comprehension of the immune response's intricacies and potential vulnerabilities.

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Albuterol 1.2mg po TID is ordered for a child weighing 27 lbs. The package insert
states the safe dose for children is no more than 0.3mg/kg/24 hours in 3 divided
doses. Available is albuterol syrup 2mg/mL. Determine the following:

Is the dosage safe

Answers

Answer:

The package insert states the safe dose for children is no more than 0.3mg/kg/24 hours in 3 divided doses. Available is albuterol syrup 2mg/mL.

Explanation:

If you were to be diagnosed with strep throat, you could be treated with an antibiotic because __________.
A.
strep throat is a virus and antibiotics are effective in treating viruses
B.
strep throat is a protozoan and antibiotics are often used to treat protozoan infections
C.
strep throat is a fungal infection that responds well to antibiotics
D.
strep throat is a bacterial infection that can be eradicated with antibiotic treatment


Please select the best answer from the choices provided.

A
B
C
D

Answers

Answer:

If you were to be diagnosed with strep throat, you could be treated with an antibiotic because strep throat is a bacterial infection that can be eradicated with antibiotic treatment

If you were to be diagnosed with strep throat, you could be treated with an antibiotic because strep throat is a bacterial infection that can be eradicated with antibiotic treatment.

What is Bacterial infection?

When bacteria enter the body, multiply, and trigger an immune response in the body, a bacterial infection results.

Through an opening in your skin, such as a cut or surgical wound, or through your airway, germs can enter your body and cause diseases like bacterial pneumonia.

A bacteria is made up of a single complicated cell. It has the ability to endure on its own, inside or outside of the body. Most bacteria don't cause harm. In fact, our bodies contain a variety of bacteria, particularly in the stomach where they aid in digestion.

Therefore, If you were to be diagnosed with strep throat, you could be treated with an antibiotic because strep throat is a bacterial infection that can be eradicated with antibiotic treatment.

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a patient describes a burning sensation in the esophagus, pain when swallowing, and frequent indigestion. what does the nurse suspect that these clinical manifestations indicate?

Answers

The most typical symptom of esophageal cancer patients is dysphagia. It's crucial to assess swallowing impairment and start the right therapies.

when a client's lips is covered in a cheesy white plaque?

A white, cheesy, adhering plaque that is indicative of candidiasis can develop just on buccal mucosa, tongue, palate, or commissures of a lips (cheilitis). The underneath tissue is raw or red if this plaque is removed, and it cannot be "wiped off." Topical and systemic oral antifungal medications are used for treatment.

The effects of esophageal burns

The lining of your esophagus is being irritated by stomach acid, causing a burning ache in the centre of your chest. Although it can happen at any time, the burning is frequently worse after eating. Many people find it difficult to fall asleep since their heartburn gets worse when they lie in bed or recline.

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What layer of the alimentary canal tissue is capable of helping to protect the body against disease, and through what mechanism?

Answers

C ardiovascular: Blood supplies digestive organs with oxygen and processed nutrients
Endocrine: Endocrine hormones help regulate secretion in digestive glands and acc...
Nervous: Sensory and motor neurons help regulate secretions

Answer:

the layer that protect the body is the homeostasis and the mechanism is a negative feed back mechanism

Which is another name for a leukocyte?
black blood cell
white blood cell
blue blood cell
red blood cell

Answers

WHITE BLOOD CELLS

they are the cells of the immune system that are involved in protecting the body against both infectious disease and foreign invaders.

White blood cell is another name for a leukocyte.

Additional information:-

Blood:- Blood is a red coloured liquid which flows in blood vessels and circulates in our body.

Blood consists of four components:

★ Plasma : Plasma carries water and dissolved substances such as digested food and waste products from one part to another part in the body.

★ Red Blood Cells ( RBC ) : Red blood cells carry oxygen from lungs to all the cells of the body.

★ White Blood Cells ( WBC ) : White blood cells fight infection and protect us from diseases.

★ Platelets : Platelets help in the clotting of blood in a cut or wound.

Which precepts are among the rules suggested by the Institute of Medicine's (IOM) Committee on Quality of Health Care in America to improve health care

Answers

The Institute of Medicine's (IOM) Committee on Quality of Health Care in America has suggested several precepts to improve healthcare. These precepts include providing patient-centered care, working in interdisciplinary teams, using evidence-based practices, implementing quality improvement measures, and utilizing information technology.

1. Safe care: Ensuring patient safety by avoiding harm from healthcare processes.
2. Effective care: Providing care based on evidence, ensuring the best outcomes for patients.
3. Patient-centered care: Tailoring healthcare services to meet individual patient needs, preferences, and values.
4. Timely care: Reducing wait times and potentially harmful delays in receiving treatment.
5. Efficient care: Optimizing resource use and minimizing waste to provide high-quality care.
6. Equitable care: Ensuring that all patients receive the same level of care, regardless of their demographic, economic, or social status.

These precepts guide healthcare professionals and organizations in delivering high-quality care that meets the needs of patients while addressing existing inefficiencies and inequalities in the system.

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Whos someone whos healthy menstlally and physically?

