54 x 120575957 divided by 12

Answer: 2. 55/8

Step-by-step explanation: Add the whole numbers first (5+1 = 6), then add the fractions (4/8 + 3/8 = 7/8). Now we have 6 7/8 and since they want the answer in fraction form we will multiply the 6 and the 8 (6x8=48) and then add the 7 to the 48 (7+48 =55) and we leave our answer over the denominator which is 8. This leaves us with the final answer of 55/8

ans;

240

hope it helps

it's the correct answer you can cross check

No, the system is inconsistent.

Explanation:

1. Consistency in a system of linear equations means that there exists at least one solution that satisfies all the equations.

2. An augmented matrix is a matrix that represents the system of linear equations by arranging the coefficients and constants in a matrix form.

3. In the augmented matrix, the pivot columns are the columns that contain the leading non-zero entry in each row.

4. For a system of linear equations with a 3x5 augmented matrix, there can be at most 3 pivot columns since each row can have only one leading non-zero entry.

5. If the fifth column of the augmented matrix is not a pivot column, it means that there are only 4 pivot columns in total.

6. Having more variables than pivot columns implies that there are free variables that can take any value.

7. The presence of free variables leads to either no solution or an infinite number of solutions, depending on the specific values assigned to the free variables.

8. Since the system has more variables than pivot columns (4 instead of 5), it indicates the presence of free variables, resulting in either no solution or an infinite number of solutions.

9. Therefore, the system is not consistent.

In summary, the system is inconsistent because the fifth column of the augmented matrix is not a pivot column, indicating the presence of free variables and resulting in either no solution or an infinite number of solutions.

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Answer:

6000000

Step-by-step explanation:

6•10^5=600000

(6x 10^6)x10=6000000

Points M and N will be located on the number line as:

M is at -15

N is at 3.

Here, we have,

to Find the Coordinate of a Point on a Number Line:

The number line gives us an idea of how real numbers are ordered, where we have the negative numbers to the left, and the positive numbers to the right.

The distance between two points on a number line is the number of units between both points.

Given that point L is at -6 on a number line, thus:

Point M is 9 units away from point L = -6 - 9 = -15

Point N is 9 units away from point L = -6 + 9 = 3

Therefore, points M and N will be located on the number line as:

M is at -15

N is at 3.

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The 99% confidence interval for the population mean blood hemoglobin is 12.31 < μ < 17. 69.

Given that,

Hemoglobin concentration in a sample of 12 men had a mean of 15 g/dl and a standard deviation of 3 g/dl.

We have to find the 99% confidence interval for the population mean blood hemoglobin.

We know that,

Let n = 12

Mean X = 15 g/dl

Standard deviation s = 3 g/dl

The critical value α = 0.01

Degree of freedom (df) = n - 1 = 12 - 1 = 11

\(t_c\) = \(z_{1-\frac{\alpha }{2}, n-1}\) = 3.106

Then the formula of confidential interval is

= (X - \(t_c\times \frac{s}{\sqrt{n} }\) ,  X + \(t_c\times \frac{s}{\sqrt{n} }\) )

= (15- 3.106 × \(\frac{3}{\sqrt{12} }\), 15 + 3.106 × \(\frac{3}{\sqrt{12} }\) )

= (12.31, 17.69)

Therefore, The 99% confidence interval for the population mean blood hemoglobin is 12.31 < μ < 17. 69.

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The primary clarifier is removing 67% of the TSS from the influent wastewater, resulting in an effluent with a TSS concentration of 100 mg/L. This is a significant reduction in TSS and is an important step in the overall wastewater treatment process.

The efficiency of the primary clarifier in removing total suspended (TSS) is 67%, based on the given influent and effluent TSS concentrations.

Primary clarifiers are used in wastewater treatment plants to remove settleable solids from wastewater. The TSS concentration is a measure of the amount of suspended solids present in the wastewater.

The efficiency of a clarifier in removing TSS is calculated as the percentage reduction in TSS concentration from the influent to the effluent.

In this case, the influent TSS concentration to the primary clarifier is 300 mg/L, and the effluent TSS concentration is 100 mg/L. Therefore, the TSS removal efficiency of the primary clarifier is calculated as follows:

TSS removal efficiency = [(influent TSS concentration - effluent TSS concentration) / influent TSS concentration] x 100%

= [(300 mg/L - 100 mg/L) / 300 mg/L] x 100%

= 67%

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Answer:

0.3

Step-by-step explanation:

Were you asking for 5% of 6? Because then you would just multiply 6 by 0.05 (because percents are always out of 100%, so converted to decimal it is out of 1) and then get 0.3

Answer: The percentage of 6 by 5 (i.e. 6:5) is 120

Step-by-step explanation:

Given: 6 by 5 i.e. 6/5

Solution: (value/ total value)* 100

hence, (6/5)*100

=1.2*100

=120.

