Answers
Answer:
A member of a Medicare Advantage plan can enroll in a Medicare Supplement insurance plan, but they cannot use both plans at the same time. They must choose to enroll in either a Medicare Advantage plan or a Medicare Supplement insurance plan. Once they enroll in a Medicare Supplement insurance plan, they will be disenrolled from the Medicare Advantage plan. It's important to note that Medicare Advantage plans often include additional benefits, such as dental and vision coverage, that are not covered by Medicare Supplement plans. Therefore, before enrolling in a Medicare Supplement insurance plan, it's recommended to compare the benefits and costs of both options to determine which one is the best fit for the individual's healthcare needs and budget.
When a consumer enrolls in a Medicare Supplement Insurance Plan, he/she is not automatically disenrolled from his/her MA Plan.
The correct statement is: When a consumer enrolls in a Medicare Supplement Insurance Plan, he/she is not automatically disenrolled from his/her MA Plan.
Medicare Supplement Insurance Plans, also known as Medigap plans, are designed to work alongside Original Medicare (Parts A and B) to help cover certain out-of-pocket costs such as copayments, deductibles, and coinsurance. Medicare Supplement plans do not include prescription drug coverage, so beneficiaries may choose to enroll in a separate stand-alone Medicare Part D Prescription Drug Plan.
On the other hand, Medicare Advantage (MA) Plans, also known as Medicare Part C, are an alternative to Original Medicare and are offered by private insurance companies approved by Medicare. MA Plans provide all the benefits of Original Medicare, and many plans also include additional benefits like prescription drug coverage, dental, vision, and hearing services.
A member of an MA Plan can choose to switch to a Medicare Supplement Insurance Plan during certain enrollment periods, but doing so does not automatically disenroll them from their MA Plan. Enrolling in a Medicare Supplement plan means they will continue to be covered by Original Medicare and the new Medigap plan, but they will no longer receive the additional benefits provided by their MA Plan.
It's important for beneficiaries to carefully review their health care needs and coverage options before making any changes to their Medicare plan. It's also advisable to consult with a licensed insurance agent or Medicare counselor to ensure they understand the implications of their choices and select the most suitable coverage for their individual circumstances.
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The complete question is:
Which statement is true about a member of a Medicare Advantage (MA) Plan who wants to enroll in a Medicare Supplement Insurance Plan?
When a consumer enrolls in a Medicare Supplement Insurance Plan, he/she is automatically disenrolled from his/her MA Plan.A member does not need a valid election period to disenroll from an MA plan.When a consumer enrolls in a Medicare Supplement Insurance Plan, he/she is not automatically disenrolled from his/her MA Plan.A consumer can use a Medicare Supplement Insurance Plan and an MA Plan at the same time.Related Questions
Ms. Smart is the coding supervisor for Sunny Valley Hospital. She is organizing a coding training on ICD-10-PCS. She is reviewing the ICD-10-PCS Code Manual for a code for a robotic-assisted procedure completed on the arm via an open incision. The code she should use in addition to the code for the procedure being coded is code ________________________.
Answers
Answer: S2900
Explanation:
The code for a technique during surgery that would require the doctor to use robotic assistance is S2900. The title of the code is ''Surgical techniques requiring use of robotic surgical system''.
It is worth knowing that Medicare does not cover this procedure separately because it is considered a tool in the surgery much like any other tool with the difference being that it is more sophisticated.
a 75- kg person is exposed to this radiation for 1.00 year (365 days ). if each alpha particle deposits 8.00×10−13 j what is the number of rads absorbed by the person?
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
To calculate the number of rads absorbed by a person exposed to radiation, we need to use the formula:
Rads = Energy absorbed (Joules) / Mass (kg)
Given:
Mass of the person = 75 kg
Energy deposited by each alpha particle = 8.00×10^(-13) J
Exposure time = 1.00 year = 365 days
First, we need to calculate the total energy absorbed by the person over the given exposure time. We can find this by multiplying the energy deposited by each alpha particle by the number of alpha particles received by the person.
To determine the number of alpha particles, we need to know the rate of alpha particle emission or the activity of the radiation source. Without this information, it is not possible to calculate the exact number of alpha particles.
The number of rads absorbed can be determined by dividing the total energy absorbed by the mass of the person.
