The statement that is NOT accurate about Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) is option c: "AA advocates believe that former alcoholics can become social drinkers."
AA's approach is based on the belief that alcoholism is a chronic, progressive disease with no known cure. One of the core principles of AA is complete abstinence from alcohol rather than attempting to become a social drinker. AA's program emphasizes the concept of surrendering to the fact that one cannot control their drinking and that abstinence is the only solution.
Regarding option d, it is true that accurate data on the overall success of AA is challenging to gather due to the anonymous nature of participation. AA maintains strict anonymity for its members, and there is no formal mechanism to track individuals' progress or long-term outcomes. While AA does conduct surveys and studies, they primarily focus on member demographics and attendance rather than measuring success rates.
The effectiveness of AA as a treatment for alcohol dependence, as mentioned in option a, has been a topic of debate. Research studies have shown mixed results, with some indicating positive outcomes for individuals who actively participate in AA, while others suggest similar outcomes for individuals receiving alternative treatments or no treatment at all.
Option b states that more than 3 percent of the adult population of the United States has attended an AA meeting. While it is challenging to determine the exact number of AA attendees due to the anonymous nature of the organization, various surveys and estimates suggest that a significant number of individuals have attended AA meetings, making this statement plausible. Therefore the correct option is C
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Molina, a 67-year-old, Hispanic widow recently from San Salvador, needed to sign an informed consent for a mastectomy. She spoke little English, and the hospital staff relied on her bilingual nephew to interpret. When the nurse explained the procedure to the patient and nephew, the nephew translated, and the nurse believed that he was doing it accurately. Mrs. Molina signed the consent form. The next day when she learned that her breast had been removed, she became very angry and told her nephew to sue the hospital.
I need help in having these questions:
what is one cultural issue/concern that is mention is this scenario
what is the best cultural advocacy theory, based on Leininger theory, that describes this scenario and why
why is the nurse's and/or healthcare team member's action or inaction inappropriate according to the chosen cultural advocacy theory or other cultural resources
what culturally sensitive alternative action would be suggested to the nurse
Answer:
what you want me to do :v
Explanation:
Which are pathology suffixes
Answer:
Patho-: A prefix derived from the Greek "pathos" meaning "suffering or disease." Patho- serves as a prefix for many terms including pathogen (disease agent), pathogenesis (development of disease), pathology (study of disease), etc. The corresponding suffix is -pathy.
Explanation:
a neonate has been administered a prescribed dose of vitamin k. what outcome would most clearly indicate to the nurse that the medication has had the intended effect?
Preventing bleeding brought on by a vitamin K deficit is the goal of vitamin K administration to a newborn. Hence, the most obvious result that would show that the medicine has had the desired effect is the lack of bleeding, especially cerebral internal bleeding, which can be fatal.
Newborn bleeding disorders are uncommon, but a vitamin K shortage can cause significant or even deadly bleeding in the brain, intestines, or other areas of the body. Hence, it's crucial to keep an eye out for any bleeding symptoms in the newborn, such as bruises, bleeding gums, nosebleeds, blood in the stool, or blood in the urine.
After receiving the recommended amount of vitamin K, if the neonate shows no indications of bleeding, it can be said that the drug has prevented bleeding brought on by a vitamin K shortage.
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a group of nursing students is reviewing a nurse's practice act. What statements show that teaching has been effective?
The nurses understanding focusing on the important clause will show that the teacher has been effective.
The NPA(Nursing practice act) is the legislation that governs nursing practise in each state and serves as a guide for action. As a result, the NPA has precisely defined terminology and phrases for state boards of nursing to utilise in enforcement. There are phrases that have been devised for politicians and public to grasp.
The boards of the NPA establish criteria by which practitioners are held accountable for delivering safe client care. These criteria are based on professional, ethical, and legal nursing norms. The NPA also guarantees that any practitioner who is the subject of a complaint against their practise has the right to due process. Due process guarantees that the nurse's rights are protected during the disciplinary procedure. This is where the nurses should focus their efforts.