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Answer:

x = 10

Explanation:

SAS means Side-Angle-Side. So, two triangles are congruent if they have 2 sides that are congruent and the angle in the middle is also congruent.

In this case, we have 2 sides congruent: AB with DE and AC with DF.

So, the triangles are congruent if the angles A and D are also congruent.

Therefore, we can write the following equation:

So, solving for x, we get:

Therefore, the value of x that prove that the triangles are congruent is x = 10

Answer:

See answers and explanations

Step-by-step explanation:

A) Discriminant = b² - 4ac = (12)² - 4(9)(4) = 144 - 144 = 0

B) Since the discriminant is 0, this means the equation only has one root.

C) The root is real in this case since the discriminant is not negative. Otherwise, we would have two imaginary roots if it were (remember that complex roots come in pairs)

sketch of the line 4x + 3y = 11, slope (-4/3),  y-intercept of the line y = 11/3

Step 1: Convert the equation to slope-intercept form (y = mx + b) by solving for y:

3y = -4x + 11

y = (-4/3)x + 11/3

Step 2: Identify the slope and y-intercept:

From the equation in slope-intercept form, we can see that the slope (m) is -4/3 and the y-intercept (b) is 11/3.

Step 3: Plot the y-intercept:

On the y-axis, mark a point at y = 11/3 (approximately 3.67). This is the y-intercept of the line.

Step 4: Use the slope to find additional points:

Using the slope of -4/3, we can find other points on the line. The slope represents the change in y for every 1 unit change in x. So, starting from the y-intercept, we can move down 4 units and to the right 3 units to find the next point, and continue this pattern to find more points.

Step 5: Connect the points:

Once you have a few points on the line, you can connect them with a straight line. Make sure the line extends beyond the plotted points to show that it continues indefinitely.

The resulting line should have a negative slope (-4/3) and be slanting downward from left to right.

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The side of the square equals half the minor axis of the ellipse.

To show that the side of the square is half the minor axis of the ellipse, we must prove that the angles of the ellipses and the squares are congruent. To do this, we must first draw in the diagonals of the square, which will form two additional isosceles triangles.

Since the ellipses are perpendicular, the angles of the ellipses and the squares will be the same. Since the angles of the isosceles triangles are equal, the side of the square must be equal to half of the minor axis of the ellipse. Therefore, the side of the square is equal to half of the minor axis of the ellipse.

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If the derivative of a function f(x) is always positive while the second derivative is always negative, it implies that the graph of f will always be decreasing and concave down.

The derivative of a function measures its rate of change at each point. If the derivative is always positive, it indicates that the function is always increasing. On the other hand, if the second derivative is always negative, it means that the rate of change of the derivative is decreasing, resulting in a concave down shape.

When a function is always decreasing, it means that as x increases, the corresponding y-values decrease. This behavior is consistent with the given information that the function is always negative. Additionally, when a function is concave down, its graph curves downward like a frown.

This concavity is determined by the negative second derivative, which indicates that the slope of the graph is decreasing. Therefore, based on the given conditions, the graph of f will always be decreasing and concave down.

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Answer: i think about 4800 liters

Step-by-step explanation:

600 feet/ by 8 liters of sq ft is 4800

See the attached table of genotypes.

A black horse with short hair has genotype Bxhh, where the x can be either B or b. According to the table, 3 of the 16 possible genotypes match this pattern, so the probability is 3/16.

The measure of each arc is 30.

The arc of a circle is defined as the part or segment of the circumference of a circle.

Given that, a circle, Chords NO and PQ are congruent. Arc NO measures 4x + 10 and Arc PQ measures 2x + 20.

We know that,

Chord Arcs Theorem :-

If two chords in a circle are congruent, then their intercepted arcs are congruent.

2x+20 = 4x+10

2x = 10

x = 5

Therefore,

2(5) + 20 = 30

Hence, the measure of each arc is 30.

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The required probability for the given event is given as 0.5.

Probability is the branch of Mathematics that deals with the measurement of the chance of occurrence of a random event.

The probability of any event always lie in the close interval of 0 and 1 [0,1].

Given that,

The probability of a door being locked is 70% = 0.7

Total number of keys is 10.