Please provide the rate of alpha particle emission or the activity of the radiation source so that we can calculate the number of rads absorbed accurately.
Which of the following materials is a temporary restorative material?
Answers
Answer:
please where are the materials so that I can answer your question. No materials have been listed. please Re-write the question
G confirms a supraventricular tachycardia with no evidence of ischemia or infarction. The heart rate has not responded to vagal maneuvers. What is your next action
Answers
Administer a pharmacological intervention, such as adenosine or a beta-blocker, to restore normal sinus rhythm.
Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is a rapid heart rhythm originating from above the ventricles. When vagal maneuvers, such as bearing down or the Valsalva maneuver, fail to restore a normal heart rate, the next step is to administer a pharmacological intervention.
Adenosine is commonly used as the first-line medication for terminating SVT. It is administered rapidly through intravenous (IV) access and works by temporarily blocking the electrical conduction in the heart, which can help restore a normal sinus rhythm. Adenosine has a short half-life, so any adverse effects are usually transient.
Alternatively, a beta-blocker medication, such as metoprolol or esmolol, can be administered to slow down the heart rate and restore normal rhythm. These medications work by blocking the effects of adrenaline on the heart, reducing its rate and contractility.
The choice of medication depends on the patient's condition, underlying comorbidities, and any contraindications.
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which group of patients are at higher risk of misidentification
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Patients who are at higher risk of misidentification include those who are unable to communicate their identity clearly or accurately, such as patients who are unconscious, confused, or nonverbal.
Additionally, patients who have a history of medical errors or adverse events, or who have complex medical conditions or multiple medications, may be at higher risk of misidentification. Patients who receive care in busy or high-stress environments, such as emergency departments or intensive care units, may also be at increased risk of misidentification due to the potential for communication breakdowns or distractions.
It is important for healthcare providers to implement strategies and protocols to reduce the risk of misidentification and to verify patient identity consistently throughout the care process. This can include using multiple identifiers, such as name, date of birth, and medical record number, and involving patients and families in the identification process.
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Groups of patients with higher risk of misidentification include the elderly, patients with mental health issues, children, and patients who are critically ill, unconscious, or have severe trauma.
Explanation:Several groups of patients are at a higher risk of misidentification. Firstly, elderly patients can be at a higher risk due to cognitive disorders or communication difficulties. Secondly, patients with mental health issues can also be at risk as they may have trouble comprehending or have hallucinations. Thirdly, children could be at higher risk especially when they're too young to identify themselves. Lastly, patients who are critically ill, unconscious, or suffering from severe trauma may also have difficulty identifying themselves, leading to risk of misidentification.
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HCPCS level II codes are: a. sometimes replaced by HCPCS level III temporary codes. b. intended for use by all private and public health insurers. c. maintained by the AMA's Editorial Board, which makes decisions about additions, revisions, and deletions. d. updated by CMS when necessary, without participation by the HCPCS National Panel.
Answers
Answer:
HCPCS Level II codes are alphanumeric medical procedure codes, primarily for non-physician services such as ambulance services and prosthetic devices,. They represent items, supplies and non-physician services not covered by CPT-4 codes (Level I).
Explanation:
The doctor has ordered the client to receive 1050 mg of Amoxicillin PO BID. The safe dose range
for Amoxicillin is 100-250 mg/kg/dose. The client's last recorded weight was 5 kg. Calculate the
safe dose range and determine if the medication is safe to administer. Round to the nearest
tenth.
Answers
Explanation:
To calculate the safe dose range for Amoxicillin for this client, we need to use the client's weight to determine the maximum and minimum safe dose range.
Maximum safe dose range = 250 mg/kg/dose x 5 kg = 1250 mg/dose
Minimum safe dose range = 100 mg/kg/dose x 5 kg = 500 mg/dose
Therefore, the safe dose range for Amoxicillin for this client is between 500 mg/dose and 1250 mg/dose.
The ordered dose of Amoxicillin is 1050 mg PO BID (twice daily).
To determine if this medication is safe to administer, we need to calculate the total daily dose and compare it to the safe dose range.
Total daily dose = 1050 mg x 2 doses/day = 2100 mg/day
The total daily dose of 2100 mg/day is within the safe dose range of 500 mg/dose to 1250 mg/dose for this client.