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Please help me with these questions! Lots of points! I already asked Biology and nobody answered me after 2 hours...
A man with type A blood is married to a woman with type O blood. What are ALL of the possible blood types of their children?
A man with type AB blood is married to a woman with type O blood. What are all the possible blood types of their children?
A man with type A blood whose mother was type O is married to a woman with type AB blood. What are the possible blood types of their children and in what proportion?
Answer:
AB +
Explanation:
because you are expected to attempt any five questions from section is provided with four possible options for the following lamina I and III only I and III only one I got a new one is a good night girl is the work I have to praise and glory to the completion of examination time to get some rest baby I just want to do that to my house I will be going there for you guys have to
The ransom note in the Lindbergh kidnapping case included some obvious spelling errors and other foreign and regional language. What linguistic methods were used to help identify the kidnapper?
linguistic dialectology and forensic stylistics
forensic stylistics- not b
forensic phonetics
discourse analysis and forensic phonetics
Answer:
forensic stylistics
Explanation:Hauptmann’s case is one of several famous criminal cases in which forensic handwriting analysis served as a key piece of evidence.
Explanation:
Ratio of compressions to ventilations, two rescuer CPR for infants or children?
When performing CPR on infants or children, the recommended ratio of compressions to ventilations depends on the number of rescuers available. For two-rescuer CPR, the ratio is 15 compressions to 2 ventilations.
This means that one rescuer will perform compressions while the other provides ventilations. The compressions should be delivered at a rate of at least 100-120 per minute, and the ventilations should be delivered over 1 second, just enough to see the chest rise. It's important to maintain proper hand placement and technique during compressions to ensure effective circulation. Remember to switch roles every 2 minutes to prevent fatigue and maintain optimal performance. The goal is to provide high-quality CPR with minimal interruptions until advanced medical personnel arrive.
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5. What is one way that you can use one of the learning theories to influence another human or animal in your life? What theory of learning would you use? Why?
Learning theories give teachers models for creating lessons that promote better learning by describing the circumstances and procedures through which learning takes place.
What is learning theories?Learning theories are defined as the theory based on the behaviorism, cognitivism, and constructivism psychological perspectives.
The biological processes of learning start in neurons, which are electrically stimulated brain cells.
Synaptic plasticity, which involves modifying the number and strength of neuronal connections, is the mechanism by which learning occurs.
Thus, learning theories give teachers models for creating lessons that promote better learning by describing the circumstances and procedures through which learning takes place.
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After the nurse has finished teaching a patient with osteoarthritis (OA) of the right hip about how to manage the OA, which patient statement indicates a need for more teaching?A. "I can exercise every day to help maintain joint motion."B. "I will take 1 g of acetaminophen (Tylenol) every 4 hours."C. "I will take a shower in the morning to help relieve stiffness."D. "I can use a cane to decrease the pressure and pain in my hip."
Answer:
Explanation:gbbbggggggfffffffffffffffffffffffffff
I can exercise every day to help maintain joint motion. Thus, the correct option is A.
How do we assess a patient with osteoarthritis?
X-rays are typically used to confirm the diagnosis of osteoarthritis. X-rays can reveal assymetric joint space narrowing, osteophytes at the joint margins, joint space narrowing, and subchondral bone sclerosis.
In osteoarthritis, the surface layer of cartilage breaks and wears away. This allows bones under the cartilage to rub together, causing pain, swelling, and loss of motion of the joint. Over time, the joint may lose its normal shape.
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what is the common name for Proctalgia Fugax?
A physician ordered erythromycin for a child who weighs 45lb and is 3 feet tall. How many mg should be delivered to the child per dose based on the adult of 250mg qid
Orders written "mg/kg/d," which is perplexing, need further explanation from the physician because doses are sometimes expressed as mg/kg/day or mg/kg/dose.