The number of keys being carried is 2.

Thus, there can be two cases for getting through the door.

Case 1: The door is locked.

The probability to open the door by 1 key is 1/10.

Then, the probability to open the door by 2 keys is 2/10 = 1/5.

Case 2: The door is open.

In this case no keys are needed which means the chance of getting through is the probability of door not being locked which is given as,

1 - 0.7 = 0.3.

Now, the overall probability should consider both the cases as,

P(getting through the door) = P(Door is closed and keys open it)

+ P(The door is open)

= 0.3 + 1/5

= 0.3 + 0.2

= 0.5.

Hence, the probability to get through the door without returning for more keys is 0.5.

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Answer:

15%

Step-by-step explanation:

You add up all the frequencies and divide by 9 (the amount 6 was rolled).

It adds up to 60. Divide 9 by 60 and you have 15%.

Answer:

The three bags for 92.50 pounds (offer B)

Step-by-step explanation:

Offer A:

\( \frac{35}{2 \times 25} = \frac{35}{50} = .7\)

Offer B:

\( \frac{92.50}{3 \times 50} = \frac{92.50}{150} = .617\)

Offer B has the lower unit price.

(1011000)2 = (130)8

Step by step solution

Step 1: Write down the binary number

(001011000)2

Group all the digits in sets of three starting from the LSB (far right). Add zeros to the left of the last digit if there aren't enough digits to make a set of three.

001 011 000

Step 2: Use the table above to convert each set of three into an octal digit. In this case,

001=1, 011=3, 000=0.

So, the number 130 is the octal equivalent to 1011000 in binary.

Step-by-step explanation:

If the firm is facing the threat of trade barriers such as high import tariffs or quotas and the firm has proprietary technology, the firm should consider:.If the firm is facing the threat of trade barriers such as high import tariffs or quotas and the firm has proprietary technology, the firm should consider:.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Equate the two opposite Angles

7x - 31 = 5x + 13                Subtract 5x from both sides

7x - 5x - 31 = 13                 Combine

2x - 31 = 13                        Add 31 to both sides

2x = 13 + 31                       Combine the right

2x = 44                             Divide by 2

x = 44/2

x = 22

Answer: 20 months

explanation: You subtract 8 from 28 since 8 is the amount he had before he joined. He also said he planned on reading 1 book per month after joining the club. You want to subtract the 8 since it isn't relevant to the book club books read.

There is a slight possibility of 0.000240 that  5 card hand contains a four-of-a-kind, where the four-of-a-kind rank is a face card.

Total possible outcomes=⁵²C₅

                                        = 2598960

P( 4-of-a-kind) = ¹³C₁ * ⁴C₄

                        = 13

P( choosing one card from the rest of the deck) = ⁴⁸C₁

                                                                                 =48

P( 4-of-a-kind card with one different card)

= desired outcome / total number of outcomes.

= (13* 48) / 2598960

= 624/2598960

= 0.000240

Therefore, we get that the probability is 0.0240% .

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Answer: B. statistic

Step-by-step explanation: A characteristic, usually a numerical value, which describes a sample, is called a statistic.

the 81% confidence interval for the average iron level of the sample is approximately 2.605 to 4.323.

To find the 81% confidence interval for the average iron level of a sample of 12 men, we can use the formula:
Confidence Interval = Sample Mean ± (Critical Value × Standard Error)
First, we need to calculate the critical value. Since the sample size is small (n < 30), we'll use a t-distribution. For an 81% confidence level with 12 degrees of freedom (n - 1), the critical value is approximately 1.372.
Next, we calculate the standard error using the formula:
Standard Error = Standard Deviation / √(Sample Size)
In this case, the standard deviation is 2.04 and the sample size is 12, so the standard error is approximately 0.589.
Now we can plug these values into the confidence interval formula:
Confidence Interval = 3.464 ± (1.372 × 0.589)
Calculating the upper and lower limits:
Upper Limit = 3.464 + (1.372 × 0.589) ≈ 4.323
Lower Limit = 3.464 - (1.372 × 0.589) ≈ 2.605

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Step-by-step explanation:

Notice that:

15x = 5 * 3x and 10y = 5 * 2y.

Since there is a common factor of 5,

we can take out the factor.

=> 15x + 10y = (5)(3x) + (5)(2y) = 5(3x + 2y).

The dividend in 2018 was $2.95, and it is expected to grow at a rate of 7.4% for the next five years and 2.6% thereafter. With an equity cost of capital of 8.6%, the value per share at the end of 2018 can be calculated.