Therefore, it is safe to administer the ordered dose of Amoxicillin to this client.
a nursing assistant should carefully recap used syringes before putting them in a bio-hazard container
Answers
How does the healthcare facility utilize the United States Postal Service (USPS) and
other delivery companies?
Answers
the registered nurse (rn) is caring for a client with epilepsy. which task delegated by the rn to the members of the health care team indicates active delegation? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct. ensuring the uap assists with activities of daily living
Answers
Performing the duties outlined in the employment description, such as those of a doctor or pharmacist, is an example of passive delegation. The right options are 2,4,5.
Passive delegation is used by the person performing this position to do these responsibilities. The passive delegation would include telling the LPN to deliver the medicine diazepam, which the main healthcare physician had previously prescribed. Passive delegation occurs when the LVN is told to deliver sedatives that the main healthcare physician has previously prescribed. Active delegation occurs when the RN assigns specific responsibilities to assistive workers and holds them accountable. In this case, the RN instructs the LPN to keep track of vital signs. As the UAP is acting out specific actions that are ordered by the RN, ordering the UAP to relocate the client is likewise an active delegation. As the RN instructs support staff to carry out specific tasks, directing the UAP to put on the oxygen mask is an example of active delegation.
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what do the bacterial survival mechanisms of capsules, fimbriae, and mycolic acid have in common?
Answers
They are all bacterial adaptations for survival.
What common purpose do capsules, fimbriae, and mycolic acid serve in bacterial survival?These bacterial adaptations for survival share a common purpose in providing various forms of protection and advantages for the bacteria.
Capsules are outer layers of polysaccharides or proteins that surround some bacteria.
They serve as a protective barrier against the host's immune system by making it difficult for immune cells to engulf and destroy the bacteria.
Capsules also help bacteria adhere to surfaces, facilitating the formation of biofilms and enhancing their ability to colonize and persist in the host.
Fimbriae, also known as pili, are hair-like appendages on the surface of bacteria. They play a crucial role in bacterial attachment to host cells or surfaces.
Fimbriae enable bacteria to adhere tightly to specific tissues, enhancing their ability to establish infections and resist removal by mechanical forces or the host's immune response.
Mycolic acid is a waxy lipid found in the cell walls of certain bacteria, particularly in the Mycobacterium genus.
It provides resistance to environmental stresses, including antibiotics and disinfectants, as well as protection against the host's immune system.
Mycolic acid contributes to the characteristic features of mycobacteria, such as their acid-fast staining properties and their ability to persist within host tissues, causing chronic infections like tuberculosis and leprosy.
In summary, capsules, fimbriae, and mycolic acid are all bacterial survival mechanisms that confer advantages in terms of immune evasion, adherence to surfaces, and resistance to hostile environments.
These adaptations contribute to the ability of bacteria to establish infections and persist within host organisms.
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A venipuncture glucose needs to be collected from a patient. The blood collected chart shows that you can only collect 2ml safely. You have only 4ml gray tubes in your tray. Which of the following actions should you take?
Answers
The action you should take is to fill the tube halfway.
Venipuncture is a procedure performed by a trained medical personnel (phlebotomist) who uses needle to take blood from the vein for diagnostic purposes.
The blood collected chart is an information that states the correct specimen collection technique for each disease condition.
From the instructions given, the blood collected chart states that you should collect 2ml.
But 4ml gray tubes is only available.
Therefore, the blood is collected till the tube is half filled which will give a total of 2ml that was stated in the blood collected chart
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Somebody once told me the world is gonna roll me
I ain't the sharpest tool in the shed
She was looking kind of dum with her finger and her thumb
In the shape of an "L" on her forehead
Well the years start coming and they don't stop coming
Fed to the rules and I hit the ground running
Didn't make sense not to live for fun
Your brain gets smart but your head gets dum
So much to do, so much to see
So what's wrong with taking the back streets?
You'll never know if you don't go
You'll never shine if you don't glow
Hey now, you're an all-star, get your game on, go play
Hey now, you're a rock star, get the show on, get paid
And all that glitters is gold
Only shooting stars break the mold
It's a cool place and they say it gets colder
You're bundled up now, wait 'til you get older
But the meteor men beg to differ
Judging by the hole in the satellite picture
The ice we skate is getting pretty thin
The water's getting warm so you might as well swim
My world's on fire, how about yours?