Answers

Answer:

the majority of my classmates

Explanation:

Which technique should you use to provide culturally competent care ti your patients

Answers

The technique that you can us e to provide competent care is to cultural Awareness and Sensitivity

What is the technique?

It's crucial to use a number of strategies and tactics that respect and appreciate your patients' cultural backgrounds if you want to give them with care that is culturally competent.

Recognize your own cultural prejudices, presumptions, and preconceptions. Recognize and appreciate the variety of cultures, customs, and values held by your patients. Be aware of any potential biases and barriers based on culture that can affect how you communicate and make healthcare decisions.

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Summary of the NAFLD condition. i.e., How does the condition develop? What is the effect on the body? Why is it a serious health condition?

Answers

Answer:

Fat deposits in the liver cells are a symptom of non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD). Because drinking alcohol does not cause it, it is referred to as "non-alcoholic". Obesity, insulin resistance, high blood sugar, and high blood fat levels are all associated with the illness.

In its early stages, NAFLD may not show any symptoms and frequently progresses gradually. However, over time, fat buildup can result in non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH), a disorder that causes liver scarring and inflammation. Cirrhosis, liver failure, and liver cancer can develop as a result of NASH.

Because it can result in severe consequences including liver damage and liver failure, which can be fatal, NAFLD is a significant medical disease. NAFLD also raises the chance of developing additional health issues including metabolic syndrome, type 2 diabetes, and cardiovascular disease. Therefore, early detection and treatment are essential to halt the disease's course and lower the risk of consequences.

5. What is one way that you can use one of the learning theories to influence another human or animal in your life? What theory of learning would you use? Why?

Answers

Learning theories give teachers models for creating lessons that promote better learning by describing the circumstances and procedures through which learning takes place.

What is learning theories?

Learning theories are defined as the theory based on the behaviorism, cognitivism, and constructivism psychological perspectives.

The biological processes of learning start in neurons, which are electrically stimulated brain cells.

Synaptic plasticity, which involves modifying the number and strength of neuronal connections, is the mechanism by which learning occurs.

Thus, learning theories give teachers models for creating lessons that promote better learning by describing the circumstances and procedures through which learning takes place.

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What are the word part and medical word for-
The study of-
Surgical excision-

Answers

Answer:

surgical removal or resection

Explanation:

a registered nurse is preparing three hypothalamic and pituitary medications for assigned patients. the registered nurse is looking up key information about leuprolide (lupron), somatropin (nutropin, saizen, humatrope, zorbtive), and desmopressin. (chapter 35-learning objectives 2, 4, and 5) discussion questions a. what are the indications for the use of somatropin (nutropin, saizen, humatrope, zorbtive)? b. what are the most common adverse reactions for leuprolide (lupron)? c. what are the therapeutic actions for desmopressin? d. what are the key nursing implementation considerations for patients receiving growth hormones?

Answers

Development chemical somatropin (otherwise called Nutropin, Saizen, Humatrope, and Zorbtive) treats development disappointment in kids

And grown-ups who don't create sufficient regular development chemical. It is also used to treat short bowel syndrome and muscular wasting caused by HIV/AIDS.

b. Hot flashes, sweating, headaches, nausea, vomiting, and mood swings are the most common side effects of leuprolide (Lupron). It could also cause discomfort, swelling, and redness at the injection site.

c. Desmopressin, a synthetic hormone, is an analog of the hormone antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which is produced in the hypothalamus and stored in the pituitary gland. Reduced urine production, increased kidney water reabsorption, and elevated plasma levels of the blood coagulation factors factor VIII and von Willebrand factor are among its therapeutic effects. It regards draining issues, for example, von Willebrand illness, bedwetting, and diabetic insipidus.

d. Nursing implementation considerations must include monitoring for side effects like hyperglycemia, fluid retention, and an increased risk of infection in patients taking growth hormones. In addition, the patient's growth response and bone density should be monitored. Training ought to be given on safe infusion rehearses, medication capacity, and treatment consistence.

Psychosocial treatment may be necessary because growth hormone users may have social and emotional issues related to their condition.

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Help with a reflection piece on adult safeguarding in the United Kingdom

Answers

Adult safeguarding is the process of protecting adults who are at risk of abuse or neglect. Abuse can happen to anyone, regardless of age, gender, race, or social status.

What is adult safeguarding about?

There are many different types of adult abuse, including physical abuse, emotional abuse, financial abuse, and sexual abuse. Physical abuse is any act that causes physical harm to an adult. Emotional abuse is any act that causes emotional harm to an adult, such as threats, insults, or isolation. Financial abuse is any act that takes advantage of an adult's financial resources, such as stealing money or property. Sexual abuse is any sexual act that is forced or unwanted.

In the United Kingdom, adult safeguarding is the responsibility of a number of different agencies, including local authorities, the NHS, and the police. These agencies work together to identify and protect adults who are at risk of abuse.

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which part of the cell contains the genetic information for replication​

Answers

Answer:

the nucleus

Explanation:

The nucleus (plural, nuclei) houses the cell's genetic material, or DNA, and is also the site of synthesis for ribosomes, the cellular machines that assemble proteins. Inside the nucleus, chromatin (DNA wrapped around proteins, described further below) is stored in a gel-like substance called nucleoplasm.

The Nucleus contains the genetic information for replication
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