To calculate the value per share at the end of 2018, we need to discount the expected future dividends using the dividend-discount model. The model assumes that the value of a stock is equal to the present value of all its expected future dividends.

First, we need to calculate the dividends for each year from 2019 to 2023. We start with the dividend in 2018, which was $2.95. We then increase it by 7.4% each year for the next five years:

Dividend in 2019 = $2.95 * (1 + 7.4%) = $3.17

Dividend in 2020 = $3.17 * (1 + 7.4%) = $3.40

Dividend in 2021 = $3.40 * (1 + 7.4%) = $3.65

Dividend in 2022 = $3.65 * (1 + 7.4%) = $3.92

Dividend in 2023 = $3.92 * (1 + 7.4%) = $4.22

After 2023, the dividend is expected to grow at a rate of 2.6% per year. To find the value per share at the end of 2018, we discount the future dividends to their present value using the equity cost of capital of 8.6%.

The present value of the dividends can be calculated as follows:

PV = (D1 / (1 + r)) + (D2 / (1 + r)^2) + ... + (Dn / (1 + r)^n)

where PV is the present value, D1 to Dn are the dividends for each year, r is the equity cost of capital, and n is the number of years.

In this case, n = 5 because we are discounting the dividends for the next five years. Let's calculate the present value:

PV = ($3.17 / (1 + 8.6%)) + ($3.40 / (1 + 8.6%)^2) + ($3.65 / (1 + 8.6%)^3) + ($3.92 / (1 + 8.6%)^4) + ($4.22 / (1 + 8.6%)^5)

PV = $3.17 / 1.086 + $3.40 / 1.086^2 + $3.65 / 1.086^3 + $3.92 / 1.086^4 + $4.22 / 1.086^5

PV ≈ $2.91 + $3.07 + $3.24 + $3.41 + $3.59

PV ≈ $16.22

Therefore, the estimated value per share of Procter and Gamble at the end of 2018 using the dividend-discount model is approximately $16.22.

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The dividend in 2018 was $2.95, and it is expected to grow at a rate of 7.4% for the next five years and 2.6% thereafter. With an equity cost of capital of 8.6%, the value per share at the end of 2018 can be calculated.

To calculate the value per share at the end of 2018, we need to discount the expected future dividends using the dividend-discount model.
The model assumes that the value of a stock is equal to the present value of all its expected future dividends. First, we need to calculate the dividends for each year from 2019 to 2023. We start with the dividend in 2018, which was $2.95. We then increase it by 7.4% each year for the next five years:

Dividend in 2019 = $2.95 * (1 + 7.4%) = $3.17
Dividend in 2020 = $3.17 * (1 + 7.4%) = $3.40
Dividend in 2021 = $3.40 * (1 + 7.4%) = $3.65
Dividend in 2022 = $3.65 * (1 + 7.4%) = $3.92
Dividend in 2023 = $3.92 * (1 + 7.4%) = $4.22

After 2023, the dividend is expected to grow at a rate of 2.6% per year. To find the value per share at the end of 2018, we discount the future dividends to their present value using the equity cost of capital of 8.6%.
The present value of the dividends can be calculated as follows:
PV = (D1 / (1 + r)) + (D2 / (1 + r)^2) + ... + (Dn / (1 + r)^n) where PV is the present value, D1 to Dn are the dividends for each year, r is the equity cost of capital, and n is the number of years.

In this case, n = 5 because we are discounting the dividends for the next five years. Let's calculate the present value: PV = ($3.17 / (1 + 8.6%)) + ($3.40 / (1 + 8.6%)^2) + ($3.65 / (1 + 8.6%)^3) + ($3.92 / (1 + 8.6%)^4) + ($4.22 / (1 + 8.6%)^5)
PV = $3.17 / 1.086 + $3.40 / 1.086^2 + $3.65 / 1.086^3 + $3.92 / 1.086^4 + $4.22 / 1.086^5
PV ≈ $2.91 + $3.07 + $3.24 + $3.41 + $3.59
PV ≈ $16.22
Therefore, the estimated value per share of Procter and Gamble at the end of 2018 using the dividend-discount model is approximately $16.22.

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Answer:

See the answers below

Step-by-step explanation:

Given data

Dimension of the field

Length = 100m

Width= 52.5m

A). Perimeter fencing= 2L+2W

P= 2*100+ 2*52.5

P= 100+  105

P = 205m

B. Area= L*W

A= 100*52.5

A= 5250m^2