That's the way I like it and I'll never get bored
Hey now, you're an all-star, get your game on, go play
Hey now, you're a rock star, get the show on, get paid
All that glitters is gold
Only shooting stars break the mold
Hey now, you're an all-star, get your game on, go play
Hey now, you're a rock star, get the show, on get paid
And all that glitters is gold
Only shooting stars
Somebody once asked could I spare some change for gas?
I need to get myself away from this place
I said, "Yup" what a concept
I could use a little fuel myself
And we could all use a little change
Well, the years start coming and they don't stop coming
Fed to the rules and I hit the ground running
Didn't make sense not to live for fun
Your brain gets smart but your head gets dum
So much to do, so much to see
So what's wrong with taking the back streets?
You'll never know if you don't go (go!)
You'll never shine if you don't glow
Hey now, you're an all-star, get your game on, go play
Hey now, you're a rock star, get the show on, get paid
And all that glitters is gold
Only shooting stars break the mold
And all that glitters is gold
Only shooting stars break the mold
Answers
How is ur day every body cuz mine is terrible
Answers
Answer:
I am sooo sorry.. if you don't mind me asking what happened
Explanation:
Answer:
my day was horrible too i didnt know i didnt have school today and i woke up extra early super tired just to find out we have no school now im having trouble going back to bed so im staying up and im super tired
FILL IN THE BLANK. when utilizing the multiple pass technique of the 24-hour dietary recall method, the first pass is completed when_____
Answers
While using the 24-hour dietary recall method's multiple pass technique, the first pass is finished when the client remembers every food and drink they had the day before.
What is one difficulty with using the 24-hour recall diet analysis method?One of the main issues with nutritional assessment surveys that use the multiple-pass 24-hour recall is underreporting due to the limitations of human memory.
How frequently are new versions of the Dietary Guidelines released?Every five years, the United States Departments of Health and Human Services (HHS) and Agriculture (USDA) collaborate to revise and publish the Dietary Guidelines. In order to incorporate the most recent developments in nutrition science, the Dietary Guidelines have been updated.
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A nurse is planning care for a clienct who is receiving mannitol via continuous IV infusion. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects? A. Weight loss B. Increased intraocular pressure C. Auditory hallucinations D. Bibasilar crackles
Answers
When monitoring a client receiving mannitol via continuous IV infusions, the nurse should watch for the following adverse effect: D. Bibasilar crackles.
Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic used to treat increased intracranial pressure and cerebral edema. Some potential adverse effects of mannitol include electrolyte imbalances, dehydration, and pulmonary edema. Bibasilar crackles can be an indication of pulmonary edema, which is a concerning side effect of mannitol. Therefore, the nurse should monitor for bibasilar crackles during the infusion. Bibasilar crackles are a crackling or bubbling sound that doctors may hear in the lungs during a physical examination. They can indicate mucus or fluid in the base of the lungs, possibly due to pneumonia or heart failure. Hence the correct option is D. Bibasilar crackles.
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1IRB members must:
A. All be physicians who can assess subject safety.
B. Be affiliated with the institute or study site conducting the study.
C. Have the qualifications and experience to review and evaluate the scientific, medical, behavioral, social, legal, ethical, and non-scientific aspects of a proposed study.
D. Be investigators on the study.
2The site staff has prepared a postcard to be sent to past study participants telling them about a new study that they may have an interested in. This postcard does not have to be reviewed by the IRB.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
3A clinical investigator cannot be a member of the IRB.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
4An IRB may perform an expedited review of a protocol or informed consent form change if the change involves no more than minimal risk to study participants.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
5Regulations require IRBs to review ongoing research studies:
A. Every 3 months.
B. Every 6 months.
C. Once a year.
D. Every 2 years.
Answers
1. Have the qualifications and experience to review and evaluate the scientific, medical, behavioral, social, legal, ethical, and non-scientific aspects of a proposed study., 2. False, 3. False, 4. True, 5. Every 6 months.
1. IRB members must have the qualifications and experience to review and evaluate various aspects of a proposed study, including scientific, medical, behavioral, social, legal, ethical, and non-scientific aspects. This ensures that the study is safe, ethical, and scientifically sound.
2. This statement is false. Any communication with past study participants about a new study must be reviewed and approved by the IRB to ensure that it is not coercive and provides accurate information.