A 37-pound, 77-cm-tall youngster is given an erythromycin prescription by a doctor. 250 mg qid is the typical adult dosage. The calculator expresses the dose in millilitres and milligrammes once you enter your patient's weight and choose the liquid's strength. A kid is 35" tall and weighs 55 pounds. The doctor prescribes ampicillin for the kid on the spot. 500 mg qid is the typical adult dosage. Medicine dosage varies depending on the drug and the patient. Body weight = 3 lbs 7 oz (3 X 454 + 7 X 28.35 = 1560.45) Each divided dose equals 15.6 mg/2=7.8 mg.
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Congenital Galactosemia typically appears only in infants because with maturation, most children develop another enzyme capable of metabolizing galactose. Its incidence is about 1 per 18,000 births. If the infant does not receive treatment then there is a 75% chance of death. Thus, in the United States infants are screened for galactosemia. Galactosemia can be confused with lactose intolerance but galactosemia is a considerably more serious condition because consumption of galactose can cause permanent damage to their bodies. What dietary changes should be made
Answer: The dietary changes that should be made is that milk and milk containing products should be avoided in diets.
Explanation:
Congenital Galactosemia is an autosomal recessive disorder due to galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase(Gal-1-PUT).
Galactose is necessary for the formation of cerebrosides, of some glycoproteins and , during lactation, of milk. Excess is rapidly converted into glucose by Gal-1-PUT. The symptoms of galactosemia only become apparent if the infant is taking milk or milk containing products. This will lead to a rise in plasma galactose concentration.
Its incidence is about 1 per 18,000 births. Since it's a condition that occurs at or before birth, infants are screened by identification of galactose with thin layer chromatography and by demonstrating a deficiency of Gal-1-PUT activity in erythrocytes.
If the infant does not receive treatment then there is a 75% chance of death. Therefore, dietary changes should be made which is that milk and milk containing products should be avoided in diets.
_______ are drugs that elevate mood, increase energy and alertness, and give a feeling of euphoria in users.
Nurse Alex is reviewing the EMRs in preparation to trader Ms. Kline to the maternal newborn unit. Use the SBAR format to prepare a transfer report. (type your response in the text box below and then click the submit button).
Situation-Background-Assessment-Recommendation. The SBAR (Situation-Background-Assessment-Recommendation) technique provides a framework for dialogue among members of the healthcare team about a patient's condition.
What does the acronym EMR mean?
A patient's medical history, diagnoses, medications, immunization records, allergies, lab results, and doctor's notes are all included in an electronic medical record (EMR), which is a digital representation of all the information that would typically be found in a doctor's paper chart.
The SBAR format is as follows:
S: Ms. Kline, who is 25 years old and 27 weeks pregnant, is a female. She entered the ED this morning and is a G1, P0.
B: Ms. Kline describes a sudden weight increase, a new beginning of N/V, as well as headaches and blurred vision. She claims to have had breakfast this morning but claims she vomited shortly after.
A: Right upper quadrant pain, N/V, blurred vision, and a headache are reported by the patient. The vital signs are as follows: BP 162/88, HR 92, RR 22, Temp 37, Urine Protein 1, Deep Tendon Reflexes 3, and O2 97%.
R: Transfer to the Maternal Newborn Unit
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the maximum cns effect of caffeine is reached about _____ after drinking coffee.
The maximum CNS (central nervous system) effect of caffeine is reached about 30 to 60 minutes after drinking coffee.
Caffeine is a stimulant that affects the central nervous system by blocking the action of adenosine, a neurotransmitter that promotes relaxation and sleep. By blocking adenosine receptors, caffeine increases brain activity and alertness. After consuming caffeine, it is rapidly absorbed into the bloodstream from the digestive tract and reaches peak levels in the blood within 30 to 60 minutes. From there, it readily crosses the blood-brain barrier and enters the central nervous system, where it exerts its effects.
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what’s the potential role of inflammation in atherosclerosis progression?
Answer:
Explanation:
Inflammation plays a very important role in atherosclerosis progression, due to the fact that it separates and identifies the stage of the plaque. Stable plaques are characterized by a chronic inflammatory infiltrate, while on the other hand vulnerable and ruptured plaques are represented by an ongoing inflammation which causes the fibrous cap to thin out and may lead to that plaque rupturing.
the nurse is performing discharge teaching for a client with a peripherally inserted central catheter (picc). which instructions would the nurse include? select all that apply.
After the first 24 hours, put on a transparent outfit that is recommended. Scan the area where the catheter was inserted for edoema, redness, and discharge. When changing the dressing, take care not to move the catheter. central catheter that is introduced from the outside.
A PICC is a small, flexible tube that is threaded into the superior vena cava, a significant vein located above the right side of the heart. It is placed into an upper arm vein. Injectable fluids, blood transfusions, chemotherapy, and other medications are administered through it. A long, thin tube called a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line is used to give nourishment or drugs to a patient. It is often put into the right cephalic vein in adult patients.
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the nurse is performing discharge teaching for a client with a peripherally inserted central catheter (picc). which instructions would the nurse include?
What can you do to get rid of black gums at home?
Seek help of a PROFESSIONAL .
Help ASAP
Discussion Topic
The discussion is where you discuss a specific health topic with the rest of the class.
Read through the topic thoroughly, then post your thoughts on the appropriate discussion
board. Write at least one well-developed paragraph. As this is a discussion, don't forget to
respond to at least two other students. Please be courteous and use proper netiquette.
Discussion 1.1 Informing Teens
Do you feel that educators, law enforcement, and parents are doing enough to inform
teens about the dangers of drugs and alcohol? Why or why not?
Exit Graded Dis
Answer:
no i dont because 70% of all teenagers admit to drinking alcohol. One in 10 teens in high school drinks and drives and 21.3% of 8th graders have tried illicit drugs at least once. By the time they're in 12th grade, 46.6% of teens have tried illicit drugs. 11.89 million 18- to 25-year-olds used drugs in the last month. 4,777 Americans aged 15 to 24 years old died of an overdose of illicit drugs in one year. i dont think parents think their child will do drugs so they dont think to tell them the consequences of drugs and drinking. alot of teens drink or do drugs because they are peer pressured or are feeling down and want to get away.
Explanation:
An example of a research approach that assesses change after the treatment or intervention is over is:
Answer:
Experimental Design
Explanation:
An example of a research approach that assesses change after the treatment or intervention is over is experimental design. The correct option is c.
What is an experimental design?The aim of preparing research in a goal and monitored manner in order to maximize precision and draw specific conclusions about a hypothesis statement is known as experimental design.
Experimental design is an example of a research approach that assesses change after the treatment or intervention has ended.
Thus, the correct option is c.
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The missing options of the question are:
a. Phenomenologyb. Correlational Designc. Experimental Designd. A-B-A DesignIn the synaptic cleft, three nursing students discussed what would have to be absent to prevent the action potential from moving from the pre-synaptic membrane to the post-synaptic membrane:
1) Debra suggested that Ca++ would have to be missing to prevent the action potential from moving from the pre-synaptic membrane to the post-synaptic membrane.
2) Larry stated that Ca++ would have to be missing because it is the neurotransmitter that takes the messages from the pre-synaptic membrane to the post-synaptic membrane.
3) Timothy thought that the secretory vesicles would have to be absent to prevent the action potential from moving from the pre-synaptic membrane to the post-synaptic membrane since it contains the neurotransmitter responsible for taking the message from one membrane to the next.
(HELP NEEDED ASAP. THANK U SO MUCH)
Synapses are the communication links between neurons. The synaptic cleft, which is a space between the presynaptic axon terminal and the postsynaptic dendrite that is created when an action potential contacts. Thus, option C is correct.
What pre-synaptic to the post-synaptic membrane?Timothy reasoned that since the secretory vesicles contain the neurotransmitter necessary for transferring the message from one membrane to the next.