3. This statement is false. A clinical investigator can be a member of the IRB, but they cannot participate in the IRB's review of their own study.
4. This statement is true. An expedited review may be performed for minor changes to a protocol or informed consent form that pose no more than minimal risk to study participants.
5. This statement is false. Regulations require IRBs to review ongoing research studies at least once a year, but they may choose to review them more frequently if necessary.
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In osteoporosis, the bones become weak due, in part, to bone reabsorption. Which cell type is probably highly active in this disease?
Osteogenic
Osteoblast
Osteocyte
Osteoclast
Answers
Answer:
Osteoclast
Explanation:
Osteo means bone
Clast means to deteriate
effects of paracetamol on enzymes involved in the pain
Answers
Answer:
vomiting,possibly blood in vomit,muscle spasms,
Explanation:
1. given that ventilation–perfusion is gravity dependent, how does your body position affect where the greatest volume of ventilation–perfusion occurs?
Answers
Ventilation–perfusion is gravity dependent, so your body position can impact where the greatest volume of ventilation–perfusion occurs. When an individual is standing up, the lung's blood vessels in the lower areas of the lungs receive more blood.
As a result, a greater volume of ventilation-perfusion takes place in the lower sections of the lungs because of the higher blood supply. Ventilation is the process of moving air into and out of the lungs.
Perfusion is the process of providing blood to the body's tissues. Ventilation-perfusion refers to the balance between these two processes in the lungs. It's essential to ensure that the blood is oxygenated and that carbon dioxide is removed.
When we inhale, air enters the body and oxygen passes through the lungs' alveoli into the bloodstream. The blood then transports oxygen to the body's tissues and removes carbon dioxide. The amount of blood flowing to each area of the lungs can change depending on body position. This can impact ventilation-perfusion.
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which information would the nurse include in the discharge teaching of a postpartum client? the prenatal kegel tightening exercises should be continued. a bowel movement may not occur for up to a week after the birth. the episiotomy sutures will be removed at the first postpartum visit. a postpartum checkup should be scheduled as soon as menses returns
Answers
The nurse must include in the discharge teaching of a postpartum client that the prenatal kegel tightening exercises should be continued, which is in Option A, as these exercises are done after birth to improve pelvic muscles, strengthen them, and promote healing.
What are prenatal kegel tightening exercises?It is a type of exercise that helps to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, which can become weakened during pregnancy and childbirth, and the nurse should also tell the client about the irregular bowel movements.
Hence, the nurse must include in the discharge teaching of a postpartum client that the prenatal kegel tightening exercises should be continued, which is in Option A.
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The question is incomplete, complete question is below
which information would the nurse include in the discharge teaching of a postpartum client?
a)the prenatal kegel tightening exercises should be continued.
b)a bowel movement may not occur for up to a week after the birth.
c) the episiotomy sutures will be removed at the first postpartum visit.
d)a postpartum checkup should be scheduled as soon as menses returns
As the tension of vocal folds in the larynx increase, the voice becomes ________.
Answers
Answer:
higher in pitch
Value: 1
When caring for a resident, it is best to avoid the use of restraints whenever possible. If a restraint is ordered and
must be used, which practice is not recommended?
O a. Observe the resident frequently.
O b. Maintain a calm environment.
O c. Approach care with a gentleness, kindness and respect.
O d. Determine effectiveness by testing out a different restraint on the resident.
Answers
The weird option that sounds is the statement number 4. Option 4 is the correct answer.
What is the best thing that is done in this situation ?In this situation the best things that is done to keep calm and handle the situation peacefully.
Observe the resident again and again to check the response that is given by the body so that a problem has not occured in the fractions of the time. Maintaining a calm and peaceful environment is very important as the haste makes up the waste.
Approach care with a gentleness, kindness and respect to avoid any kind of panic situations that can happen. Determine effectiveness by testing out a different restraint on the resident sounds wrong because it is not wise to directly experiment without having much of the ideas.
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To collect a stool specimen, you should:
Answers
Answer:1.label a clean, screw-top container with your name, date of birth and date
Explanation:
why shouldn't you use an AED on someone having a heart attack
Answers
Answer:
Remember, a heart attack can turn into cardiac arrest if the heart becomes damaged. If the person is not responsive when you yell at him, assume it is CARDIAC ARREST and start CPR.