They would have to be absent in order to stop the action potential from travelling from the pre-synaptic membrane to the post-synaptic membrane.
Therefore, The presynaptic terminal, is where neurotransmitters are released from the neuron (often a spine).
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How can nurses uphold principles of primary healthcare and wellness?
Answer:
The principle of wellness can be incorporated in nursing care by helping and encouraging the patients to do activities of daily living. ... Therefore, the patients should be assisted and trained or taught how they can be able to meet their activities of daily living.
thanxx for points .....
How did john watson have different view from sigmund freud
Explanation:
John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism.
Freud incorporated the concept of the unconscious to explain transference. Watson understood and was intrigued by Freud's definition of sexual transference, but he was searching for an explanation of transference that did not involve the unconscious (Watson & Morgan, 1917)
Answer:
John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism. After failing to explain psychoanalysis in terms of William James's concept of habit, Watson borrowed concepts from classical conditioning to explain Freud's discoveries. Watson's famous experiment with Little Albert is interpreted not only in the context of Pavlovian conditioning but also as a psychoanalytically inspired attempt to capture simplified analogues of adult phobic behavior, including the "transference" of emotion in an infant. Watson used his behavioristic concept of conditioned emotional responses to compete with Freud's concepts of displacement and the unconscious transference of emotion. Behind a mask of anti-Freudian bias, Watson surprisingly emerges as a psychologist who popularized Freud and pioneered the scientific appraisal of his ideas in the laboratory.
Explanation:
set as brainliest
What body landmark does the ACL start from?
O Intercondylar notch
0 Tibial tuberosity
O Medial condyle
0 Fibular head
Answer:
The ACL originates from deep within the notch of the distal femur. Its proximal fibers fan out along the medial wall of the lateral femoral condyle. There are two bundles of the ACL: the anteromedial and the posterolateral, named according to where the bundles insert into the tibial plateau.
At a scene with downed electrical lines, the EMT should ______. remain outside the danger (hot) zone.
At a scene with downed electrical lines, the EMT should prioritize their safety remain outside the danger (hot) zone to prevent them from electrocution
Electricity can be extremely hazardous, and contact with live electrical lines poses a significant danger to both the public and emergency responders. It is essential for EMTs to recognize the potential risks and take appropriate precautions to ensure their safety.
When encountering a scene with downed electrical lines, EMTs should immediately establish a safe perimeter around the area and ensure that bystanders and other personnel are kept at a safe distance. They should not approach or touch any part of the electrical lines or any objects in contact with them.
EMTs should communicate the situation to the appropriate authorities, such as the local utility company or fire department, who are trained and equipped to handle electrical emergencies. They should provide accurate information regarding the location, nature of the incident, and any potential hazards present.
By remaining outside the danger zone, EMTs can minimize the risk of electric shock or injury to themselves and others. Their primary responsibility is to assess the scene, ensure the safety of all individuals involved, and await the arrival of specialized personnel who are trained in electrical hazard mitigation.
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why are chronic alcoholics at risk for zinc deficiency?
A client who has developed paralysis of the lower extremities is admitted to the hospital. The client shares information with the nurse regarding a severe emotional trauma that occurred 6 weeks ago. The nurse develops a plan of care, knowing which action is the priority?
The priority action is to ensure the client's physical well-being and provide necessary medical interventions and assessments to address the paralysis of the lower extremities. While the emotional trauma shared by the client is important, it should be addressed in conjunction with the physical care, ensuring a holistic approach to the client's overall well-being.
When a client with paralysis of the lower extremities is admitted to the hospital, it is essential to prioritize their physical well-being and address the immediate medical needs related to the paralysis. While the emotional trauma shared by the client is significant, the priority at this stage is to provide the necessary medical care and interventions. Here's a step-by-step approach to prioritize the actions:Assess the client's physical condition: The nurse should conduct a thorough assessment to evaluate the extent and cause of the paralysis. This may involve gathering information about the client's medical history, performing physical examinations, and ordering relevant diagnostic tests.Stabilize the client: If the client's condition is unstable or if there are immediate concerns, the nurse should take appropriate measures to ensure the client's safety and well-being. This may involve calling for assistance, providing necessary interventions (e.g., administering medication, initiating intravenous access), and initiating emergency protocols if required.Collaborate with the healthcare team: The nurse should communicate and collaborate with other healthcare professionals, such as physicians, physical therapists, and occupational therapists, to develop a comprehensive plan of care for the client. This plan should address both the physical and emotional needs of the client.Provide emotional support: While addressing the physical needs, the nurse should also offer emotional support and reassurance to the client. This can include active listening, acknowledging the client's emotions, and providing information about available resources for coping with emotional trauma, such as counseling or therapy services.For more such questions on paralysis , click on:
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tobacco product that heats tobacco or synthetic nicotine without burning it, producing an aerosol.
Tobacco product that heats tobacco or synthetic nicotine without burning it, producing an Aerosol are Tobacco heating products (THPs), also known as heat-not-burn products, these are designed to heat tobacco or synthetic nicotine without combustion, thus producing an aerosol instead of smoke.
These devices offer a distinct alternative to traditional cigarettes and other smoking methods, which involve burning tobacco and generate harmful smoke containing carcinogens and toxins.
THPs work by using an electronically controlled heating element that maintains a consistent temperature below the combustion point of tobacco. This process results in the release of nicotine and other flavors in the form of an aerosol, which is inhaled by the user. The aerosol produced typically contains fewer harmful chemicals compared to conventional cigarette smoke.
Some well-known examples of THPs are the IQOS by Philip Morris International and the glo by British American Tobacco. These products have gained popularity in recent years, as they are marketed as potentially reduced-risk alternatives to conventional smoking.
However, it is important to note that while THPs may produce fewer harmful substances than traditional cigarettes, they are not completely risk-free. There is still ongoing research to fully understand the long-term health effects associated with using these devices. Public health experts advise that the best approach for reducing tobacco-related harm is complete cessation of tobacco and nicotine products.
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a 28-year-old male is admitted to the burn unit 2 hours after receiving partial thickness and full thickness burns over 50% of his body surface in an industrial explosion. abnormal vital signs include low blood pressure and tachycardia. lab results show a high hematocrit due to:
According to test results, fluid flow out of the vascular region is what causes the elevated hematocrit.
What do doctors do for tachycardia?A heartbeat that is more over 100 beats a minute at rest is referred to as tachycardia. It can begin in either the lower or upper chambers of the heart and can be anything from minor to fatal. Medicines, an ablation operation, and the installation of an implanted cardioverter defibrillator (ICD) are all forms of treatment.
What causes tachycardia most frequently?Tachycardia can be brought on by a number of illnesses that affect the heart, such as high blood pressure (hypertension), coronary artery diseases (atherosclerosis), heart valve illness, heart failure, cardiac muscle illness (cardiomyopathy), tumors, or infections.
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Describe the deductible, coinsurance, and copayment requirements for an HMO plan.
Answer:
A deductible is the amount you pay for health care services before your health insurance begins to pay. The deductible in the HMO Plan will pay the full charges once you have reached the total deductible. You will start paying less, with a copay or coinsurance, depending on the selected plan. When the limit is reached, you share the cost with your plan by paying coinsurance.
Coinsurance is a percentage of a medical charge that you pay, with the rest paid by your health insurance plan, that typically applies after your deductible has been met. Let's say your health insurance plan's allowed amount for an office visit is $50 and your coinsurance is 20%. All you have to pay is the 20% and your coinsurance will pay the rest.
A health insurance copayment is a fixed amount a healthcare beneficiary pays for covered medical services. The rest of the balance is paid for by the person's insurance company. Copays for standard doctor visits are typically lower than those for specialists.