Explanation:
The AED
could change the heartbeat pattern
Alice is 10 years old and over the past few years has had several fractures even though she is not an active child. A recent blood test indicated that her alkaline phosphatase level was highly elevated. What diagnosis is possible with her history and lab values? What are some treatment options if your diagnosis is correct?
Answers
Answer:
Paget's Disease? Order physical therapy and possibly bisphosphonates
Explanation:
Answer:
This can be treated by Increase in her calcium level
Explanation:
This case shows that alice is experiencing decrease in her calcium level and it is what is leading to these fractures. It is what is causing the increasing alkaline phosphatase. To treat this, calcium carbonate and calcium citrates can be used. Also vitamin d can be used for treatment. SERM modulatotors can be used also as treatment.
What would happen if Portia told Ms. Hilbert that her visit today will be covered 100 percent by her insurance company, based on what she learned about Mr. Campbell’s insurance with the same company?
Answers
If Portia told Ms. Hilbert that her visit today will be covered 100 percent by her insurance company it is attainable for Portia Milstine the MA (Medical Assisstant) at the front table to commit miscalculation of faulty categorization by presumptuous that Mrs. Hilbert's edges are identical as that of Josiah Campbell.
The fact that they're colleagues within the same place of labor, with an equivalent form of card doesn't mean that they need an equivalent medical cowl or health advantages.
Should the caregiver proceed to bill Mrs. David Hilbert on an equivalent basis, as Mr. Josiah, she would be committing a charge error. There are different varieties of billing errors that are common among medical assistants. They are:
Wrong Patient information
Duplicate billing
Balance billing
The question is incomplete, complete question is here
Patient Kenya Hilbert arrives for an appointment and gives the medical assistant, Portia Milstine, MA, her insurance card. Portia notices that the insurance company is Healthy Way Insurance and that Ms. Hilbert works for the Exact Accounting Company, a large company near the medical clinic. She recalls that this morning Josiah Campbell came in and that he also had Healthy Way Insurance and also works for the Exact Accounting Company. When she verified his benefits, she learned that preventive care is covered at 100 percent, and for other services, patients must pay a $20.00 copayment. The office is busy this afternoon, so Portia wonders if she really needs to take the time to verify the benefits for Ms. Hilbert. After all, it looks like she has the exact same insurance that Mr. Campbell had, and she already verified his benefits.
What would happen if Portia told Ms. Hilbert that her visit today will be covered 100 percent by her insurance company, based on what she learned about Mr. Campbell’s insurance with the same company?
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Your friends Russ and Damion, invite you to watch the NBA Finals. They have a
luxurious spread of meats, cheeses, chips, pretzels, and dips. What is a party without some
fruit punch and lemonade? While cheering on his BFF Kevin, Russ stuffs his face with a square
piece of Colby Jack Cheese. Suddenly in the cheering of a big-time defensive play, you notice
Russ looking panicked and reaching for a drink of his lemonade. He then begins to place his
hands around his throat.
Answers
Answer:
fruit punch and lemonade please
Explanation:
when increasing the number of patients or events from one pdsa cycle to the next, it is usually helpful to multiply by what number?
Answers
Every time you complete one successful test and go on to the next, the 5X Rule suggests increasing by a factor of five. Plan-Do-Study-Act (PDSA cycle) is an iterative, four-stage problem-solving methodology used to enhance a process or implement change.
Internal and external customers should be involved while adopting the PDSA cycle since they may offer input on what works and what doesn't. Teams are able to gradually develop a higher level of belief thanks to iterative test cycles. o For early PDSA cycles, the 1:1:1 test (example: "1 provider, 1 patient, 1 interaction") is a helpful guideline. The Plan-Do-Study-Act (PDSA) cycle is an acronym for testing a change by organizing it, putting it into practice, evaluating the outcomes, and taking action based on what is discovered. A PDSA cycle example of a change: Getting medical professionals to engage in teach-back with patients. This PDSA cycle change example focuses on encouraging medical professionals to engage in teach-back with patients.
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Palliative care is reserved for patients who are terminally ill.
O False
O True
Answers
Answer:
the answer is false.
Explanation:
When a person has a life-limiting or terminal illness, palliative care enables them to live as fully and comfortably as they can.
Answer: True
Explanation: